Quiz Questions Exam 1 Flashcards
(335 cards)
1
Q
What are the four basic tissues of the human body?
A
epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissues
2
Q
What is the function of each type of bone cell?
A
osteoblast - form bone;
osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone;
osteoclast - remodel bone
3
Q
What are the bone cells embedded in?
A
an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals.
4
Q
What is the primary constituent of ground substance?
A
gylcosaminoglycans
5
Q
What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?
A
collagen type I
6
Q
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
A
Hydroxyapatite
7
Q
What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?
A
living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to various stressors.
8
Q
What three responses of “living” bone were stressed in class?
A
it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors, and to age.
9
Q
Bone is the Embryological derivative of which specific connective tissues?
A
mesenchyme and/or cartilage.
10
Q
what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
A
Intramembranous ossification.
11
Q
what is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
A
from the second to third month in utero.
12
Q
What part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification?
A
the Skull
13
Q
Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is partially formed by intramembranous ossification
A
the Clavicle
14
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
A
endochondral
15
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
A
from the second to fifth month in utero.
16
Q
What part of the skull is derived from endrochondral ossification?
A
chrondocranium
17
Q
What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on the time of apperance?
A
primary centers of ossification appear before birth
secondary centers of ossification appear after birth
18
Q
What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?
A
sexual dimorphism(gender variation), ontogenetic variation(growth or age variation), geogrpahic or population-based variation(ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation(Individual variation)
19
Q
What are the more commonly used classifications of normal bone?
A
long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones
20
Q
What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal Anatomy?
A
Heterotopic and Accessory Bone
21
Q
What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
A
heterotopic bone
22
Q
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
A
Accessory bone
23
Q
What is the primary characteristic of short bones?
A
they are essentially cuboidal
24
Q
What are examples of short bones?
A
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus. (pisiform is sesamoid)
25
What are examples of flat bones?
The parietal and sternum
26
What is characteristic of a pneumatic bone?
air spaces within the bone
27
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal
28
What bones contain paranasal sinuses
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla & sphenoid
29
What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?
the bone develops within a tendon
30
What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella, and pisiform
31
What are examples of Heterotopic Bone?
Calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart and ligaments
32
What are examples of accessory bone?
para-articular processes and boney spurs of vertebrae
33
What are the four basic surface feature characteristics?
Elevations, Depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets
34
What are the types of osseous elevations?
linear, rounded & sharp
35
What are the types of osseous linear elevation?
the line, ridge, and crest
36
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus.
37
What is the definition of an osseous trochanter?
a large, blunt projection from the surface of bone with a significant base and height.
38
What is the definition of an osseous Malleoulus?
a hammerhead-like elevation on the surface of bone
39
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
40
What are the categories of osseous depressions?
linear and rounded depressions
41
What are the categories of linear osseous depressions?
Notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus
42
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
43
What is the definition of an osseous fovea?
a shallow depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone
44
What are the names given to the openings on the surface of bone?
ostium, orface, and hiatus
45
What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?
an irregular opening on the surface of bone.
46
What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
47
What is the definition of an osseous foramen?
an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone.
48
What is the definition of an osseous canal?
an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone.
49
What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?
meatus
50
What is the definition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of two adjacent bones.
51
What are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facts and rounded facets
52
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
Articular Heads, and Articular Condyles.
53
What is the definition of an osseous condyle?
a knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation.
54
How many bones form the typical adult apendicular skeleton.
126 bones
55
What bones form the axial skeleton?
the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs.
56
What is the name given to the skull minus the mandible?
the cranium
57
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?
28 bones
58
How Many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
59
What bones form the facial skeleton?
mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine, and Zygomatic.
60
How many bones form the facail skeleton? (AKA Splanchocranium or visceral skeleton)
14 bones
61
How many bones comprise the typical adult auditory ossicles?
6 bones
62
How many bones are present in the adult hyoid?
1 bone
63
What is the number of bones comprising each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column?
7 Cervical, 12 Thoracic, and 5 Lumbar vertebrae, 1 Sacrum and 1 Coccyx
64
What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
the spine
65
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?
24 bones
66
What is the definition of "spine" as it pretains to the vertebral column?
the pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column.
67
How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?
1 bone
68
What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?
the manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni, and the xiphoid proccess.
69
How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?
12 pair or 24 ribs
70
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?
33 segments
71
What is the number of vetebrae in a typical adult?
26 Segments
| side note, this includes 1 fused sacrum, and 1 fused coccyx
72
What is the number of vetebrae in the typical spine?
24 segments
| side note, spine = pre-sacral
73
How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?
5 segments
74
How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?
4 segments
75
Which mammals do not have seven cervical vetebrae?
2-MA-3
2-M7 ( Ant Bear, 3 toed sloth)
76
Which mammals have more the seven cervical vertebrae?
Ant bear, and Three toed sloth
77
Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
Two toed sloth, and Manatee.
78
What does the term "cervical" refer to?
The region of the neck.
79
What does the term "thoracic" refer to?
breast plate or chest; it is referred to the armor bearing region of the torso.
80
What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?
the dorsal segments; the dorsals
81
What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?
12 segments
82
What does the term "lumbar" refer to?
the loin; the region between the rib and the hip.
83
What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?
5 segments.
84
What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?
the cavaria or calva
85
What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?
the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium) and the auditory ossicles.
86
What does the term "scarum" refer to?
the holy bone or holy region
87
What does the term "coccyx" refer to?
a cuckoo birds' bill or cuckoo birds' beak
88
What is the length of a typical male spinal column
about 70 centimeters or 28 inches
89
What is the length of a typical female spinal column
about 60 centimeters or 25 inches
90
What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?
about 3 inchs
91
What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
92
What is the length of the male thoracic region? (both measurements)
about 28 centimeters or 11 inches
93
What is the length of the male lumbar region? (both measurements)
about 18 centimeters or 7 inches
94
What is the length of the male sacrum? (both measurements)
about 12 centimeters or 5 inches
95
Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine? (Both measurements)
about 58 centimeters or 23 inches.
96
What parts of the body are supported by the vertebral column?
the head, upper extremities, ribs, viscera, and pelvis
97
How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?
ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template.
98
What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at the auricular surface.
99
Distinguish between motion and locomotion.
Motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location.
100
What orgasn(s) is(are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear.
101
What are the 3 layers of the embryo called?
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm.
102
Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?
notochord
103
What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?
paraxial mesoderm
104
What does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column?
somites
105
Name the areas of cellular differentiation fromed within the somite?
sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome
106
What part of the somite will give rise to the vertebral column?
scelrotome
107
List, in order, the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?
membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous.
108
Migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?
the perichordal blastema
109
The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?
neural processes and costal processes
110
What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae? (blastemae = pleural blastema's)
intersegmental artery
111
cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema will result in what features?
a loose cranial sclerotomite and an dense caudal scelrotomite
112
What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?
the intrasclerotomal fissue (fissure of Von Ebner)
113
what is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult inter vertebral disc?
the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of Von Ebner)
114
The union of a dense caudal scelrotomite and a loose cranail sclerotomite from adjacent pericordal blastemae give rise to what feature?
the vertebral blastema
115
What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?
the segmental artery
116
When will cartilage first from in the membranous vertebral blastema?
beginning in the 6th embryonic week
117
What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?
chondrification
118
Chondrification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?
the cervical region
119
What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?
centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center.
120
How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?
six... 2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arch, 2 for each transverse process.
121
what is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?
during the 7th embryonic week
122
What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers
123
What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
centrum centers, and neural arch centers
124
What is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra?
Neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis
125
what is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification?
cartilage synchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis
126
What are the names of the synchondroses forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra?
neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis
127
What are the names of the five centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers.
128
How many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?
five... 1 for the tip of of each transverse process, 1 for the tip of the spinous process, 1 for each epiphyseal plate.
129
What is the classification of the joint forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?
cartilage synchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis.
130
What are the names of the synchondroses forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?
tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis.
131
what is the range of appearance for the secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?
during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old
132
What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?
the vertebral body, vertebral arch, and apophyseal regions.
133
What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?
cervical - rectangular;
thoracic - triangular;
lumbar - reniform.
134
What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?
superior epiphyseal ring, inferior epiphyseal ring.
135
What is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?
superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate.
136
What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?
nutrient foramina or vascular foramina.
137
What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?
the basivertebral venous foramina.
138
What is the name of the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure;
| the inferior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure.
139
What is the generic orientation of the pedicale at each region of the spine?
cervical -posterolateral
thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
lumbar posterior
140
What name is given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?
The pedicle
141
What name is given to the posterior part of the vertebral notch?
The lamina
142
All lamina are oriented in what direction?
posterior and median
143
What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray?
shingling
144
What ligament will attach to the lamina?
the ligamentum flavum
145
What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?
Para-articular process
146
What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?
accessory bone
147
What is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine?
cervical: articular pillar;
| thoracic and lumbar: pars articularis
148
What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral X-ray?
the spinolaminar junction
149
What is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?
the apophyseal regions
150
What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?
the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process.
151
All non-rib-bearing vertebra retain what equivalent feature?
The costal element
152
What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or Transverse Process?
the transverse tubercle
153
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and down to form the cervical and brachial plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position.
154
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?
The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse progresses back.
155
What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?
the zygapophysis
156
What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?
the superior articular facet
157
What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?
the inferior articular facet
158
In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the?
pre-pzygapophysis
159
In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the?
post-zygapophysis
160
What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?
the superior articular process or superior articular apophysis
161
What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post-zygapophysis?
the inferior articular process or superior articular apophysis
162
What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior articular process/post zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum.
163
What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
164
What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure
165
What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament.
166
What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane.
167
What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?
imbrication?
168
What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?
the spinous tubercle
169
What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical - slight angle inferiorly
thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar - no inferior angle
170
What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?
cervical - triangular
thoracic - oval
lumbar - triangular
Sacrum -triangular
171
What what cord level does the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1
172
At what vertberal level will the dural sac typically terminate?
L2
173
Which of the segemental arteries will arise from the internal iliac artery?
the iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries
174
identify all segmental arteries
veterbral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posterior intercostal, subcostal, lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median(middle) sacral.
175
What are the segemental arteries of the cervical spine?
the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery, and deep cervical artery.
176
What are the segemental arteries of the thoracic spine?
the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery, and subcostal artery.
177
What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?
the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery.
178
What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery.
179
What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery.
180
What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?
C1-C6
181
What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?
C1-C6
182
What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?
C7-T1
183
What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?
T1, T2
184
What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?
T3-T11
185
What segmental level(s) are supplied by the subcostal artery?
T12
186
What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?
L1-L4
187
What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) Sacral Artery?
L5, S1-S5 and coccyx
188
What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?
L5, S1-S5 and coccyx
189
What segmental levels are supplied by the lateral sacral artery?
L5, S1-S5 and coccyx
190
Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?
L5
191
What are the segmental arteries for L5
iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery
192
Which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen?
spinal artery
193
What are the branches of the spinal artery?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery. Posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior redicular artery, posterior radicular artery.
194
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery. posterior spinal canal artery
195
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
196
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
posterior spinal canal artery & plexus
197
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?
anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery.
198
Which vessel will supply ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?
anterior radicular artery
199
Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root, and nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular artery
200
Which artery is now said to enlarge and form the medullary feeder artery?
the radicular artery
201
What is the location and number of medullary feeder arteries preesent in the adult?
9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries.
202
The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the vertebral artery
203
Is the anterior spinal artery a single continuous artery along the spinal cord?
No
204
As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
anterior medullary feeder arteries.
205
The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
The posterior inferior cerebellar artery?
206
What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?
it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord.
207
As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
posterior medullary feeder arteries.
208
What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?
right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries.
209
What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?
a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries.
210
What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?
intramedullary arteries
211
What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?
pial perforating arteries and central/ventral/sulcal perforating ateries.
212
What artery gives of the ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries?
the anterior spinal artery
213
What arteries form the pail perforating arteries?
the posterior spinal arteries and the communicating arteries
214
What arteries are responsible for supplementing the arterial vasa corona along the cord?
anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders.
215
What vessels drain the cord?
pial veins
216
What will pial veins drain into?
venous vasa corona
217
Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?
right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins.
218
Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?
anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins
219
Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?
anterior radicular veins
220
Which vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve roots?
posterior radicular veins
221
What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?
posterior radicular veins
222
What will lie in the subarachnoid space?
pial veins, venous vasa corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins.
223
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament?
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
224
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
225
What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?
intervertebral veins
226
Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis) and the commonly accepted meaning of each
dura mater - tough mother
arachnoid mater - spider mother
pia mater - tender or delicate mother
227
What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
interstitial fluid
228
What are the vascular contents of the epidural space?
anterior and posterior spinal canal artery & plexus;
| anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus; basivertebral vein
229
What are the neural contents of the epidural space?
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
230
What ligaments are associated with the epidural space?
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments ligamentum flavum
posterior longitudinal ligament
231
Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
232
Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
233
Which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
posterior longitudinal ligament and hoffman/anterior dural/meningovertbral ligaments
234
Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
posterior spinal canal artery & plexus
| posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
235
Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
236
Which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
ligamentum flavum and hofmann/anterior dural/meningoveterbal ligaments
237
Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?
sub-dural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
238
Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery & plexus;
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinues vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningoverterbral ligaments.
239
Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
posterior spinal canal artery & plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/Anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments.
240
What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural spcae?
Serous fluid
241
What is the name given top the fluid within the subarachnoid space?
Cerebrospinal fluid.
242
What ligaments may be present in the subarachnoid space?
dentate/denticulate ligament
243
What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?
dentate/denticulate ligament
244
What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?
they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins
245
In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?
transverse
246
What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?
C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement.
247
Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?
C6
248
In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2 down to T1?
midsaggital or anterior posterior plane
249
What spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?
L1-L3 spinal nerves
250
What is the generic cord level of origin - vertebral combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?
L1, L2 Cord levels in T9 vertebra;
L3, L4 Cord levels in T10 Vertebra;
L5, S1 Cord levels in T11 Vertebra;
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 Vertebra.
251
What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?
Conus Medullaris
252
What spinal nerves originate from the conus Medullaris?
Typically S4, S5, and Co1
253
In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?
L1
254
What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?
Cauda Equina
255
What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?
filum terminale internum
256
What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudel part of the vertebral column?
typically S2, the dural cul de sac
257
Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale internum?
proximal part of the filum terminale internum.
258
What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?
it joins the peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3, and as low as S4.
259
What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate?
lower limbs and the external sphincter
260
The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on a angiogram?
cruciate anastomosis
261
What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?
filum terminale externum
262
What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?
coccygeal medullary vestige.
263
What is the name given to the condition in which the conmus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?
tethered cord syndrome
264
What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?
it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigated damage to the spinal cord caused by a tethered cord.
265
At the intervetebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the cervical spine?
in the cervical spine, spinal nerves exit above the segement they were numbered after (C8 nerve is the exception to this rule). C3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2/C3.
266
At the intervetebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the thoracic and lumbar spine and the sacrum?
in the thoracic and lumbar spine, and for the sacrum, spinal nerves extis below the segment they are numbered after (Co1 nerve is the exception to this rule). T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6/T7.
267
What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?
rib number always equates to the same vertebral number at the constocentral joint, rib 3 articulates with T3 segment and also with the T2 Segment;
only ribs 1, 11, and 12 typically joint with a single segement.
268
What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoraic interveterbral number.
the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple. I.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with the vertebral couple.
269
What is the name given to the front of the C1 bony ring?
The anterior arch
270
What osseous modification is observed to the front of the anteior arch of C1?
the anterior tubercle.
271
What is observed on the the back of the anterior arch of C1?
Fovea Dentis
272
What attaches behind the anterior arch of C1?
Lateral Mass
273
What is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1?
tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament.
274
What is identified in the midline at the back of the posterior arch of C1?
the posterior tubercle
275
What superior surface modification of the posterior arch of C1 is present near the lateral mass?
groove/sulcus for the vertebral artery.
276
What superior surface modification is present near the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1?
Arcuate rim
277
What attaches to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of atlas and to the superior articular process of the lateral mass of atlas?
a complete ponticulus posticus.
278
Based on the amount of bony union between the superior articular process and the arcuate rim of C1 what structure will form?
an incomplete ponticulus posticus, or a complete ponticulus posticus.
279
What names are given to the opening formed by trhe ponticulus posticus?
arcuate foramen or retroarticular canal
280
What is observed on the undersurface of the posterior arch of C1?
the inferior vertebral notch
281
What is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C1?
the costal element.
282
What is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C1?
the true transverse process.
283
What is the distal most part of the transverse process of C1?
the posterior tubercle.
284
What opening is identified in the transverse process of C1?
the transverse foramen.
285
What unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2?
the dens or odontoid process.
286
What surfaces are present on the odontoid process of C2?
Facet for fovea dentis, groove for tranverse alantal ligament, attachment sites for the alar ligaments, attachment site for the apical-dental ligament.
287
What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the vertebral body of C2?
the longus coli muscle attachment
288
What feature is identified on the posterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?
the posterior lip
289
What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?
the anterior lip
290
What features are present at the lateral margins of the vertebral body of C2?
right and left lateral groove.
291
What lies on the upper surface of the pedicle of C2?
the superior articular proccess.
292
What is the location of the superior vertebral notch of C2?
on the lamina pedicle junction
293
What feature is identified on the lower surface of the pedicle of C2?
the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure.
294
What osseous parts of the typical cervical transverse process are present at C2?
costal element, posterior tubercle and true transverse process.
295
What is the characteristic appearance of the C2 spinous process in humans?
it is bifid.
296
What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes
297
What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves.
298
What attaches to the posterolateral margin and in the center of a typical cervical vertebral body?
the pedicle
299
What surface feature is located at the lower margin of the pedicle?
inferior vertebral notch/incisure
300
What surface feature is located at the upper margin of the pedicle?
superior vertebral notch/incisure
301
What bony feature is attached to the posterior end of the pedicle?
the articular pillar
302
What is located at the top of the articular pillar?
the superior articular process.
303
The superior articular process will provide support for what bony feature?
the superior articular facet.
304
What is located at the bottom of the articular pillar?
the inferior articular process
305
The inferior articular process will provide support for what bony feature?
the inferior articular facet.
306
What is the name for the of the surfaced feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?
the groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve.
307
What bone feature is attached to the posterior part of the articular pillar?
the lamina
308
What is ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?
ligamentum flavum.
309
Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?
para-articular process.
310
To what parts of the typical cervical veterbra is the transverse process attached.
the vertebral body and the articulate pillar.
311
List, in order the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.
Costal Element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process.
312
What is the distal modification of the costal element of a typical cervical vertebra?
the anterior tubercle
313
What is the distal modification of the true transverse process of typical cervicals?
the posterior tubercle.
314
What bony feature connects the anterior and posterior tubercles of a typical cervical transverse process?
costotransverse bar, or intertubercular lamella
315
What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?
sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve.
316
What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?
the carotid tubercle.
317
What is the usual condition for the Caucasian typical cervical spinous process?
they are bifid
318
What is the usual condition for the African american typical cervical spinous process?
the are non-bifid.
319
What is the osseous modification at the distal end of the spinous process?
spinous tubercle
320
What surfaces are present on the superior epiphyseal rim of the vertebral body of C7?
Anterior Groove, Posterior Groove, Left and right uncinate processes
321
What are the osseous parts of the transverse process of C7?
costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process.
322
What are the features of the spinous process of C7?
long, horizontal, nonbifid.
323
What features will allow discrimination between T2-T4 and T5-T8 segmental groups?
the vertebral body, transverse process, articular process and spinous process.
324
On cranial view, what is the outline of the T2-T4 group?
the vertebral body will have bilaterally convex sides.
325
On cranial view, what is the outline of the T5-T8 group?
the left side of the vertebral body will be flattened, the right side convex.
326
What is the name given to the left side appearance of the vertebral body of T5-T8?
Aortic Impression
327
What part of the vertebral body is most influenced by the aorta at T5-T8?
the superior and inferior epiphyseal rims
328
What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic?
the right and left superior, and the right and left infrerior costal demi-facets.
329
Which of the demi-facets on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic larger?
superior costal demi-facet.
330
What is the position and direction of the pedicle from the typical thoracic vertebral body?
the pedicle arises from the upper third of the vertebral body and projects posterior and slightly laterally.
331
What is the appearance and position of the lamina in a typical thoracic?
the lamina is short, broad and thick and lies next to the spinous process.
332
What is the direction of the transverse process in the typical thoracics?
the transverse process projects more posterior with each inferior verterba.
333
How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T2-T4 region?
the superior articular process transverse diameter is greater than the inferior articular process diameter for a given segment.
334
How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T5-T8 region?
the superior articular process transverse diameter is the same or equal to the inferior articular process diameter for a given segment.
335
What is the angulation of the spinous process of T2-T4?
the under surface of T2-T4 spinous processes will angle up to forty degrees from the horizontal plane.
