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quiz questions test 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

which mammals do not have seven cervical verebrae?

A

the two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and the three toed sloth

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2
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

ontogenetic variation

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3
Q

which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?

A

1) gender variation or sexual dimorphism
2) ontogenetic variation
3) geographic or population based variation
4) idiosyncratic variation

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4
Q

what is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

70 cm or 28 inches

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5
Q

what is the length of the male cervical region?

A

12 cm or 5 in

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6
Q

what is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

28 cm or 11 in

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7
Q

based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?

A

58 cm or 23 in

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8
Q

distinguish between motion and locomotion

A

motion is movement without travel;

locomotion is movement to a new site/location

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9
Q

what organ(s) are specifically associated with the horzontal axis fo the skull?

A

1) the eye

2) the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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10
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular
thoracic - triangular
lumbar- reniform

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11
Q

what is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

1) superior epiphyseal plate

2) inferior epiphyseal plate

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12
Q

what are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

A

ages 7-9 years - appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years - formation fo the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years - formation of the epiphyseal rim

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13
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each regin of the spine?

A

cervical - posterolateral
thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
lumbar posterior

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14
Q

what is the name given to the abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

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15
Q

what is the name given to the overlap of lamnae seen on x-ray?

A

shingling

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16
Q

what is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - articular pillar
thoracic - pars interarticularis
lumbar - pars interarticularis

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17
Q

what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - anterolateral
thoracic - posterolateral
lumbar - lateral

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18
Q

what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

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19
Q

what wil cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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20
Q

what is the name given to the joint formed by the articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

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21
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical inververtebral foramen?

A

1) inferior articular process/post-zygap.
2) superior articular process/ the pre-zygap.
3) the capsular ligament
4) the ligamentum flavum

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22
Q

what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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23
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

1) the vertebral body of the segment above
2) the vertebral body of the segment below
3) the intervertebral disc
4) the posterior longitudinal ligament

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24
Q

what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

imbrication

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25
what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical - slight angle inferiorly thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly lumbar - no inferior angle
26
What is the name given to the union of all vertebral foramina into an apparent vertical cylinder?
the vertebral canal or spinal canal
27
What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?
1) spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinallis 2) proximal part of the peripheral nerve system 3) the meninges
28
what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?
cervical - triangular thoracic - oval lumbar - trangular sacrum - triangular
29
identify the meninges of the spinal cored/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each
dura mater - tough mother arachnoid mother - spider mother pia mater - tender or delicate mother
30
name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis
epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater subarachnoid space - between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater
31
which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?
1) anterior spinal canal artery and plexus 2) anterior internal vertebral venous plexus 3) basivertebral vein 4) recurrent meningeal sinus vertebral nerve 5) posterior longitudinal ligament 6) Hoffmann ligament
32
what are the branches of the spinal artery?
1) osseous artery 2) anterior spinal canal artery 3) posterior spinal canal artery 4) anterior medullary feeder arteries 5) posterior medullary feeder arteries 6) neural artery
33
which vessel will supply the dorsal/posteior nerve root ganglion?
posterior distal radicular artery
34
what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries
35
the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris is calld what?
filum terminale internum
36
what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?
``` C3-T1 = the cervical enlargement T9-T12 = the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement ```
37
what is a generic cord level of origin = vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?
L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
38
what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?
typically S4, S5, and Co1
39
What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?
coccygeal medullary vestige
40
what forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?
1) median anterior spinal artery 2) right and left posterior spinal arteries 3) 3 communicating arteries
41
waht is th ename given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?
tethered cord syndrome
42
what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?
1) spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple 2) the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
43
What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?
posterior height is greater than anterior | height by a few millimeters
44
At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?
C5/C6
45
What is the joint classification for the posterior lip - posterior groove articulation?
amphiarthrosis syndesmosis
46
what is the joint classification for the uncinate process - lateral groove articulation?
modified diarthrosis sellar
47
what is the joint classification ofr the spongy bone - intervertebral disc articulation?
amphiarthrosis symphysis
48
how many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
10. 5 on top 5 on bottom
49
what is the name given to the uncinate process- lateral groove articulation?
joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint
50
What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?
longus colli muscle
51
what is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?
posterolateral; | 45 degrees
52
what ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical
ligamentum flavum
53
The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple
C5/C6
54
List in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.
1) costal element 2) anterior tubercle 3) costotransverse bar 4) posterior tubercle 5) true transverse process
55
What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?
1) anterior scalene 2) longus capitis 3) Longus colli 4) anterior intertransverse muscles
56
what muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?
1) middle scalene | 2) posterior intertransverse muscles
57
what is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?
60* anterolaterally from migsagittal plane | 15* inferiorly from the horizontal plane
58
what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?
the carotid tubercle
59
What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?
1) vertebral artery 2) vertebral venous plexus 3) postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fiber
60
what muscles blend with the capsular ligament of the cervical zygapophyses?
1) semispinalis capitis 2) multifidis 3) rotator longus
61
what muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?
1) longissimus capitis 2) longissimus cervicis 3) semispinalis capitis 4) semispinalis cervicis 5) multifidis 6) rotators
62
the greatest range of flexion-extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?
C5/C6
63
what motions are coupled in the cervical spine?
1) lateral bending | 2) axial rotation
64
ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at what cervical vertebral couple?
C5/C6 couple
65
what are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as "living"?
1) ability to heal 2) ability to remodel under stressors 3) ability to age
66
what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
intramembranous ossification
67
what part of the skull is derived from the endochondral ossification?
chondrocranium
68
which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
the clavicle
69
what are the examples of short bones?
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
70
what are the examples of pneumatic bone?
1) frontal 2) ethmoid 3) maxilla 4) sphenoid 5) temporal
71
what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella and pisiform
72
what are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
1) tubercle 2) protuberance 3) trochanter 4) tuber/tuberosity 5) malleolus
73
what is the definition of an osseous canal?
an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone
74
what is the definition of an osseous meatus?
a blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone
75
what is the definition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
76
what are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
77
what are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?
1) neurocranium 2) splanchnocranium aka facial skeleton 3) auditory ossicles
78
what are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?
1) atypical ribs 2) true ribs 3) costa verae 4) vertebrosternal ribs
79
what are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?
1) typical ribs 2) false ribs 3) costa spuriae 4) vertebrochondral ribs
80
what are the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints?
1) suture 2) gomphosis 3) schindylesis 4) syndesmosis
81
what are the sutura vera?
true sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembranous ossification
82
what are the sutura notha?
false sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification
83
what are examples of a permanent amphiarthrosis synchondrosis?
costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
84
what are the characteristics of an amphiarthrosis symphysis?
limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posteior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification
85
which example of an amphiarthrosis symphysis is temporary?
symphysis menti
86
what are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?
1) located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule 2) resemble ruffini endings 3) most numberous in the cervical zygapophyses 4) monitor the joint "at rest"
87
what are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?
1) they resemble Pacinian corpuscles 2) located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule 3) most numerous in the cervical spine 4) monitor the joint during normal range of motion.
88
what are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors?
1) resemble Golgi tendon organs 2) present in collarteral and intrinsic ligaments 3) not initially observed along the vertebral column 4) monitor extreme joint motion
89
what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?
1) synovial villi 2) articular fat pads, haversian glands, and synovial menisci 3) interarticular discs
90
what are the three classifications of synovial membrane?
1) articular 2) vaginal 3) bursal
91
what is the specific fucntion of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
92
what are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?
water cells collagen type 2 fibers proteoglycan gel
93
what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
94
what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly; a time dependent property
95
what is weeping theory?
weeping theory implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film.
96
what is boosted theory?
boosted theory implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid.
97
what is boundary theory?
boundary theory implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed.
98
what are the properties of synovial fluid?
yellow-white viscous slightly alkaline tastes salty
99
what are the classifications of diarthroses based on the number of articulating surfaces?
simple compound complex
100
what is a complex diarthrosis?
the articulating surfaces are spearated by an articular disc or meniscus
101
what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
102
what morphological classificatoins of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?
1) diarthrosis ginglymus | 2) diarthrosis trochoid
103
what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?
1) diarthrosis bicondylar 2) diarthrosis condylar 3) diarthrosis ellipsoidal 4) diarthrosis sellar
104
what are examples of diarthrosis arthrodia joints?
1) most zygapophyses of the vertebral column 2) intercarpal, carpometacarpal, and intermetacarpal joints of the hand 3) intercuneiform, tarsometatarsal, and intermetatarsal joints of the foot
105
what are examples of diarthrosis ginglymus joints?
humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes
106
what are the examples of diarthrosis trochoid joints?
median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
107
what are examples of diarthrosis sellar joints?
1) carpometacarpal joint of the thumb 2) talocrural joint of the ankle 3) calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
108
what are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?
1) cervical 2) petrous 3) cavernous 4) cerebral
109
what are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?
1) deep cervical artery 2) highest (superior) intercostal artery 3) posterior intercostal artery 4) subcostal artery
110
what vessels form the retromandibular vein?
superficial temporal and internal maxillary vein
111
what is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries?
remove excess plasma proteins from hte interstitial space and prevent edema
112
what characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?
1) they begin as blind-ended sacs 2) they have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries 3) they are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries 4) they are more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries
113
what are the names of the ducts of the lymphatic system?
right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct
114
what parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?
1) right side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall 2) right upper extremity 3) right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver
115
what is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?
L2 from the cisterna chyli
116
what are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?
the tonsils and peyer's patches of the small intestine
117
what is the function of lymph nodules?
perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line and to aid in the immune response
118
what is the function of lymph nodes?
they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they do participate in the immune response

spinal anatomy 2 (5 decks)

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