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1

1. Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brainstem?
a) medulla oblongata
b) pons
c) midbrain
d) diencephalon
e) cerebellum

d) diencephalon

2

2. ________ are chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid.
a) Lobes
b) Ventricles
c) Nuclei
d) Fissures
e) Gyri

b) Ventricles

3

3. The skeletal muscles are innervated by the ________ nervous system.
a) somatic
b) central
c) autonomic
d) sympathetic
e) parasympathetic

a) somatic

4

4. Which of the following is/are NOT part of the sensory division?
a) somatic sensory receptors
b) special sense receptors
c) visceral sense receptors
d) skeletal muscles

d) skeletal muscles

5

5. Myelination in the CNS is provided by
a) astrocytes.
b) ependymal cells.
c) microglia.
d) oligodendrocytes.
e) neurons.

d) oligodendrocytes.

6

6. Which of the following forms part of the blood-brain barrier ?
a) astrocytes.
b) ependymal cells.
c) microglia.
d) oligodendrocytes.
e) neurons.

a) astrocytes.

7

7. Efferent/motor fibers carry information from ________ to ________.
a) CNS; tissue
b) CNS; PNS
c) PNS; CNS
d) sensory; PNS
e) sensory; CNS

a) CNS; tissue

8

8. Neuroglia that surround neural cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system are called
a) Schwann cells.
b) satellite cells.
c) astrocytes.
d) oligodendrocytes.
e) ependymal cells.

b) satellite cells

9

9. The neurons responsible for higher functions such as learning are
a) peripheral neurons.
b) interneurons.
c) somatic neurons.
d) visceral neurons.
e) sensory neuron

b) interneurons.

10

10. Internal and external receptors send information along
a) afferent fibers.
b) efferent fibers.
c) visceral effectors.
d) somatic effectors.
e) ganglia.

a) afferent fibers

11

11. Cells that myelinate neurons are named ________ in the CNS and ________ in the PNS.
a) oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells
b) oligodendrocytes; satellite cells
c) satellite cells; Schwann cells
d) Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes
e) oligodendrocytes; microgl

a) oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells

12

12. The neurotransmitter usually released at neuromuscular junctions is
a) glutamine.
b) acetylcholine.
c) serotonin.
d) epinephrine.
e) norepinephrin

b) acetylcholine.

13

13. Which of the following is NOT considered a catecholamine?
a) serotonin
b) dopamine
c) Norepinephrine
d) Epinephrine

a) serotonin

14

14. Botulinum toxin (botox) causes skeletal muscle paralysis because it inhibits the release of
a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Acetylcholine
d) Acetylcholine esterase

c) Acetylcholine

15

15. Guillain-Barre syndrome affects the….
a) Somatic nervous system
b) Peripheral nervous system
c) Central nervous system
d) Cranial nerve

b) Peripheral nervous system

16

16. The region of the brain closest to the spinal cord is the
a) midbrain.
b) cerebrum.
c) cerebellum.
d) medulla oblongata.
e) thalamus

d) medulla oblongata

17

17. The slender canal running between the third and fourth ventricles is called the
a) ventricle.
b) cerebral aqueduct.
c) fissure.
d) foramen.
e) sulci.

b) cerebral aqueduc

18

18. The brain region that relays and processes sensory information is called the
a) thalamus.
b) hypothalamus.
c) cerebellum.
d) medulla oblongata.
e) midbrain.

a) thalamus.

19

19. The brain region that autonomically regulates heart rate and blood pressure is called the
a) thalamus.
b) hypothalamus.
c) cerebellum.
d) medulla oblongata.
e) midbrain.

d) medulla oblongata.

20

20. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebrum?
a) conscious thought
b) memory storage
c) sensory processing
d) regulation of skeletal muscles
e) autonomic control

e) autonomic control

21

21. The tract connecting the two cerebral hemispheres is called the
a) basal nuclei.
b) corpus callosum.
c) pons.
d) medulla.
e) cerebral aqueduct.

b) corpus callosum.

22

25. The speech center of the cerebrum is known as the
a) auditory cortex.
b) visual cortex.
c) gustatory cortex.
d) Broca’s area.
e) visual association area.

d) Broca’s area.

23

26. Which of the following is NOT found in the brainstem?
a) cerebral peduncles
b) superior and inferior colliculi
c) substantia nigra
d) hypothalamus
e) pons

d) hypothalamus

24

27. The spinal nerve T1 emerges ________ vertebra T1.
a) inferior to
b) superior to
c) medial to
d) lateral to
e) within the

a) inferior to

25

28. The spinal roots that extend past the inferior end of the spinal cord are called the
a) ascending columns.
b) descending columns.
c) rami.
d) dorsal roots.
e) cauda equina.

e) cauda equina.

26

29. Sensory information enters the spinal cord through the
a) gray matter.
b) dorsal root.
c) ventral root.
d) median fissure.
e) central canal.

b) dorsal root.

27

30. Bundles of axons in the central nervous system are called
a) nerves.
b) tracts.
c) fissures.
d) sulci.
e) horns.

b) tracts.

28

31. The nerve that controls the tongue muscles is called the ________ nerve.
a) hypoglossal
b) accessory
c) trigeminal
d) trochlear
e) vagus

a) hypoglossal

29

32. A nerve that innervates some of the salivary glands is called the ________ nerve.
a) abducens
b) accessory
c) trigeminal
d) facial
e) vagus

d) facial

30

33. The brachial plexus innervates the
a) pelvic girdle and lower limbs.
b) pectoral girdle and upper limbs.
c) diaphragm.
d) facial muscles.
e) skull.

b) pectoral girdle and upper limbs.

31

34. The posterior column of the spinal cord carries ________ from ________ to ________.
a) sensations; receptors; sensory cortex
b) motor innervations; cerebral cortex; effectors
c) sensations; effectors; cerebral cortex
d) motor innervations; receptors; cerebral cortex
e) sensations; receptors; motor innervations

a) sensations; receptors; sensory cortex

32

35. The patellar reflex is activated by a
a) stretch receptor.
b) touch receptor.
c) chemoreceptor.
d) baroreceptor.
e) pressure recepto

a) stretch receptor.

33

36. Parkinson's disease results from damage to the
a) hypothalamus.
b) descending column.
c) substantia nigra.
d) ascending column.
e) myelinated neurons

c) substantia nigra.

34

37. The portion of the nervous system in control of visceral activities is the
a) CNS.
b) SNS.
c) ANS.
d) PNS

c) ANS.

35

38. The sympathetic division of the ANS utilizes spinal nerves arising from the
a) cervical region only.
b) thoracic region only.
c) cervical and thoracic regions.
d) thoracic and lumbar regions.
e) lumbar region only.

d) thoracic and lumbar regions.

36

39. Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter for
a) preganglionic sympathetic neurons.
b) preganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
c) postganglionic sympathetic neurons.
d) postganglionic parasympathetic neurons

c) postganglionic sympathetic neurons.

37

40. Which of the following cranial nerves do NOT carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibres
a) CNVII.
b) CN III
c) CN V
d) CN X

c) CN V

38

Osteoporosis

(wolfs law) over 50yrs, bone reabsorbtion clasts/blasts vit D/calcium deficiency. hormones- pth parathyroid and calcitonin

39

Achondroplastic dwarfism

genetic affects cartilage cells in epiphyseal plates

40

pituatary dwarfism

lack of growth hormone

41

marfans

cartilage continues to grow in long bones, slow closure of epiphyseal plates

42

osteomalacia

bone demineralising adults

43

rickets

bone demineralising child

44

herniated disk

nucleus pushes through crack in vertebrae

45

carpal tunnel

median nerve compressed through wrist

46

tennis elbow

pain forearm tendons - lateral epicondile

47

golfers elbow

pain forearm tendons - medial epicondile

48

hydrocephalus

cerebrospinal fluid is obstructed causing babies head to swell

49

parkinsons

not enough dopamine

50

multiple schlerosis

cns damaged myelin

51

guillian barre

rapid onset muscle weakness, pns

52

lordosis

swayback - lumbar

53

kyphosis

thoracic - (dowagers hump)

54

scoliosis

sideways curvature of spine

55

spina bifida

spinal cord in babies doesnt close

56

1. What cell am I? I reside in lacunae, I monitor stress placed on the tissue which surrounds
me, I communicate with other cells and give signals for remodelling. I am an ________
a) Osteon
b) Osteocyte
c) Osteoblast
d) Osteoclast

b) Osteocyte

57

2. Spongy bone in adults ______________
a) is located in the epiphyses of long bones and contains red marrow
b) is located in flat bones and contains red marrow
c) is located in the diaphysis of long bones and contains yellow marrow
d) a) and b) are both correct
e) a), b) and c) are correc

d) a) and b) are both correct

58

3. Fontanels are present in the skull of in new born babies. They are remnants of______
a) Endochondral ossification
b) Intramembranous ossification
c) Too much cerebrospinal fluid production
d) Osteoblasts

b) Intramembranous ossification

59

4. Marfan’s Syndrome is a connective tissue disorder. It affects_________; and results in an
individual having ________ limbs than normal
a) Osteoblasts in long bones; shorter
b) Periosteum of long bones; longer
c) Chondrocytes of epiphyseal plates; longer
d) Osteoclasts of epiphyseal plates; longer

c) Chondrocytes of epiphyseal plates; longer

60

5. Which of the following markings is classified as a projection that forms a joint?
a) Iliac crest
b) Pubic symphysis
c) Glenoid fossa
d) Facet

d) Facet

61

6. What bone am I? I have a ramus, a fossa, and an alveolar margin. I am the
a) Frontal bone
b) Mandible
c) Maxilla
d) Temporal bone

b) Mandible

62

7. Rickets and Osteomalacia are_____________
a) Bone demineralizing disorders
b) Bone remodelling disorders
c) Bone growth disorders
d) Cured by resistance training

a) Bone demineralizing disorders

63

8. Which of the following is the best aspect of the skull from which to view the temporal
bone?
a) superior
b) inferior
c) anterior
d) Lateral

d) Lateral

64

9. Which of the following bones houses the sella turcica?
a) sphenoid
b) ethmoid
c) temporal
d) occipital

a) sphenoid

65

10. Which of the following bones forms most of the middle cranial fossa
a) occipital
b) temporal
c) frontal
d) ethmoid

b) temporal

66

11. Which of the following are considered to be primary curvatures of the spinal column?
a) Cervical and thoracic
b) Thoracic and sacral
c) Lumbar and cervical
d) Lumbar and thoracic

b) Thoracic and sacral

67

12. Which of the following vertebrae possess transverse foramen?
a) Cervical
b) Lumbar
c) Thoracic
d) Sacral

a) Cervical

68

13. The vertebra prominens is_______
a) T12
b) L1
c) C1
d) C7

d) C7

69

14. The pectoral girdle articulates with the axial skeleton…..
a) through muscle attachment of the scapula
b) by the acromioclavicular joint
c) by the sternoclavicular joint
d) by the glenohumeral joint

c) by the sternoclavicular join

70

15. The olecranon process is a feature of…..
a) the femur
b) the radius
c) the mandible
d) the ulna

d) the ulna

71

16. The pelvic girdle attaches to the axial skeleton via the…..
a) acetabulum
b) pubic symphysis
c) sacroiliac joint
d) Femur

c) sacroiliac joint

72

17. When you place your hands on your hips, you are palpating the …….
a) ischial tuberosity
b) iliac crest
c) pubic symphysis
d) sacrum

b) iliac crest

73

18. Which of the following bones forms the lateral malleolus
a) tibia
18. Which of the following bones forms the lateral malleolus
a) tibia
b) fibula
c) femur
d) Talus
c) femur
d) Talus

18. Which of the following bones forms the lateral malleolus
a) tibia
b) fibula
c) femur
d) Talus

74

19. Which of the following bones is a tarsal bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula
a) talus
b) calcaneus
c) first metatarsal
d) Both a) and b) are correct

a) talus

75

20. Which of the following ligaments is NOT responsible for stabilizing the hip joint?
a) Pubofemoral ligament
b) Glenofemoral ligament
c) Ischiofemoral ligament
d) Iliofemoral ligament

Glenofemoral ligament

76

21. Which of the following would be classified as a biaxial joint
a) The joint between the atlas and the axis
b) The shoulder joint
c) The knee joint
d) The carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

d) The carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

77

22. Which of the following would be the most stable multiaxial joint?
a) Knee joint
b) Shoulder joint
c) Ankle joint
d) Hip joint

d) Hip joint

78

23. The sternoclavicular joint is classified as a _________ joint
a) Cartilaginous, amphiarthrotic
b) Synovial, multiaxial
c) Fibrous, immovable
d) Cartilaginous, immoveable

b) Synovial, multiaxial

79

pennate muscle

A pennate or pinnate muscle (also called a penniform muscle) is a muscle with fascicles that attach obliquely (in a slanting position) to its tendon. These types of muscles generally allow higher force production but smaller range of motion When a muscle contracts and shortens, the pennation angle increases.

80

27. Which of the following is an appendicular muscle group rather than an axial muscle
group?
a) muscles of the pelvic floor
b) muscles of the head
c) oblique and rectus muscles
d) hamstring group

d) hamstring group

81

28. The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the
a) zygomaticus major.
b) orbicularis oris.
c) buccinator.
d) levator labii superioris.

b) orbicularis oris.

82

29. The zygomaticus muscle acts to
a) move the external ear.
b) purse the lips.
c) depress the lower lip.
29. The zygomaticus muscle acts to
a) move the external ear.
b) purse the lips.
c) depress the lower lip.
d) retract and elevate the corner of the mouth.

29. The zygomaticus muscle acts to
a) move the external ear.
b) purse the lips.
c) depress the lower lip.
d) retract and elevate the corner of the mouth.

83

30. The muscles of the head and neck function in
a) nonverbal communication
b) feeding
c) controlling the eyes
d) all of the above are correct

d) all of the above are correct

84

31. Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better
trumpeter. What would you tell him?
a) the masseter and buccinator
b) the buccinator and orbicularis oris
c) the orbicularis oculi and risorius
d) the risorius and zygomaticus

b) the buccinator and orbicularis oris

85

32. The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the____________ (hint: a muscle inserts onto the
more moveable bone)
a) occipital bone
b) clavicle
c) mastoid process of temporal bone
d) Mandible

c) mastoid process of temporal bone

86

33. What muscle am I? I am located in the abdominal region. I act to flex the vertebral
column and compress the abdominal cavity. I am medial and extend from the pubis to the
sternum. I am the ____
a) Transverse abdominis
b) External oblique
c) Rectus abdominis
d) Internal oblique

c) Rectus abdominis

87

34. Which of the following is not an appendicular muscle? (hint: a muscle not involved in
movement of appendicular skeleton)
a) serratus anterior
b) rectus abdominis
c) deltoid
d) rhomboid major
e) latissimus dorsi

b) rectus abdominis

88

35. Which of the following describes the action of the serratus anterior?
a) adducts the arm
b) adducts and flexes the humerus
c) abducts the scapula
d) medial rotation of the humerus

c) abducts the scapula

89

36. All of the following are associated with the scapula except the
a) pectoralis major.
b) teres major.
c) teres minor.
d) supraspinatus.

a) pectoralis major.

90

37. The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the
a) pectoralis major.
b) deltoid.
c) coracobrachialis.
d) teres major.

b) deltoid.

91

38. Damage to the pectoralis major would interfere with a person's ability to
a) extend the forearm.
b) abduct the humerus.
c) adduct the humerus.
d) elevate the scapula.

c) adduct the humerus.

92

39. People who are engaged in repetitive hand movements such as typing or playing the
piano may develop a condition which causes wrist pain, especially during palmar flexion. All
of the following are true concerning this condition except that it
a) is called carpal tunnel syndrome.
b) results from inflammation of the synovial tendon sheaths.
c) never causes pain
d) irritates the median nerve

c) never causes pain

93

40. The muscle that extends the elbow while doing push-ups is the
a) deltoid.
b) pectoralis major.
c) triceps brachii.
d) biceps brachii.

c) triceps brachii.

94

41. Which of these muscles is a member of the quadriceps group?
a) vastus lateralis
b) vastus medialis
c) rectus femoris
d ) All of the answers are correct.

d ) All of the answers are correct.

95

42. Each of the following muscles acts to flex the leg at the knee except the
a) semimembranosus.
b) semitendinosus.
c) vastus lateralis.
d) biceps femoris
e) sartorius.

c) vastus lateralis.

96

43. .An antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the
a) extensor digitorum longus.
b) soleus.
c) tibialis posterior.
d) tibialis anterior.

d) tibialis anterior.

97

44. Tom is having difficulty plantar flexing his foot. Damage to which muscle is least likely
the cause of this problem?
a) tibialis anterior
b) soleus
c) gastrocnemius
d) flexor digitorum longus

a) tibialis anterior

98

45. Which of the following is true about the actions of the diaphragm
a) it contracts and elevates during inspiration
b) it contracts and depresses during inspiration
c) it relaxes and depresses during expiration
d) it remains unchanged during expiration

b) it contracts and depresses during inspiration

99

46. Which of the following muscles are part of the pelvic diaphragm?
a) Levator ani
b) coccygeus
c) anal sphincter
d) they are all part of the pelvic diaphragm
e) both a) and b) are correct.

e) both a) and b) are correct.

100

47. In skeletal muscle, the sarcoplasmic reticulum__________
a) supplies energy for the power stroke of a cross bridge
b) stores Calcium
c) transmits an action potential to the central portion of a muscle fibre
d) prevents myosin from binding with actin when the muscle fibre is at rest

b) stores Calcium

101

48. In skeletal muscle, tropomyosin__________
a) supplies energy for the power stroke of a cross bridge
b) stores Calcium
c) transmits an action potential to the central portion of a muscle fibre
d) prevents myosin from binding with actin when the muscle fibre is at rest

d) prevents myosin from binding with actin when the muscle fibre is at rest

102

49. In skeletal muscle, the transverse tubules__________
a) supplies energy for the power stroke of a cross bridge
b) stores Calcium
c) transmits an action potential to the central portion of a muscle fibre
d) prevents myosin from binding with actin when the muscle fibre is at rest

c) transmits an action potential to the central portion of a muscle fibre

103

50. During skeletal muscle contraction which of the following remain unchanged in length?
a) the light band (I band)
b) sarcomere
c) thick filament (myosin)
d) the H zone

c) thick filament (myosin)

104

51. A(n) __________isotonic contraction occurs when the muscle shortens, whereas a(n)
___________isotonic contraction occurs when the muscle lengthens
a) eccentric, concentric
b) concentric, eccentric
c) concentric biphasic
d) Isometric, eccentric

b) concentric, eccentric

105

52. Which of the following does NOT directly affect the strength of muscle contraction?
a) amount of creatine in the muscle
b) size of the muscle fibres recruited
c) number of motor units recruited
d) frequency of the stimulus to the muscle

a) amount of creatine in the muscle

106

53. The connective tissue that surrounds fascicles within a muscle is called_________
a) endomysium
b) exomysium
c) epimysium
d) perimysium

d) perimysium

107

54. The predominant biochemical pathway by which fast glycolytic muscle fibres obtain ATP
is________________
a) aerobic respiration
b) glycolysis (anaerobic respiration)
c) creatine phosphate
d) None of the above

b) glycolysis (anaerobic respiration)

108

1. A 50 year old man who had been incarcerated in a dark prison cell for several months was
seeking asylum as a refugee in Australia. A routine X-ray found his bone density to be very
low. He looks very thin and malnourished.
• List and comment on 2 key factors other than a poor diet that would have caused the
patient’s low bone density. (2 marks)

osteomalacia - bone demineralisation, lack of vit d and calcium.
wolfs law - lack of exercise means lack of demand (mechanical stress) so reduced osteocyte activity

109

ATP in muscular skeletal contraction and relaxation

- atp, provides energy for power stroke
-atp, binding breaks cross bridge allowing new cross bridge to form
-pumps calcuim back into sr

110

1. The following processes occur during cranial bone development in the foetus:
a) Intramembranous ossification
b) Endochondral ossification
c) Secondary ossification
d) Epiphyseal ossification

a) Intramembranous ossification

111

2. In the anatomical position, the forearm is
a) Pronated and the palms of the hands face anterior
b) Supinated and the palms of the hands face anterior
c) Pronated and the palms of the hands face posterior
d) Supinated and the palms of the hands face posterior

b) Supinated and the palms of the hands face anterior

112

3. Osteoblasts:
a) Are related to macrophages
b) Breakdown bone tissue
c) Deposit bone
d) Both (a) and (b) are correct

c) Deposit bone

113

4. Intramembranous ossification is evidenced in the newborn cranium by the presence
of:
a) Suture joints
b) Cartilaginous regions
c) Epiphyseal plates
d) Fontanels

d) Fontanels

114

5. Achondroplastic dwarfism:
a) Is another name for pituitary dwarfism
b) Is a disorder that affects the epiphyseal plates of long bones
c) Is a deficiency in growth hormone
d) Is a disorder that affects the growth of the cranial bones

b) Is a disorder that affects the epiphyseal plates of long bones

115

6. Which of the following bone markings act as attachment points for muscles/tendons?
a) Trochanters
b) Foramina
c) Fissures
d) Fossae

a) Trochanters

116

7. The medial sagittal suture of the cranium is formed by the articulation of:
a) Temporal and occipital bones
b) Frontal and parietal bones
c) Frontal and temporal bones
d) Right and left parietal bones

d) Right and left parietal bones

117

8. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis usually develops from wear and tear and usually affects the
elderly
b) Osteoporosis is a disorder of long bone growth
c) Rickets is the same physiological disorder as osteomalacia but affects different
age groups
d) Osteoarthritis is an autoimmune disorder

c) Rickets is the same physiological disorder as osteomalacia but affects different
age groups

118

9. Which of the cranial bones features the styloid process and the external
acoustic/auditory meatus?
a) Nasal
b) Frontal
c) Temporal
d) Parietal

c) Temporal

119

10. Which 2 bones form the nasal septum?
a) Maxilla and inferior nasal concha
b) Lacrimal and maxilla
c) Vomer and ethmoid
d) Nasal and sphenoid

c) Vomer and ethmoid

120

11. The following bone articulates with the tibia distally:
a) Metatarsals
b) Lateral epicondyle of the femur
c) Talus
d) Calcaneus

c) Talus

121

12. Which of the following vertebra(e) does/do NOT possess a spinous process:
a) Last lumbar
b) Axis
c) Atlas
d) All cervical

c) Atlas

122

13. The acetabulum is a feature of which bone(s)?
a) Temporal
b) Humerus
c) Coxal (hip) bones
d) Sacrum and coccyx

c) Coxal (hip) bones

123

14. Which of the following is an abnormal spinal curvature of the Lumbar region often
seen in pregnant women?
a) Lordosis
b) Kyphosis
c) Scoliosis
d) Spina bifida

a) Lordosis

124

15. Which of the following is/are NOT a synovial joint(s)?
a) Cranial suture
b) Knee
c) Shoulder
d) Inter-carpal joints

a) Cranial suture

125

16. The metacarpal-phalangeal joint is best classified as:

a) Synovial, condyloid
b) Synovial, gliding
c) Cartilaginous, amphiarthrotic
d) Fibrous, synarthrotic

a) Synovial, condyloid

126

17. The elbow joint is:
a) Hinge and uniaxial
b) Hinge and biaxial
c) Ball and socket and multiaxial
d) Non-axial and gliding joint

d) Non-axial and gliding joint

127

18. The crista galli and cribiform plate are features of which bone:
a) Ethmoid bone
b) Sphenoid bone
c) Temporal bone
d) Occipital bone

a) Ethmoid bone

128

19. Metatarsals are found in which region?
a) Pedal (foot) region
b) Coxal (hip) region
c) Cranium
d) Palmar (hand) region

a) Pedal (foot) region

129

20. An extracapsular ligament of the knee joint is:
a) Anterior cruciate ligament
b) Posterior cruciate ligament
c) Tibial collateral ligament
d) Popliteal ligament

c) Tibial collateral ligament

130

costal facet

The superior costal facet (or superior costal fovea) is a site where a rib forms a joint with the top of a vertebra. Ribs connect to the thoracic vertebrae at two main points, the inferior and superior costal facets. These connection points are located on two different vertebrae that are located on top of one another.

131

satellite cells

muscular or skeletal

132

astrocytes

star shaped, regulate transmission of electrical impulse

133

oligodendrocytes

support / insulation to axons in cns

134

ependymal cells

glial, line the cerebrospinalfluid filled ventricles in brain and central canal of spinal cord

135

interneurons

in spinal cord, relay information from (afferent) sensory to (efferent) motor

136

somatic

pns, voluntary muscle organ / reflex movement

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visceral neurons

efferent motor, conduct impulse to smooth muscle, cardiac and glands

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sensory neurons

convert electrical stimuli from environment to internal electrical responses

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acetylcholine, acetylcholine esterase

neurotransmitter, muscular junctions. acetylcholine esterase= metabloises acetylcholine into choline and acetate

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seratonin

neurotransmitter, happy

141

epinephrine

adrenaline. secreted by adrenal medulla, is a catecholamine

142

nor epinephrine

catecholamine,main neurotransmitter for cardiac muscle, hormone of sympathetic ns.

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catecholamine

hormone released as a result of stress

144

afferent, efferent

afferent - information
efferent - motor

145

visceral effectors, somatic effectors

visceral effectors- involuntary
somatic effectors- voluntary

146

muscles - epimysium, perimysium and endomysium

epimysium- a sheath of fibrous elastic tissue surrounding a muscle. (outer edge) perimysium- surrounds each bundle of muscle fibres. The endomysium, meaning within the muscle, is a wispy layer of areolar connective tissue that ensheaths each individual myocyte (muscle fiber, or muscle cell). It also contains capillaries and nerves. It overlies the muscle fiber's cell membrane: the sarcolemma.