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Pharmacology > Quizzes > Flashcards

Quizzes Flashcards

0
Q

What is a common anticholinergic agent used in vet medicine

A

Atropine

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1
Q

A cholinergic blocker is a drug that blocks the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the _________ nervous system

A

Parasympathetic

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2
Q

What happens when atropine is used in eyedrops

A

It causes the pupils to dilate

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3
Q

Why is atropine used as a preanesthetic

A

To protect the heart from bradycardia

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4
Q

Propranolol is an example of what category of drugs

A

Beta blocker

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5
Q

What is the adrenergic receptor that is located in the heart. They increase the heart rate, strength of contraction. Propanol is an example

A

Beta 1

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6
Q

What type of adrenergic receptor causes smooth muscle surrounding blood vessels in the skin to constrict. Acepromazine blocks it

A

Alpha 1

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7
Q

What adrenergic receptors are located on the ends of adrenergic neurons, where they help regulate the release of norepinephrine. Dormitor is an agonist.

A

Alpha 2

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8
Q

What adrenergic receptor when stimulated they cause Bronchodilation. Ventolin is an agonist

A

Beta 2

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9
Q

Where will atropine and glycopyrolate have their effect

A

Muscarinic receptor

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10
Q

What part of the autonomic nervous system is associated with fight or flight

A

Sympathetic

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11
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with fight or flight

A

Norepinephrine

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12
Q

What neurotransmitter is for cholinergic sites

A

Acetylcholine

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13
Q

What is the class of the drug

A

NSAID

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14
Q

What Are two other drugs that are also in this class

A

Metacam

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15
Q

What are the two client recommendations that go with this drug

A

Give with a meal

Discontinue use if animal is vomiting or has diarrhea

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16
Q

True or false: the above class of drugs should be able to provide enough analgesia to allow an animal with a broken leg to be positioned for a radiograph of the leg without using anesthesia

A

False

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17
Q

True or false: cox 1 maintains physiologic functions such as modulation of renal blood flow and synthesis of gastric mucosa

A

True

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18
Q

What are three different classes of drugs that are used as a pre anesthetic

A

NSAID, opiate and tranquilizers

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19
Q

What is the reason for using an nsaid

A

Good anti inflammatory which ultimately helps to reduce pain. Less inflammation is less pain

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20
Q

What is an opiate

A

Helps to stop the body from receiving pain. It stops pain before it even starts.

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21
Q

What is a tranquilizer used for

A

Works well in conjunction with opiates. Calms animal which makes the knocking down process easier.

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22
Q

Where are enteral drugs are administered

A

Rectally and orally

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23
Q

What can pharmacokinetics be defined as

A

The method of absorption, metabolism, and excretion of a drug by the body

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24
Q

What can pharmacodynamics be defined by

A

The method by which the function of the living body is affected by the drug

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25
Q

What can therapeutic dose be defined by

A

The method by which the drug has the desired effect with minimal toxicity

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26
Q

Most excretion of drugs occurs via the

A

Liver bile and kidneys

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27
Q

WhEre does most biotransformation of drugs occurs in

A

The liver

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28
Q

Describe 3 aspects of the veterinarian client patient relationships for rx

A

☺️Veterinarian must be available for a follow up appointment
☺️Veterinarian must have seen the animal within a year and know about its medical history
☺️Veterinarian must make a decision for treatment based on the specific symptoms

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29
Q

Why are certain prescription drugs are also control drugs

A

They’re drugs that have the potential for human abuse

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30
Q

State two parenteral methods to administer medication

A

Iv im

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31
Q

Use pharmacokinetics to explain why the oral amoxil is ineffective at treating otitis externa

A

It is ineffective because it does not reach the outer ear, it goes into the bloodstream and there is no real major blood supply to the outer ear so it is excreted out instead of going into the ear to treat the bacteria.

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32
Q

What drug is an alpha 2 agonist

A

Decided dormitor

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33
Q

What drug is an alpha 1 antagonist

A

Acepromazine

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34
Q

What drug is a beta blocker

A

Propanolol

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35
Q

What drug is a beta 2 agonist

A

Ventolin

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36
Q

What drug is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer

A

Valium

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37
Q

What drug is a phenothiazine tranquilizer

A

Acepromazine

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38
Q

What drug is an anticholinergic

A

Atropine

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39
Q

What drug is the reversal agent for dormitor

A

Antisedan

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40
Q

What drug is a long acting barbiturate

A

Phenobarbital

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41
Q

Where are barbiturates metabolized by

A

Liver

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42
Q

What is a side effect of barbiturates

A

They are potent depressors of the respiratory system

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43
Q

What drug is used to stimulate breathing if a dog stops breathing

A

Dopram or doxapram

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44
Q

If a dog is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, what emergency drug will be used

A

Epinephrine

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45
Q

What is apo morphine used for

A

To induce vomiting in dogs

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46
Q

What is neuroleptanalgesia

A

Tranquilizer and narcotic

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47
Q

What are two common drugs used to control or prevent seizures in dogs

A

Phenobarbital and kBr

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48
Q

Name a drug that is very useful in seizures but has too short of a half life to prevent them

A

Diazepam

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49
Q

Give an example where clomipramine is used for in cats and dogs

A

For animals with aggression

50
Q

What is Naloxone used for in vet medicine

A

It is an opiate reversal agent

51
Q

How can addisons develop after being on corticosteroids

A

If the adrenal cortex is not being used as frequently due to negative feedback then it will shrink and be unable to produce acth

52
Q

What are two precautions to take to prevent the development of addisons

A

Wean off of dosage until you’re at lowest possible dose that works.
Take it every other day so that the AC won’t shrink.

53
Q

Name two organs possibly damaged by rimadyl

A

Liver and kidney

54
Q

Using pharmacokinetics explain why fentanyl is administered as a patch rather than an oral med

A

It has a very short half life as a pill and is metabolized by the liver too quickly and it doesn’t have the 24hr to reach the stable state and is instead excreted in the urine

55
Q

How long does a fentanyl patch last

A

72hr

56
Q

What are short term effects of corticosteroid use

A

Polyphagia

57
Q

What are long term effects of corticosteroid use

A

Delayed healing

58
Q

What is the classification of trimeprazine tartrate

A

Antihistamine

59
Q

What is the classification of prednisolone

A

Cortisone.

60
Q

Name a beta lactamase inhibitor

A

Clavamox

61
Q

In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects

A

Aminoglycosides

62
Q

What medication is used to treat pasturella infection in rabbits and requires you to use gloves Because it causes aplastic anemia and blood dyscrasia

A

Chloramphenicol

63
Q

Baytril, zeniquin and Orbax all belong to which group of antibiotics

A

Fluoroquinolones

64
Q

What is a side effect of baytril being dosed in cats at a higher dosing schedule

A

Retinal damage

65
Q

What is the clAss of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat mycoplasma or lymes is

A

Tetracyclines

66
Q

What is the pharmacodynamics of penicillin

A

Destroys the cell wall

67
Q

What does griseofulvin act on

A

Dermatophytes

68
Q

Butorphanol is an opioid that is often used for analgesic properties but it also used in other clinical scenarios as

A

An antitissutive agent

69
Q

Aminophylline and theophylline are ________ derivatives

A

Methylxanthine

70
Q

What are expectorants

A

Drugs that liquify and dilute the viscus secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping to evacuate those secretions

71
Q

Name a disease in cats were acyclovir would be used

A

Rhinovirus

72
Q

In what diseases would interferon be used

A

Fiv, felv

73
Q

Pseudoephedrine, ephedrine and phenyleprine are examples of what

A

Decongestants

74
Q

Name a cholinergic blocker that dries up bronchial secretions and causes Bronchodilation

A

Antihistamine

75
Q

Name a beta 2 adrenergic agent that causes Bronchodilation

A

Ventolin

76
Q

Name the toxic ingredient in chocolate

A

Theobromine

77
Q

What is igr

A

Insect growth regulator

78
Q

What is praziquantel used for

A

Tapeworms

79
Q

Ivermectin and moxidectin are part of which class

A

Avermectins

80
Q 
Identify which of the 4 is not a monthly heartworm preventative.
Milbemycin oxime
Selamactin
Heart guard plus
Diethylcarbamazine
A

Diethylcarbamazine

81
Q

What is a topical solution that controls roundworms, hookworms, tapeworms

A

Profender

82
Q

Praziquantel is the active ingredient found in what medication

A

Droncit

83
Q

An organophosphate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting which enzyme

A

Cholinesterase

84
Q

What dog breed is most susceptible to ivermectin toxicosis

A

Collie

85
Q

T/F: heartworm disease can be acquired from a blood transfusion taken from a heartworm positive dog that has circulating microfilariae.

A

False

86
Q

What is the name of the product that is an oral flea adulticide that causes rapid death of fleas

A

Cap star

87
Q

What is the antidote for organophosphate toxicity

A

Atropine

88
Q

List two monthly heartworm preventative but not fleas

A

Heart guard and interceptor

89
Q

List two monthly flea only preventatives

A

Advantage, program

90
Q

List 3 monthly heartworm and flea preventatives

A

Revolution, advantage multi and trifexis

91
Q

List one oral flea and tick preventative

A

Bravecto

92
Q

How is sentinel different than interceptor

A

Different active ingredients

93
Q

How is capstar excreted

A

Unchanged in the urine.
1 day- dogs
2 days- cats

94
Q

Explain to an owner how they should administer lopatol

A

Fast dog, give it to him in the morning with adequate water and 1/4 food. Give rest of food at dinner time

95
Q

A 6 week 1lb kitten was given 2 tablets of milbemax- how concerned are you ?

A

I am, it’s a 16x overdose.

96
Q

How much ivermectin per kg will a 5kg dog receive

A

13ug/kg

97
Q

For revolution, what is the difference in concentration of the drug between the cat and dog products

A

The dog concentration is 2x the cat concentration

98
Q

In which case would trifexis be contraindicated

A

In dogs with a history of epilepsy or seizures

99
Q

How much fenbendazole is in 5g of panacur?

A

1110 mg

100
Q

How many tablets of pyran 35 would a 7kg cat get

A

4 tablets

101
Q

How many ml of strongid T to deworm a 25kg dog

A

2.5ml

102
Q

What is a faster than normal heart rate

A

Tachycardia

103
Q

When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardiac muscle or abnormalities of the conduction system what might occur

A

Arrhythmia

104
Q

CHF chronic congestive heart failure or results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output. It is associated with all of the following: exercise intolerance, ascites, pulmonary edema, diaphragmatic hernia except……….

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

105
Q

What is digitalis. It is obtained from the dried leaves of the plant digitalis purpurea.

A

Cardiac glycoside

106
Q

True or false: gloves do not have to be worn when applying nitroglycerin

A

False

107
Q

What can Furosemide cause in patients

A

Hypokalemia

108
Q

Name a common Ionatropic cardiac medicine prescribed for congestive heart failure

A

Vetmedin

109
Q

Name a common ace inhibitor are used in the veterinary medicine

A

Fortekor

110
Q

Name a drug that will be given to Jack to treat or help manage pulmonary edema

A

Lasix

111
Q

By which route would lasix be given in order for it to be in Jack’s system within 10 to 20 minutes

A

Intramuscular

112
Q

Name a drug that can be given to Jack to help manage his general anxiety because of not being able to breathe

A

Morphine

113
Q

What two active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland

A

T3 and T4

114
Q

What is the concentration of Caninsulin

A

U40

115
Q

How do you resuspend insulin

A

Rolling tube in hands. Don’t shake it

116
Q

Name the structures of the pancreas that produces insulin

A

Islets of langerhans or beta cells

117
Q

When and how should the owner feed the cat

A

Feed 2x per day small portion of intake in the morning and night

118
Q

When should the owner give Caninsulin

A

Morning and night

119
Q

Describe how the owner should inject the Caninsulin

A

Sub cutaneously on alternate sides

120
Q

What medical condition does topazole (methimazole) treat

A

Hyperthyroid

121
Q

Name two treatments other than topazole for hyperthyroid

A

Radioactive iodine and surgical removal of adenoma

122
Q

Estrogen in the form of diethylstilbestrol can be use to treat what problem in the dog

A

Urinary incontinence

123
Q

If you draw up 20 U with a U 40 syringe- how many mls have you drawn up

A

0.5 ml

Pharmacology (15 decks)

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