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Radiographic Review > Radiographic Procedures II Review > Flashcards

Radiographic Procedures II Review Flashcards

1
Q

The bones of the instep are:

A

Metatarsals

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT an arch of the foot? - Vertical- Transverse- Longitudinal- Both 1 & 2

A

Vertical

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3
Q

The MTP joints are located at the ___ of the metatarsals

A

heads

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4
Q

Which tarsal articulates with the 4th and 5th metatarsals and the calcaneus?

A

Cuboid

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5
Q

Sesamoid bones are located on the ____ surface of the foot.

A

plantar

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6
Q

The lateral malleolus is located on the:

A

Fibula

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7
Q

CR location for the AP Axial Foot:

A

Base of 3rd metatarsal

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8
Q

The foot is rotated ___ degrees for a medial oblique view

A

30 degrees

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9
Q

Tube angulation for Plantodorsal view of the heel:

A

40 degrees cephalic

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10
Q

The foot must be ___ for all views of the ankle

A

dorsiflexed

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11
Q

Located between the two tibial condyles on the superior surface of the tibia

A

Intercondylar eminence

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12
Q

The most proximal end of the fibula:

A

Apex

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13
Q

The anterior surface of the femur:

A

Patellar

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14
Q

The intercondylar fossa is located on the ____ aspect of the femur

A

posterior

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15
Q

Classified as a fibrous, syndesmosis joint

A

Distal tibiofibular joint

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16
Q

The ___ ligaments attach at the sides of the knee

A

collateral

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17
Q

In a true AP projection of the tib/fib, the femoral condyles will appear ___ to the IR

A

parallel

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18
Q

How should the CR be angled for an AP projection of the knee?

A

5 degrees cephalic

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19
Q

The proximal tib/fib articulation is seen in the:

A

Medial Oblique Knee

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a name for the axial view of the patella?- Settegast- Sunrise- Skyline- Skyfall

A

Skyfall

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21
Q

The region above the pelvic brim:- False pelvis- Greater pelvis- True pelvis- Both 1 & 2

A

Both 1 & 2

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22
Q

The lesser sciatic notch is found on the

A

Ischium

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23
Q

The most inferior structure on the pelvis

A

ischial tuberosity

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24
Q

What bones comprise the obturator foramen?- illum- ischium- pubis

A

1 and 3

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25
Q

The most prominent part of the greater trochanter is in the same plane as the:

A

pubic symphysis

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26
Q

The intertrochanteric crest is seen on the ___ aspect of the femur

A

posterior

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27
Q

The movement of the pubic symphysis is classified as

A

amphiarthrodial

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28
Q

For the AP pelvis, the legs should be rotated internally ___ degrees

A

15-20

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29
Q

What should be seen in profile on an AP hip radiograph?

A

Greater trochanter

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30
Q

The CR enters at the ___ for a lateral projection of the hip

A

femoral neck

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31
Q

Most superior aspect of the sternum

A

manubrium

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32
Q

The jugular notch corresponds to

A

T2-T3

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33
Q

The body of the sternum is also known as- corpus- diaphysis- gladioulus- 1 & 3 only- 1, 2, & 3

A

1 & 3 only

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34
Q

The xiphoid process corresponds to

A

T10

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35
Q

The ___ of the rib attaches to the body of the thoracic vertebra

A

head

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36
Q

Joint between the sternum and the costal cartilage of the true ribs

A

sternocostal

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37
Q

Interchondral joints are found in ribs:

A

ribs 6-10

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38
Q

The expsure for an AP proection of the lower ribs should be taken on:

A

expiration

39
Q

What is SID for the RAO sternum?

A

30 inches

40
Q

How many degrees is the patient rotated for the RAO sternum?

A

15-20 degrees

41
Q

Which of the following curves are primary?

A

thoracic & pelvic

42
Q

Most posterior aspect of a vertebra:

A

Spinous process

43
Q

Articulation between the superior and inferior articular processes of two vertebrae.

A

Zygopophyseal joint

44
Q

The ___ is formed by the inferior vertebral notch articulating with the superior vertebral notch of an adjacent vertebra

A

intervertebral foramina

45
Q

The inner part of the intervertebral disk:

A

Nucleus pulposus

46
Q

Costal facets are found in the ____ vertebrae

A

thoracic

47
Q

When performing the 45 degree RPO view of the C-spine, the intervertebral foramina are seen on the ___ side.

A

up

48
Q

In order to see the intervertebral foramina in the T-spine, which view should be performed?

A

Lateral

49
Q

For a lateral c-spine, the CR should be perpendicular to

A

C4

50
Q

When performing the AP projection of the C-spine at 40” SID, the CR should be angled

A

15 degree cephalic

51
Q

CR angulation for Fuch’s view

A

30 degree cephalic

52
Q

Which kVp should be used for a soft tissue neck exam?

A

65 kVp

53
Q

CR location for the AP T-spine view

A

T7

54
Q

The spinal cord terminates at

A

L1-L2

55
Q

The part of the lamina between the superior and interior articular processes on a lumbar vertebra

A

pars interarticularis

56
Q

How many vertebrae fuse to form the coccyx?

A

4

57
Q

The eye of the Scottie Dog:

A

Pedicle

58
Q

The body of the Scottie Dog:

A

Lamina

59
Q

In a lateral view of the L-spine, the ___ are seen in profile

A

Spinous processes

60
Q

The CR is angled ___ for an AP projection of the coccyx

A

10 degree caudal

61
Q

Medial junction of the upper and lower eyelids

A

inner canthus

62
Q

There is an ___ degree difference between OML and IOML

A

7

63
Q

Reid’s baseline is another name for

A

IOML

64
Q

The ___ is a posterior extension of the IOML

A

inion

65
Q

The ethmoidal notch is on the

A

frontal bone

66
Q

The basilar portion of the occipital bone articulates with the body of the ___ bone

A

sphenoid

67
Q

The thick, conical process projecting from the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

A

Crista galli

68
Q

Posterior boundary of the sella turcica

A

Dorsum sellae

69
Q

Most vulnerable portion of the skull to fracture

A

Squamous portion of temporal bone

70
Q

The zygomatic process is found on the

A

Temporal bone

71
Q

If using the GML to position for a PA Caldwell of the skull, the CR should be angled

A

23 degree caudal

72
Q

When evaluating an AP Caldwell view of the skull, the ___ should be seen in the lower 1/3 of the orbits

A

petrous pyramids

73
Q

For a Towne’s view of the skull, the CR should exit the

A

foramen magnum

74
Q

When positioning the patient for a Lateral view of the skull, the ___ should be perpendicular to the edge of the cassette.

A

IOML

75
Q

Only facial bone to contain a paranaseal sinus

A

maxillary

76
Q

The posterior ethmoid sinuses drain into the

A

superior nasal meatus

77
Q

The sphenoid sinuses lie directly below

A

sella turcica

78
Q

The orbits project ___ degrees superiorly from the OML

A

30 degrees

79
Q

The ___ separates the superior orbital fissure and the optic canal

A

sphenoid strut

80
Q

The ___ bone forms most of the orbital roofs

A

frontal

81
Q

Which view best demonstrates the frontal sinuses

A

PA Caldwell

82
Q

Which sinuses are best seen in the SMV projection?

A

Sphenoid & ethmoid

83
Q

Best view to demonstrates a blowout fracture

A

Waters

84
Q

Smallest facial bone

A

Lacrimal bone

85
Q

The anterior nasal spine is found on the

A

maxillary bone

86
Q

The malar bone is another name for

A

Zygomatic bone

87
Q

The ___ of the palatine bone helps to form the posterior nasal cavity

A

vertical plate

88
Q

Forms the interior part of the nasal septum

A

Vomer

89
Q

Anterior end of the mandibular notch

A

Coronoid process

90
Q

Only bone that does not articulate with any other bone

A

Hyoid

91
Q

The CR is perpendicular to the ___ for the SMV view of the facial bone

A

IOML

92
Q

Which view of the nasal bones is performed table top?

A

Lateral

93
Q

The CR enters at the ___ for a lateral view of the nasal bones

A

inner canthus

94
Q

The CR exits the ___ for a PA view of the mandible

A

Acanthion

Radiographic Review (14 decks)

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