Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

module 8 > radiology > Flashcards

radiology Flashcards

1
Q

what do the majority of cysts appear like on the radiology

A

radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how do all the common pathologies appear on a radiograph

A

radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is radiolucency in bone caused by

A
  • resorption of bone
  • decreased mineralisation of bone
  • decreased thickness of bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what can differential diagnosis’ gained by radiographic features provide us with

A
  • to indicate the need/ type of further investigation
  • to avoid unnecessary surgery
  • to prompt urgent management
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a cyst

A

pathological cavity having fluid, semi-fluid or gaseous contents which is not created by the accumulation of pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the most prevalent type of pathological radiolucency in the jaws (excluding periapical peridontitis)

A

cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what % of jaw cysts are made up from odotongenic cysts?

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what two categories are within odontogenic cysts

A
  • developmental
  • inflammatory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what two categories are within non-odotogenic cysts

A
  • developmental
  • other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the first step if differential diagnosis of any lesion

A

slip into one of three categories:
- anatomical
- artefactual
- pathologcial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what would you do for an radiolucent anatomical lesion

A

nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what would you do for an radiolucent artefactural lesion

A

nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what would you do for a radiolucent pathological lesion

A

step in with treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name the 7 descriptions of radiolucencies

A
  1. site
  2. size
  3. shape
  4. margins
  5. internal structure
  6. effect on adjacent anatomy
  7. number
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how should “site” be described when describing a radiograph

A
  • where is it
  • is it close to a notable structure
  • what is its position relative to particular structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how should “size” be described when describing a radiograph

A
  • measure dimensions
  • describe the boundaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what can we do to accurately assess the size of a radiolucent lesion

A

take a CBCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how can locularity be described

A
  • unilocular
  • pseudolocular
  • multilocular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how can the general shape of a radiolucent lesion be described

A
  • rounded
  • scalloped
  • irregular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what shape are most radiolucent lesions

A

rounded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how can the margins of a radiolucent lesion be described

A
  • well defined
  • poorly defined
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

if the margins of a radiolucency are well defined, what other description goes along with this

A
  • corticated
  • non-corticated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does corticated mean

A

thin area of dense bone surrounding the lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what description can go along with poorly defined margins that would cause concern of malignancy

A
  • ragged
  • moth eaten
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what cant the margins of lesions indicate about them

A

nature of them - benign or malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what type of margins suggest a benign lesion

A

corticated margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

if the margins of a radiolucency are moth eaten then what might this indicate

A

malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what type of margins do cysts generally have

A

well defined and corticated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when might the margins of a cyst become poorly defined

A

if they are infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what will happen to the margins of a cyst if its infected

A

will become poorly defined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

if a cyst is infected, what might it be mistaken for on the radiograph

A

malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how can the general internal structure of a radiolucency be described

A
  1. entirely radiolucent
  2. radiolucent with some internal radiopacity
  3. radiopaque
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the most common type of general internal structure seen on a radiolucency

A

entirely radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what other details might the internal structure of a radiolucency be described with

A
  • amount
  • bony septae
  • particular structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how might bony septae appearing in a radiolucency be described

A
  • thin/ coarse
  • prominent/ faint
  • straight/ curved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what particular structures may be seen radiographically inside a lesion

A

enamel or dentine radiodensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

why should the involvement of a tooth be described for a radiolucency

A

position may aid in diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

where can a radiolucency be if involved with a tooth

A
  • around apex
  • at side of root
  • around crown
  • around entire tooth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what could a radiolucency around the apex of a tooth be

A

radicular cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what could a radiolucency at the side of a tooth be

A

periodontal/lateral cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what could a radiolucency around the crown of a tooth be

A

dentigerous cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what could a radiolucency around the entire tooth be

A

calicifying odontogenic epithelial tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does the involvement of tooth on the radiograph often indicate about the nature of the lesion

A

related to the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

why must you not a assume a lesion is related to a tooth

A

proximity may be incidental - alot of bone space made up by teeth so could be a coincidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what can the affect on adjacent anatomy tell us about a lesion

A

indicate the nature of a lesion and aid in its diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what can cysts expand easily through

A

trabecular bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what do cysts struggle to expand through

A

cortical bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how might aggressive pathologies be recognised on a radiograph

A

can grow quickly and be more destructive in its expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how might cyst like pathologies affect bone

A
  • displacement of cortices
  • perforation of cortices
  • sclerosis of trabecular bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are tumours able to expand through that cysts are not

A

all types of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what can cyst like pathologies do to IANcanal/sinus/nasal cavity

A
  • displacement
  • erosion
  • compression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

name 5 things that cyst like pathologies can do to teeth

A
  • diaplacement/impaction
  • resorption
  • loss of lamina dura
  • widening of PDL space
  • hypercementosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how many lesions do most pathologies occur as

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what cyst is known to occur bilaterally

A

paradental cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what should you suspect if there are more than 2 pathologies present

A

a syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what shape will a residual cyst be

A

unilocular and rounded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what margins will a residual cyst have

A

well defined and corticated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what will the internal structure of a residual cyst show

A

entirely radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

will a residual cyst have tooth involvement

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

many different periapical radiolucencies can present with similar radiographic features, what info should you consider to help decipher what it is

A
  • clinical signs and symptoms
  • condition of tooth
  • pt demographic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is the most common pathological radiolucency in the jaws

A

radicular cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what % of cysts does a radicular cyst make up

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what type of cyst is a radicular cyst

A

odontogenic inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is a radicular cyst initiated by

A

chronic inflammation at the apex of a tooth due to pulp necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is a radicular cyst ALWAYS associated with

A

non-vital tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

describe the pathway to radicular cyst formation

A
  1. pulp necrosis
  2. periapical periodontitis
  3. periapical granuloma
  4. radicular cyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what age are radicular cyst most common in

A

60-70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what % of radicular cysts occur in age group 60-70

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what gender is more prone to radicular cysts

A

=

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

where are the majority of radicular cysts found

A

maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what % of radicular cysts are found in the maxilla

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what % of radicular cysts are found in the mandible

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how do radicular cysts often present clinically

A

asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

when will a radicular cyst become symptomatic

A

once infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how fast do radicular cysts grow

A

slow growing - limited expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

can radicular cysts be differentiated from periapial granulomas from the radiograph

A

not really

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how would you tell the difference between a radicular cyst and periapical granuloma from the radiograph

A

radicular cyst is larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

above what diameter would you expect a lesion to be a radicular cyst rather than a periapical granuloma

A

15mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what shape will a radicular cyst have on the radiograph

A

rounded and unilocular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what margins will a radicular cyst have

A

well-defined and corticated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what will the internal structure of a radicular cyst show

A

entirely radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

does a radicular cyst have tooth involvement? if so how?

A

yes
associated with root margins and continuous with lamina dura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what effects can a radicular cyst have

A

displace teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what can a long standing radicular cyst cause

A

resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

when might you see several radicular cysts

A

grossly carious dentition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

where is the site of a radicular cyst

A

apex of non-vital tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

name two variants of a radicular cyst

A
  • residual cyst
  • lateral radicular cyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is a residual cyst

A

when the pathology persists after XLA or successful RCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is a lateral radicular cyst associated with

A

lateral canal of a non-vital tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

where is a lateral radicular cyst located

A

side of a tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what type of cyst is a dentigerous cyst

A

odontogenic developmental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is a dentigerous cyst caused by

A

cystic change of the the dental follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what is a dentigerous cyst associated with

A

crown of an unerupted/impacted tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is the most common tooth to have a dentigerous cyst on

A

mandibular 3rd molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is the incidence of a dentigerous cyst

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what is the second most common type of cyst

A

dentigerous cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

when is a dentigerous cyst most common (age)

A

2nd -4th decades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what gender is more likely to have a dentigerous cyst

A

male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

where is a dentigerous more likely to be found

A

mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what is the dental follicle

A

normal anatomical structure that surrounds the crown of an unerupted tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what are the margins of a dentigerous cyst like

A

well defined and corticated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what kind of shape will a dentigerous cyst have when large enough

A

scalloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what internal structure will a dentigerous cyst have

A

entirely radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

will a dentigerous cyst have tooth involvement? if so then how?

A

yes
continuous with CEJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what effects can a dentigerous cyst have

A
  • displacement of tooth
  • external root resorption
  • displacement of adjacent structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

when would you consider there to be a dentigerous cyst instead of just an enlarged follicle

A

when the follicular space is >5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what size is a normal follicular space

A

2-3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

when should you assume there is a dentigerous cyst present

A

when follicular space is >10mm and asymmetrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what should you do if youre unsure if there is a dentigerous cyst or just an enlarged follicle

A

monitor or send for surgical management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what type of cysts are inflammatory collateral cysts

A

inflammatory odontogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what are the two types of inflammatory collateral cysts

A
  • paradental cyst
  • buccal bifurcation cyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what are inflammatory collateral cyst associated with

A

vital tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what % of odontogenic cysts do inflammatory collaterals make up

A

2-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what age group are inflammatory collateral cysts most common in

A

1st - 2nd decade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what might be the only symptom of a inflammatory collateral cyst

A

swelling around the molar teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

which tooth is a mandibular buccal bifurcation cyst most often associated with

A

mandibular 1st molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

where does a paradental cyst most commonly occur

A

distal aspect of partially erupted mandibular 3rd molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what size are inflammatory collateral cysts

A

<25mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what shape are inflammatory collateral cysts

A

unilocular and rounded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what margins do inflammatory collateral cysts have

A

well defined and corticated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what internal structure will inflammatory collateral cysts have

A

entirely radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

do inflammatory collateral cysts have tooth involvement

A

yes –> furcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what effects do inflammatory collateral cysts have

A

tilting of tooth
cortical displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

how many inflammatory collateral cysts often occur at the same time

A

just one or bilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what type of cyst is a keratocyst

A

developmental odontogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

do keratocysts have any relationship to teeth

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what is the recurrence rate of keratocysts

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

when might a keratocyst become clincially relevant

A

when becomes large enough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

are keratocysts common

A

no - rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

when are keratocysts most common

A

2nd to 3rd decades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

what gender more commonly get keratocysts

A

male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

where are keratocysts most often found

A

mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

where in the mandible are keratocysts often found

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what were keratocysts classed as until 2017

A

tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what shape do keratocysts present as

A

psuedolocular, multilocular and scalloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what margins do keratocysts have

A

well defined and corticated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what internal structure do keratocysts have

A

entirely radiolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what effects do keratocysts have

A
  • marked expansion of trabecular bone
  • limited displacement of cortices
  • minimal displacement of teeth
  • rarely root resorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

when might there be multiple keratocysts

A

if syndromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

what syndrome presents commonly as multiple keratocysts

A

basal cell naevus/ gorlin glotz syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

in addition to multiple keratocysts what other presentations will basal cell naevus have

A
  • multiple basal cell carcinomas
  • palmer and plantar pitting
  • calcification of intracranial dura matter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

are the keratocysts in basal cell naevus any different to normal keratocysts

A

no identical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

what is the only difference between keratocysts in basal cell naevus and normal keratocysts

A

they occur at a younger age eg 15-19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

what type of tumour is ameloblastoma

A

benign epithelial odontogenic tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

how fast do ameloblastomas grow

A

slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

what are the recurrence rates of ameloblastoma

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

is ameloblastoma painful?

A

not typically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

what is the most common odontogenic tumour

A

ameloblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

when is ameloblastoma most common

A

4th to 6th decades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

where do most ameloblastomas occur

A

posterior mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

what % of ameloblastomas occur in the posterior mandible

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

what gender are more prone to ameloblastoma

A

male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

what are the two radiological types of ameloblastoma

A
  • multicystic (multilocular)
  • unicystic (unilocular)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

what % of ameloblastomas are multicystic

A

85-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

who is more likely to have a unicystic ameloblastoma

A

younger pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what notable quality is there is unicystic ameloblastoma

A

lower recurrence rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

what are the 3 histological types of ameloblastoma

A
  • follicular
  • plexiform
  • desmoplastic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

what quality do some rarer types of ameloblastoma have

A

radiopaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

what appearance will some multilocular/cystic ameloblastomas have radiologically

A

coarse septae causing “soap bubble” appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

what will the margins of ameloblastoma appear like

A

well defined and corticated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

what is the internal structure of ameloblastoma

A

radiolucent

162
Q

does ameloblastoma have tooth involvement

A

no

163
Q

what effects does ameloblastoma have

A

thinning of cortices and external root resorption

164
Q

is the growth of ameloblastoma constrained by the cortical bone

A

no

165
Q

how many ameloblastomas will appear at one time

A

1

166
Q

what type of tumour is an odontogenic myxoma

A

benign mesenchymal odontogenic tumour

167
Q

what is the recurrence rate of odontogenic myxoma

A

high

168
Q

what % of odontogenic tumours do odontogenic myxoma make up

A

3-6%

169
Q

when are odontogenic myxomas most common

A

3rd decade

170
Q

what gender is more prone to odontogenic myxoma

A

=

171
Q

where are odontogenic myxomas more likely to occur

A

mandible

172
Q

where in the mandible are odontogenic myxomas most often seen

A

premolar/molar

173
Q

what shape will odontogenic myxoma have radiographically

A

multilocular and scalloped
may have coarse septae causing soap bubble appearance

174
Q

what shape might small odontogenic myxoma have

A

unilocular

175
Q

what margins will a odontogenic myxoma have

A

well defined thin corticated margin

176
Q

what internal structure will odontogenic myxoma show

A

radiolucent

177
Q

do odontogenic myxoma have tooth involvement

A

no

178
Q

what effects do odontogenic myxoma have

A
  • larger lesions displace teeth and cortices
179
Q

how many odontogenic myxomas will appear at one time

A

1

180
Q

what type of cyst is a nasopalatine duct cyst

A

developmental non-odontogenic cyst

181
Q

what do nasopalatine duct cysts arise from

A

nasopalatine duct epithelial remnants

182
Q

where do nasopalatine duct cysts occur

A

anterior maxilla

183
Q

what characteristic symptom will a pt with nasopalatine duct cyst have

A

salty taste

184
Q

what is the most common non-odotogenic cyst

A

nasopalatine duct cyst

185
Q

what is the incidence of nasopalatine duct cyst

A

1%

186
Q

when is nasopalatine duct cyst most common

A

4th to 6th decades

187
Q

what gender is more prone to nasopalatine duct cyst

A

male

188
Q

what is nasopalatine duct cyst also known as

A

incisive canal cyst

189
Q

where do nasopalatine duct cysts always occur

A

anterior maxilla in the midline

190
Q

how big are nasopalatine duct cysts

A

6-30mm

191
Q

what shape are nasopalatine duct cyst

A
  • heart shaped
  • unilocular, rounded and symmetrical
  • can be psuedolocular and lop-sided
192
Q

why do nasopalatine duct cysts have a heart shaped appearance

A

because of the superimposed anterior nasal spine

193
Q

what margins do nasopalatine duct cysts have

A

well defined and corticated

194
Q

what internal structure do nasopalatine duct cysts have

A

entirely radiolucent

195
Q

do nasopalatine duct cysts have tooth involvement

A

no - but next to incisor roots

196
Q

what effects do nasopalatine duct cyst have

A

displacement of incisors, palatal expansion

197
Q

how many nasopalatine duct cysts will appear at once

A

1

198
Q

what shape is the incisive fossa on a radiograph

A

oval

199
Q

is the incisive fossa corticated on radiographs

A

no

200
Q

what diameter should make you assume the radiolucency is just the incisive fossa

A

<6mm

201
Q

what diameter of radiolucency would you consider monitoring to decipher whether it is nasopalatine duct cyst or just the incisive fossa

A

6-10mm

202
Q

what diameter of radiolucency would you suspect is a nasopalatine duct cyst

A

> 10mm

203
Q

what type of cyst is a solitary bone cyst

A

non-odontogenic lesion

204
Q

what are the other names for solitary bone cysts

A

simple/traumatic/haemorrhagic bone cyst

205
Q

is a solitary bone cyst technically a cyst

A

no

206
Q

do solitary bone cysts commonly have symptoms

A

no

207
Q

when are solitary bone cysts most common

A

2nd decade

208
Q

what gender is more likely to have solitary bone cysts

A

male

209
Q

where are solitary bone cysts most common

A

mandible

210
Q

what might solitary bone cysts occur in conjunction with

A

other pathology eg fibro-osseous lesion

211
Q

what is the most common site for solitary bone cysts

A

posterior mandible

212
Q

how big are solitary bone cysts

A

<30mm

213
Q

what shape are solitary bone cysts

A

unilocular or psuedolocular or scalloped

214
Q

what are the margins of solitary bone cysts like

A

variable

215
Q

what is the internal structure of solitary bone cysts

A

entirely radiolucent

216
Q

is there any tooth involvement with solitary bone cysts

A

no

217
Q

what effects do solitary bone cysts have

A

typically none - rarely displacement of teeth

218
Q

how many solitary bone cysts occur at one time

A

1

219
Q

is stafnes cavity a cyts?

A

no

220
Q

what is stafnes cavity

A

depression on the cortical bone

221
Q

what does stafnes cavity contain

A

salivary or fatty tissue

222
Q

does stafnes cavity have any symptoms

A

no

223
Q

when is stafnes cavity most common

A

5th - 6th decade

224
Q

what is stafnes cavity thougth to be linked to

A

salivary glands

225
Q

where does stafnes cavity occur

A

lingual aspect on the mandible

226
Q

what is another name for stafnes cavity

A

stafnes idiopathic bone cavity

227
Q

what site does stafnes cavity often occur

A

body of mandible - sometimes the ramus

228
Q

what size is stafnes cavity

A

<20mm

229
Q

what shape is stafnes cavity

A

unilocular and rounded

230
Q

what margins does stafnes cavity have

A

well defined and corticated

231
Q

does stafnes cavity have any tooth involvement

A

no

232
Q

what effects does stafnes cavity have

A

typically none - rare displacement of adjacent structures

233
Q

how many stafnes cavitys occur at one time

A

1

234
Q

what can happen in infected cysts that might make you think they are malignant

A

lose their well defined corticated margins

235
Q

what should you always check for clinically if a pt has a cyst

A

clinical signs of secondary infection

236
Q

what would be 3 signs of secondary infection of a cyst

A
  • pian
  • soft tissue swelling/ redness/ hotness
  • purulent exudate
237
Q

why should you not assume that a cyst is connected to a tooth

A

there are only so many places the cyst can be in the jaws

238
Q

why are cysts radiolucent

A

because they are cavities containing non-mineralised tissue

239
Q

when might a cyst not be radiolucent

A

if expanding into the sinus

240
Q

how would a cyst in the sinus look

A

radiopaque

241
Q

when might a cyst be symptomatic

A

when they are infected

242
Q

when might cysts that dont normally cause resorption in teeth result in this

A

if they are there for a long time

243
Q

what internal structure might we see if a cyst has been present for a long time

A

internal dystrophic calcification

244
Q

what is dystrophic calcification

A

faint wispy radiopacities inside the cyst

245
Q

which aspect of the articular disc is thicker

A

posterior

246
Q

where do the nerve endings of the TMJ lie

A

posterior attachment of the retrodistal tissues

247
Q

what will a DPT show for the TMJ

A

lateral view of the condylar head

248
Q

what will a PA mandible show for the TMJ

A

postero-antero view of the condylar head

249
Q

what will the reverse townes show

A

anterio-posterior view of the mandible

250
Q

what technique is a reverse townes taken with

A

mouth open technique

251
Q

what will a lateral oblique show for the TMJ

A

lateral view of the condylar head

252
Q

what is a lateral oblique an alternative to for the TMJ

A

DPT

253
Q

should you do a DPT for a TMJ assessment ?

A

no

254
Q

why should you not do a DPT for a TMJ assessment

A

most pain associated with the TMJ is myofascial in origin rather than related to the articular disc

255
Q

when would a DPT for the TMJ be indicated

A
  • recent trauma
  • change in occlusion
  • mandibular shift on open/close
  • sensory/motor alterations
  • change in range of movement
256
Q

what is the first line of imaging to visualise the TMJ for trauma

A

PDT and PA mandible at 90 degrees to each other

257
Q

what image is taken for the TMJ if DPT/PA mandible is not sufficient

A

CBCT

258
Q

what was previously taken when DPT/PA mandible was not sufficient, before CBCT was readily available

A

reverse townes

259
Q

what imgaes of the TMJ would be takenn for a pt with low glasgow coma scale?

A

straight to CT in A&E

260
Q

what is superimposed over the anterior teeth in a PA mandible

A

cervical spine

261
Q

why is the superimposition over the anterior teeth in a PA mandible significant?

A

will make very difficult to diagnose fractures in that area via this view

262
Q

what does increased radiopacity around the condylar head suggest

A

fracture

263
Q

what view would be taken to assess bony changes of the condyles and articular eminences

A

CBCT

264
Q

what is CBCT best used for in related to TMJ and why

A

degenerative bone disease as no soft tissue definition

265
Q

how does the radiation dose of CT differ from CBCT

A

increased

266
Q

how does traditional CT differ from CBCT

A

can visualise soft tissue and bone

267
Q

what is traditional CT best used for in relation to TMJ/ imaging of the head and neck

A

neoplastic masses

268
Q

what is the resolution of the CT scan dependant on

A

voxel size

269
Q

why is CBCT better resolution and have better fine detail than CT

A

CT has a bigger voxel size than CBCT

270
Q

how will cortical bone appear on CT

A

bright white

271
Q

how will air appear on CT

A

very dark

272
Q

how will cancellous bone appear on CT

A

grey

273
Q

what radiation dose does MRI have

A

none

274
Q

what can MRI show clearly

A

soft tissue and bony pathology

275
Q

what is MRI really good at in relation to the TMJ

A

assessing the position of the articular disc

276
Q

what MRI views would be taken to assess the condyle for function

A

opena dn closed mouth views

277
Q

what two views must you check on an MRI for the position of the articular disc

A

-coronal
-parasagittal along axis of condyle

278
Q

where does the articular disc typically displace

A

anteriorly and medically

279
Q

how does cortical bone appear on an MRI

A

black

280
Q

how does fatty cancellous bone appear on an MRI

A

white

281
Q

how does the articular disc appear on an MRI

A

dark grey

282
Q

where is the condyle expected to appear on an open mouth MRI view

A

directly below the narrowest portion of the articular disc

283
Q

what clinical sign would indicate anterior disc displacement with reduction

A

reciprocal clicks on opening when the disc is recaptured

284
Q

where would the articular disc lie when the mouth is closed if there is anterior disc displacement with reduction

A

anteriorly

285
Q

when might TMJ problems result in limited opening for the pt

A

anterior disc displacement without reduction

286
Q

what are the symptoms of anterior disc displacement without reduction

A
  • limited mouth opening
  • pain
287
Q

why is there pain with anterior disc displacement without reduction

A

the retrodiscal tissues are being stretched

288
Q

where does the disc sit when the mouht is open and closed in anterior disc displacement without reduction

A

anteriorly for both

289
Q

when might there be anterior disc displacement and bony arthritic changes

A

if there is chronic anterior disc displacement

290
Q

what does anterior disc displacement without reduction cause

A

loss of joint space and associated bony arthritis affecting the condylar head

291
Q

what is loss of cortical bone in TMJ imaging suggestive of

A

degenerative changes

292
Q

what does a “point” at the condylar head suggest

A

osteophyte

293
Q

what will chronic degenerative changes of the TMJ also result in

A

shrivelled up articular disc in the wrong place - non-functional disc

294
Q

what imaging is used for the TMJ within nuclear medicine

A

SPECT

295
Q

what does SPECT stand for

A

single photon emission CT

296
Q

what is injected in SPECT

A

IV technetium 99 metastable (radioisotope)

297
Q

when is SPECT used for the TMJ

A

is condyler hyperplasia

298
Q

what is the normal range of SPECT

A

45-55%

299
Q

what will SPECT show

A

hotspots of metabolic activity

300
Q

what sensitivity/ specificity does SPECT have

A

highly sensitive, poorly specific

301
Q

what does SPECT struggle to tell us

A

the cause of the increased metabolic activity

302
Q

what can hotspots on SPECT be due to

A
  • pathology
  • increased growth
  • inflammation
303
Q

how is the cause of increased metabolic activity determined when using SPECT

A

help of other imaging and clinical presentation

304
Q

what is the Tx for condylar hyperplasia

A
  • resect hyperplastic tissue
  • distraction osteogenesis to form new condylar head
305
Q

what is arthrography an alternative to

A

MRI

306
Q

what are contraindications to arthrography

A
  • claustrophobia
  • implanted devices
307
Q

what is arthrography good at

A

assessment of soft tissues

308
Q

what purposes can arthrography be used for

A
  • diagnostic
  • therapeutic
309
Q

what might be injected into joint space to releive TMD symptoms

A

steroid

310
Q

why is it important to inject the contrast for arthrography into the lower TMJ space first

A

if any perforation in the disc then the contrast will leak into upper compartment

311
Q

what guidance is arthrography done under

A

fluoroscopic guidance

312
Q

when would minor salivary glands be visible on the radiograph

A

only if pathological

313
Q

why would we image salivary glands

A
  • obstruction
  • dry mouth
  • swelling
314
Q

what migth cause obstruction of salivary glands

A
  • mucous plugs
  • salivary stones
  • neoplasia
315
Q

why would you take images for dry mouth

A

to exclude sjorgens

316
Q

what can swelling of salivary glands be secondary to

A
  • obstruction
  • bacterial/ viral infection
  • neoplastic growths
317
Q

what would be the two forms of first line imaging for obstructive gland disease

A
  • plain film radiographs
  • ultrasound
318
Q

what would be second line imaging for obstructive gland disease

A

sialography

319
Q

what would influence your decision to take plain film radiographs of obstructive gland disease in the first instance

A

location

320
Q

when would imagine of obstructive gland disease start with ultrasound

A

hospital setting

321
Q

what radiograph would you take for submandibular stones

A

lower true occlusal

322
Q

what is good for assessing stones within the submandibular gland itself and to exclude teeth as the cause of pain

A

DPT

323
Q

what is the genue

A

bend of the submandibular gland

324
Q

what will nay siolith wihint the FOM anterior to the genue be on a raidography?

A

superimposed over the body of the mandible

325
Q

what would you do if the visualisation of a siolith is difficult on a adPT

A

supplement with a lower true occlusal

326
Q

which radiography gives better visualisation to the submandibular region

A

lateral oblique

327
Q

what does a lateral oblqiue give better visualisation of the submandibular gland

A

angulation prevents the superimposition of the mandible over the submandibular gland

328
Q

why are PA mandibles and true laterals not very useful in imaging salivary glands

A

superimposition of anatomical structures

329
Q

why are ill defined radiolucent regions in salivary stones seen on a radiographs

A

peripheral laydown of Ca ions deposits over time

330
Q

name 6 other calcifications that can be mistaken for salivary stones

A
  • tonsilloliths
  • phleboliths
  • calcified plaques
  • normal anatomy
  • elongated calcified stylohyoid ligament
  • calcified lymph nodes
331
Q

where will tonsil stones appear on a DPT radiograph

A

superimposed over the ascending ramus

332
Q

what are phleboliths

A

calcifications within venous structures

333
Q

what appearance do phleboliths have on a radiograph

A

target appearance

334
Q

which artery can atheromas appear in on a DPT

A

carotid

335
Q

where would atheroma in the carotid artery appear on a DPT

A

level of bifurcation of the common carotid artery and C3/4 vertebrae
lateral to hyoid bone

336
Q

where would a calcified elongated stylohyoid ligament appear on a DPT

A

inferiorly/ medically to hyoid bone

337
Q

what will calcified lymph nodes look like on a radiograph

A

cauliflower like masses

338
Q

what does a pt usually have a history of if they have calcified lymph nodes

A
  • TB
  • cat-scratch disease
  • sarcoidosis
  • malignancy
339
Q

what is ultrasound

A

non-ionising radiation technique

340
Q

how does ultrasound work

A

creates images through high frequency sound waves

341
Q

can ultrasound be heard

A

no

342
Q

do ultrasound have a long or short wavelength

A

short

343
Q

is ultrasound transmittable through air

A

no

344
Q

what does ultrasound need to help the waves get into the tissues

A

coupling agent - gel

345
Q

how does the ultrasound transducer create waves

A

electric current passed through crystals on transducer surface

346
Q

when do the ultrasound waves return back ti the transducer

A

when boundaries between different tissues are met

347
Q

how is the image produced in ultrasound

A

speed of sound and time are used to calculate tissue depths to create image

348
Q

what does hypoechoic mean

A

dark on ultrasound

349
Q

what does hyperechoic mean

A

light/ bright on ultrasound

350
Q

what does homogeneous mean on ultrasound

A

uniform density

351
Q

what does heterogenous mean on ultrasound

A

mixed density

352
Q

what is ultrasound good for salivary glands

A
  • they are superficially placed
  • can assess all anatomy
  • can be used with sialogogue
353
Q

which part of which salivary gland is not superficially placed

A

deep lobe of the parotid

354
Q

where does the deep lobe of the parotid lie

A

deep to the ramus

355
Q

what anatomy can ultrasound assess in a salivary gland

A
  • parenchymal pattern
  • vascularity
  • ductal dilation
  • neoplastic masses
356
Q

give an example of a sialogogue that could help in ultrasound assessment

A

citric acid

357
Q

why are sialogogues used with ultrasound imaging of salivary glands

A

allow better visualisation of dilated duct s

358
Q

what is a key point to reading ultrasounds

A

anatomy is the opposite of what we expect to see

359
Q

what are the two most common cause of obstructive salivary gland disease

A

stone or mucous plug

360
Q

what % of siloliths are associated with submandibular gland

A

80%

361
Q

what % of submandibular sialoliths are radiopaque

A

80%

362
Q

what outline do salivary stones have on an ultrasound

A

hyperechoic

363
Q

why do salivary stones hvae a hyperechoic outline on ultrasound

A

more of the sound waves are absorbed there

364
Q

why might we take a sialography

A
  • to rule out any ductal narrowings
  • planning for access for intervantional procedures
365
Q

what is sialography

A

injection of iodinated contrast into duct to look for obstruction

366
Q

what is sialography done with

A

DPT , PA mandible or fluoroscopic approach

367
Q

is LA required for sialography

A

no

368
Q

what volume of contrast is injected in sialography

A

0.8-1.5ml

369
Q

name 2 interventional procedures that may be done for obstructive gland disease

A
  • basket retrieval
  • balloon dilation of ductal structures
370
Q

name 5 risks of sialography

A
  • discomfort
  • swelling
  • infection
  • stone could move
  • allergy to contrast
371
Q

what would be an alternative for sialography if the pt has contrast allergy

A

MRI

372
Q

what would be a contraindication to sialography

A

any sign of infection

373
Q

why is infection a contraindication to sialography

A

could result in bacterial ascending infection

374
Q

what is a advantage to fluoroscopic sialography

A

can watch the contras enter the ductal system in real time

375
Q

what is a disadvantage to fluoroscopic sialography

A

increased radiation dose to pt

376
Q

what must staff wear during fluoroscopic sialography

A

lead aprons

377
Q

what does subtractive approach allow for in fluoroscopic sialography

A

only the contrast is seen

378
Q

when if fluoroscopic sialography useful

A

if doing minimally invasive salivary gland interventions

379
Q

why is fluoroscopic sialography useful in basket retrieval

A

can see the exact location in relation to the duct

380
Q

what are the 3 phases of sialography

A
  • pre-contrast
  • contrast/filling phase
  • emptying phase
381
Q

what is the pre-contrast phase of sialography used as

A

base line

382
Q

what is the contrast/ filling phase of sialography

A

contrast is injected via cannula

383
Q

how long does the emptying phase occur after removing the cannula in sialography

A

5 mins

384
Q

what base does the contrast used in sialography have

A

aqueous

385
Q

why is it important that the contrast in has sialography water base rather than oil

A

easier to excrete and less likely to cause reactions

386
Q

describe how sialography contrast would become extravasated

A

perforation of ductal wall and contrast ends up in adjacent tissues

387
Q

what normal appearance does a parotid gland have under sialography

A

tree in winter

388
Q

why does parotid gland have a tree in winter appearance when under sialography

A

thick duct followed by narrowing of second and third ductal structures

389
Q

what appearance does the submandibular gland have when under sialography

A

bush in winter

390
Q

what might be seen on sialography if there are acinar changes

A

snow storm appearnace

391
Q

what sialography changes are consistent with chronic sialdenitis or sjogrens syndrome

A

globular acinar

392
Q

what would you see under sialography when there is chronic sialdenitis or sjogrens

A

globular acinar changes

393
Q

what 2 images should be taken in sialography

A
  • one with contrast in place
  • one during emptying phase with time delay
394
Q

why should there be a time delay in taking the emptying phase radiography in sialography

A

allows the gland time to produce saliva to excrete contrast

395
Q

what would we know if there is almost complete removal of the contrast during sialography but we know there is an obstruction

A

obstruction is mobile

396
Q

what may cause us to think there is an obstruction during sialography when there isnt

A

air bubbles

397
Q

what will obscure fine detail during sialography

A

overfilling

398
Q

what will cause the pt discomfort when doing sialography

A

overfilling on contrast

399
Q

what should you do instead of sialography if the pt has an iodine allergy

A

MRI sialography

400
Q

what is an option of surgical r

A

module 8 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions