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module 8 > radiology 2 > Flashcards

radiology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

are interventional measure often done in scotland for salivary obstruction

A

no

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2
Q

what are 3 interventional measures for salivary obstruction

A
  • surgical removal of the stone
  • removal of the gland
  • dilate structures of the gland
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3
Q

why might surgical dilation of salivary ducts not be possible

A

extent of scar tissue from chronic infection

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4
Q

what must the salivary stone be to remove it

A
  • mobile
  • located in lumen/ main duct
  • duct must be patent and wide to allow passage of the stone
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5
Q

where must the salivary stone be in the submandibular gland in order to remove it

A

within lumen or main duct distal to the posterior border of the mylohyoid

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6
Q

where does a salivary stone by in the parotid duct in order to remove it

A

distal to the hilum or anterior border of the gland

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7
Q

what must the duct be for balloon dilation

A

patent anterior to the stricture to allow passage of the equipment

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8
Q

what % of balloon dilation results in complete resolution

A

56

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9
Q

what 4 tests would be used to test for sjogrens

A
  • blood test
  • schirmer test
  • sialometry
  • labial gland biopsy
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10
Q

what 5 things are we looking for on an ultrasound for sjogrens

A
  • atrophy of the gland
  • heterogenous parenchymal pattern
  • hypoechoic
  • fatty infiltration
  • changes suggesting MALT lymphoma
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11
Q

what do sjogrens syndrome pts have a higher risk of

A

developing lymphoma

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12
Q

what is the number 1 imaging modality for sjogrens

A

ultrasound

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13
Q

what is stage 1 on the diagnostic criteria for sjogrens

A

punctate

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14
Q

what is stage 2 on the diagnostic criteria for sjogrens

A

globular

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15
Q

what is stage 3 on the diagnostic criteria for sjogrens

A

cavitation

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16
Q

what is stage 4 on the diagnostic criteria for sjogrens

A

destructive

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17
Q

what other changes in the salivary glands mimic sjogrens

A
  • radiotherapy
  • SLE and sarcoidosis
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18
Q

what does radiotherapy do to salivary glands

A

causes atrophy

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19
Q

what is scintigraphy

A

injection of radioactive technetium 99 pertechnetate

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20
Q

what is the half life of the contrast used in scintography

A

6 hrs

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21
Q

what can you used in scintography to gain images

A

gamma camera

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22
Q

what does scintography of the salivary glands show us

A

how well the glands are working

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23
Q

what will there be in scintography of salivary glands if the gland is working well

A

uptake into the gland

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24
Q

what will there be on scintography of salivary glands if there is a tumour

A

reduced uptake

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25
Q

which tumour will not be seen on a scintography of salivary glands

A

warthins tumour

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26
Q

what is the first line imaging modality to rule out obstruction or neoplasia of salivary glands

A

ultrasound

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27
Q

when is a biopsy required of salivary gland

A

if neoplasia

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28
Q

what biopsy would be taken for neoplasia of salivary gland

A

FNA
core biopsy

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29
Q

give two examples og benign salivary tumours

A
  • pleomorphic adenoma
  • warthins tumour
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30
Q

what will a benign tumour of salivary gland be like on imaging

A
  • well defined
  • encapsulated
  • peripheral vascularity
  • no lymphadenopathy
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31
Q

name 3 malignant tumours of salivary gland

A
  • mucoepidermoid carcinoma
  • acinic cell carcinoma
  • adenoid cystic carcinoma
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32
Q

what will a malignant salivary gland tumour look like on images

A
  • irregular margins
  • poorly defined
  • increased/ tortuous internal vascularity
  • lymphadenopathy
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33
Q

what may low grade malignancy imitate on images

A

benign

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34
Q

what is MRI useful for in salivary glands

A

surgical assessment of lesions that may not be seen on radiograph

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35
Q

which part of which salivary gland may not be seen on radiograph and need MRI

A

deep lobe of parotid

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36
Q

why should you do MRI before biopsy for salivary gland (parotid)

A

inflammatory appearances may appear on scan complicating diagnosis

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37
Q

when would you image minor salivary glands

A

when pathological or enlarged

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38
Q

what image would you take for a minor salivary gland if the indication is superficial

A

ultrasound

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39
Q

what image would you take for a minor salivary gland if the indication is deep

A

MRI

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40
Q

apart from a deep lesion, when else might a MRI be taken for a minor salivary gland

A

if bony involvement

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41
Q

what do minor salivary glands have a higher risk of than major glands

A

malignancy

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42
Q

where might you get bony involvement for minor salivary gland pathology

A
  • retromolar pad
  • hard palate
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43
Q

what are “B” symptoms of malignancy

A
  • weight loss
  • night sweats
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44
Q

what type of cancer do night sweats particularly relate to

A

lymphoma

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45
Q

why might malignancy cause issues in moving the tongue

A

if involvement of the hypoglossal nerve

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46
Q

what is the name for changes to a pts voice

A

dysphonia

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47
Q

when might a malignancy pt get loss of hearing

A

advanced disease - involvement of facial and vestibulocochlear nerves

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48
Q

what might malignant bone look like on radiograph

A

moth eaten

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49
Q

name the different things you have to describe about pathology on a radiograph

A
  • site
  • size
  • shape
  • margins
  • internal structure
  • effects
  • tooth involvemnt
  • no. of
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50
Q

name some radiographic signs of malignancy

A
  • moth eaten bone
  • floating teeth
  • non-healing sockets
  • unusual periodontal bone loss
  • spiculated periosteal reaction
  • ununsual uniform widening of PDL
  • loss of lamina dura
  • loss of bony outlines
  • thinning of cortical margin
  • spiking root resorption
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51
Q

what does a rapidly growing radiography lesion suggest

A

aggressive or malignant

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52
Q

which benign lesions grow at a rapid pace

A
  • ameloblastoma
  • central giant cell granuloma
  • odontogenic maxomas
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53
Q

what type of margins would indicate a benign lesion radiographically

A

corticated defined margins

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54
Q

what might lack of cortication indicate

A

healing lesion
superimposed infection
fast growing lesion

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55
Q

what is a bad prognostic sign radiographically of a leison

A

moth eaten bone with no margins

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56
Q

why do benign lesions have corticated margins

A

because they are slow growing so the bone has time to react and expand with the lesion

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57
Q

what will benign lesions do to other anatomical structures

A

displace them due to slow growth

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58
Q

what will malignant lesions do to other anatomical structures

A

destroy them

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59
Q

will a malignant lesion cause displacement of the IAN

A

no

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60
Q

will a benign lesion cause displacement of the IAN

A

yes

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61
Q

what does generalised widening of the PDL indicate

A

malignancy

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62
Q

what does generalised loss of lamina dura indicate

A

malignancy

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63
Q

who is osteosarcoma commonly in

A

young adults - 30s

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64
Q

name 6 risk factors for osteosarcoma

A
  • fibrous dysplasia
  • retinoblastoma
  • previous exposure to radiation
  • previous primary bone cancer
  • pagets disease
  • chronic osteomyelitis
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65
Q

what % of osteosarcoma occur in the head and neck

A

10

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66
Q

what are the 4 most common symptoms of osteosarcoma

A
  • persistent pain
  • oedema
  • paraesthesia
  • B symptoms
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67
Q

what will be seen radiographically for late stage osteosarcoma

A

spiking periosteal reaction

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68
Q

what will osteosarcoma look like in its early stages, radiographically

A
  • slightly moth eaten
  • widened PDL
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69
Q

what is multiple myeloma

A

proliferation of plasma cells in bone marrow leading to overproduction of immunoglobulins

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70
Q

what is a solitary lesion of multiple myeloma called

A

plasmocytoma

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71
Q

what are multiple lesions of multiple myeloma called

A

multiple myeloma

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72
Q

who is most often affected by multiple myeloma

A

middle aged adults

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73
Q

what shape will multiple myeloma be radiographically

A

round and unilocular

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74
Q

what will the internal structure of multiple myeloma be

A

radiolucent

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75
Q

what will the margins of multiple myeloma be radiographically

A

well defined and not corticated

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76
Q

what can large lesions of multiple myeloma lead to

A

path fracture

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77
Q

if multiple myeloma is multi focal what can it affect

A

all of skeleton

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78
Q

which type of lymphoma is most often seen in the head and neck

A

B cell lymphoma

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79
Q

how can lymphoma initially persist

A

soft tissue lump

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80
Q

what is langerhans histocytosis

A

proliferation of langerhans cells and eosinophilic leucocytes

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81
Q

what are the 3 manifestations of langerhans histocytosis

A
  • eosinophilic granulomas
  • hand schuller christian disease
  • letterer siwe disease
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82
Q

what is eosinophilic granulomas

A

solitary lesion, typically affects adolescents

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83
Q

what is hand schuller christian disease

A

multifocal eosinophilic granulomas
- chronic and widespread, begins in childhood and develops into adulthood

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84
Q

what is letterer siwe disease

A

widespread disease affecting children under 3 years old

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85
Q

what shape will langerhans histocytosis be

A

unilocular

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86
Q

what internal structure will langerhans histocytosis have

A

radiolucent

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87
Q

what margins will langerhans histocytosis have

A

smooth outline

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88
Q

what effects does langerhans histocytosis have

A

floating teeth

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89
Q

what 5 tissues cause bone metastasis

A
  • lung
  • prostate
  • breast
  • kidney
  • thyroid
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90
Q

what will metastasis look like radiographically

A
  • moth eaten
  • radiolucent
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91
Q

what can breast and prostate metastasis be radiographically

A

sclerotic/ osteogenic

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92
Q

can we decipher between primary and secondary tumours radiographically

A

no - take good MH and clinical assessment

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93
Q

what can low grade malignancy mimic

A

benign lesion

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94
Q

name 3 differential diagnosis’ of malignancy on radiographs

A
  • osteomyelitis
  • osteoradionecrosis
  • MRONJ
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95
Q

what is radiopaqueness in pathology due to

A
  • increased thickness of bone
  • osteosclerosis of bone
  • abnormal tissues
  • mineralisation of non-mineralised tissues
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96
Q

what is the main deviation between cysts and other pathologies

A

internal structure

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97
Q

what is another name for odontoma

A

dental hamartoma

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98
Q

what is an odontoma

A

benign tumour of dental tissues

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99
Q

what are odontomas made up of

A

enamel, dentine, cementum and pulp

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100
Q

what similarities to normal teeth do odontomas have

A
  • detal follicle
  • mature to a certain stage
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101
Q

do odontomas grow indefinitely

A

no, will mature

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102
Q

when are odontomas most common

A

2nd decade

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103
Q

what do odontomas correlate with

A

development of normal dentition

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104
Q

which gender is more likely to get odontomas

A

=

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105
Q

what are the two types of odontoma

A

compound
complex

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106
Q

what are compound odontomas

A

ordered dental structures

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107
Q

which type of odontoma are known as ‘mini teeth’

A

compound

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108
Q

where are compound odontomas most common

A

anterior maxilla

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109
Q

what are complex odontomas

A

disorganised mass of dental tissue

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110
Q

what appearance will complex odontomas have radiographically

A

clump of cotton appearance

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111
Q

where are complex odontomas more commonly found

A

posterior mandible

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112
Q

what internal structure do odontomas have

A

mixed radiopacities

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113
Q

what are the areas of radiodensities in odontomas

A

areas of enamel

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114
Q

what is the thin radiolucent margin around odontomas

A

follicle

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115
Q

what shape will odontomas have

A

well-defined

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116
Q

what clinical issues may odontomas have

A
  • impaction of adjacent teeth
  • root resorption
  • dentigerous cyst
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117
Q

what is the management of odontomas

A

excision

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118
Q

what is the recurrence of odontomas

A

nil

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119
Q

what is idiopathic osteosclerosis

A

localised area of increased bone density

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120
Q

does idiopathic osteosclerosis have any association with inflammatory, neoplastic and dysplastic processes?

A

no

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121
Q

how are idiopathic osteosclerosis’s often diagnosed

A

incidental

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122
Q

what do idiopathic osteosclerosis’s have relevance to

A

ortho Tx

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123
Q

what is the incidence of idiopathic osteosclerosis

A

6%

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124
Q

when does idiopathic osteosclerosis present

A

adolescents

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125
Q

when do idiopathic osteosclerosis’s stop growing

A

adulthood

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126
Q

where do idiopathic osteosclerosis commonly occur

A

pre-molar/ molar region of mandible

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127
Q

what shape do idiopathic osteosclerosis have raidographically

A

round, ellipltical, irregular

128
Q

what size are idiopathic osteosclerosis

A

<2cm

129
Q

what margins do idiopathic osteosclerosis have

A

well defined

130
Q

what internal structure do idiopathic osteosclerosis have

A

general homogenous opacity but sometimes slight radiolucent areas

131
Q

what effect do idiopathic osteosclerosis have

A

nil

132
Q

what is sclerosing osteitis

A

localised area of increased boen density due to inflammation

133
Q

what causes sclerosing osteitis

A

chronic low grade inflammation

134
Q

is sclerosing osteitis symptomatic

A

concurrent symptoms due to source of inflammation

135
Q

does sclerosing osteitis have expansion or displacement of adjacent structures

A

no

136
Q

what is another name for sclerosing osteitis

A

condensing osteitis

137
Q

what margins does sclerosing osteitis have

A

can be well or poorly defined

138
Q

what are sclerosing osteitis’s often associated with

A

apex of necrotic teeth
infected cyst

139
Q

what should you do for sclerosing osteitis if radiographic signs are inconclusive

A

look for clinical source of inflammation

140
Q

what is hypercementosis

A

excessive deposition of cementum around root

141
Q

is hypercementosis symptomatic

A

no

142
Q

is hypercementosis tooth vital

A

yes

143
Q

what is the cause of hypercementosis

A

unknown

144
Q

what conditions is hypercementosis common in

A

pagets disease, acromegaly

145
Q

what is the clinical relevance of hypercementosis

A

makes XLA more difficult

146
Q

what can be affected by hypercementosis

A

single or multiple teeth
entirety of root or just a section

147
Q

what radiographic presentation will hypercementosis have

A

homogenous radiopacity continuous with root surface

148
Q

is the radiodensity of hypercementosis the same as dentine

A

similar but slightly different

149
Q

what extends around the periphery of hypercementosis

A

PDL

150
Q

what are the margins of hypercementosis like

A

often smooth but can be irregular

151
Q

what is cementoblastoma

A

benign odontogenic tumour of cementum

152
Q

where does cementoblastoma occur

A

around the root of a tooth

153
Q

is the tooth involved with cementoblastoma vital

A

yes

154
Q

is cementoblastoma painful

A

yes

155
Q

what effects can cementoblastoma have

A

displace adjacent teeth and cortical bone

156
Q

what age does cementoblastoma commonly occur

A

2nd-3rd decade

157
Q

where does cementoblastoma commonly occur

A

mandibular molar/premolar region

158
Q

what margin does cementoblastoma have

A

thin, radiolucent margin continuous with the PDL

159
Q

in cementoblastoma is there a margin that separates the tumour from the root surface

A

no

160
Q

what radiographic properties does cementoblastoma have

A

homogenous and round, irregular shape and mixed radiodensity

161
Q

what are tori

A

bony protuberances of the bone are characteristic sites

162
Q

where do tori occur

A
  • middle of the hard palate
  • lingual mandibular premolars
163
Q

what are tori of the palate called

A

tori palatinus

164
Q

what are mandibular tori called

A

tori mandibularis

165
Q

do tori grow

A

yes, slowly

166
Q

what causes tori

A

unknown - potentially genetics, and masticatory stresses

167
Q

what is the clinical relevance of tori

A
  • hamper denture wear
  • potentially traumatised during eating
168
Q

what is the incidence of tori palatinus

A

20%

169
Q

what age do tori palatinus arise

A

before 30

170
Q

what is the incidence of tori mandibularis

A

8%

171
Q

when does tori mandibularis occur

A

middle age

172
Q

what do tori consist of

A
  • cortical bone
  • or mix of cortical and trabecular bone
173
Q

what two phenotypes can tori have

A

sessile or pedunculated

174
Q

what is an osteoma

A

benign tumour of bone

175
Q

where does osteoma often occur

A

can occur anywhere but most often craniofacial skeleton

176
Q

what does osteoma clinically present as

A
  • hard
  • asymptomatic
  • slow-growing lump
177
Q

how many osteomas will occur at once

A

can be just one or multiple

178
Q

where do osteomas most commonly occur

A

posterior mandible

179
Q

what type of bone makes up osteoma

A

cortical or mix of cortical and trabecular

180
Q

what two phenotypes can osteoma hvae

A

sessile or pedunculated

181
Q

what type of margins do osteomas have

A

smooth rounded

182
Q

do osteoma have malignant potential

A

no

183
Q

what issues might osteomas cause

A
  • aesthetics issues
  • functional issues
184
Q

what is the Tx if an osteoma is causing issues

A

excision

185
Q

what may multiple osteomas indicate

A

gardners syndrome

186
Q

what is gardners syndrome

A

variant of familial adenomatous polyposis

187
Q

what is gardners syndrome characterised by

A
  • colorectal polyposis
  • osteomas
  • soft tissue tumours
188
Q

what dental defects do pts with gardners syndrome have

A

supernumeraries, impacted teeht and idiopathic osteoclerosis

189
Q

what dental defects do pts with gardners syndrome have

A

supernumeraries, impacted teeht and idiopathic osteoclerosis

190
Q

why is gardners syndrome significant

A

colorectal polyps will become cancerous

191
Q

what is the mean age of cancer diagnosis for gardners syndrome if not treated

A

39

192
Q

what inheritance does gardners syndrome have

A

autosomal dominant

193
Q

how else can gardners syndrome happen if not genetically predisposed

A

sporadically

194
Q

what would you do if a pt have multiple osteomas and some impacted teeth

A

refer for genetic testing and investigation for gardners syndrome

195
Q

what is cleidocranial dysplasia

A

rare genetic condition with various skeletal defects

196
Q

what bone pattern is seen in in cleidocranial dysplasia

A

corse trabecular pattern

197
Q

which two bone conditions have overlapping radiographic features

A

osteomyelitis and osteonecrosis

198
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of bone and bone marrow due to bacterial infection

199
Q

what is osteoradionecrosis

A

bone death resulting from irradiation

200
Q

what can help differentiate between osteoradionecrosis adn osetomyelitis

A

history and clinical history

201
Q

what do osteoradionecrosis adn osetomyelitis result in radiographically

A

variable mixture of radiolucent and radiopaque areas

202
Q

what is periosteal bone reaction seen in

A

osteomyelitis

203
Q

what affect on teeth might osteoradionecrosis and osetomyelitis cause

A

loss of lamina dura

204
Q

if osteoradionecrosis and osetomyelitis is extreme, what might happen

A

path fracture

205
Q

what is osteolysis

A

breakdown of bone

206
Q

what does osteolysis cause on the radiograph

A

radiolucency

207
Q

what is osteosclerosis

A

thickening of bone

208
Q

what does osteosclerosis cause on the radiograph

A

radiopacity

209
Q

what is periosteal bone reaction

A

inflammation results in periosteum laying down new layers of bone around the area

210
Q

what is a giant cell granuloma

A

reactive lesion with benign tumour like behaviour

211
Q

how fast does giant cell granuloma grow

A

slowly

212
Q

what effects does giant cell granuloma have

A

displacement of bone and teeth

213
Q

what affects do a small minority of giant cell granuloma have

A

fast growing, aggressive form

214
Q

what symptoms do giant cell granuloma have

A

tender to palpation - nothing else

215
Q

what may you see clinically for giant cell granuloma

A

invasion into soft tissues

216
Q

what age range do giant cell granulomas occur

A

before 20

217
Q

what gender is more likely to get giant cell granuloma

A

female

218
Q

where does giant cell granuloma most commonly affect

A

mandible anterior to molars

219
Q

what shape will giant cell granuloma be

A

unilocular

220
Q

what shape will giant cell granuloma if large

A

multilocular

221
Q

what margins do giant cell granuloma have

A

well defined, poorly corticated, scalloped

222
Q

what internal structure do giant cell granuloma have

A

radiolucent or thin septae if present

223
Q

does giant cell granuloma have tooth involvement

A

no

224
Q

what effects do giant cell granuloma have

A

displacement of cortices, teeth and occasional root resorption

225
Q

how many giant cell granuloma occur at once

A

1

226
Q

when is root resorption from giant cell granuloma more likely

A

when rapidly growing aggressive form

227
Q

what are fibro-osseous lesions

A

benign condition where bone is replaced with connective tissue or abnormal bone

228
Q

are fibro-osseous genetic

A

no

229
Q

what are the 3 main types of fibro-osseous

A
  • cemento osseous dysplasia
  • fibrous dysplasia
  • ossifying fibroma
230
Q

which type of fibro-osseous only affects the jaws

A

cemento osseous dysplasia

231
Q

can histology differentiate between different types of fibro-osseous

A

no

232
Q

what plays the biggest part in diagnosing different types of fibro-osseous

A

radiology

233
Q

why is accurate diagnosis of fibro-osseous lesions important

A

Tx options vary

234
Q

what does inappropriate management of fibro-osseous lesions do

A

increase pt morbidity

235
Q

what are the 3 types of cemento osseous dysplasia

A
  • focal cemento osseous dysplasia
  • periapical cemento osseous dysplasia
  • florid cemento osseous dysplasia
236
Q

what is focal cemento osseous dysplasia

A

single or a few localised lesions

237
Q

what is periapical cemento osseous dysplasia

A

lesions associated with apices of mandibular teeth

238
Q

what is florid cemento osseous dysplasia

A

extensive lesions or many lesions

239
Q

what age groups does cemento osseous dysplasia affect

A

30-50

240
Q

what gender is more prone to cemento osseous dysplasia

A

female

241
Q

what ethnicity is more likely to get cemento osseous dysplasia

A

black ethnicities

242
Q

what site is more likely to have cemento osseous dysplasia

A

mandible

243
Q

what is often seen clinically for cemento osseous dysplasia

A

nothing

244
Q

which type of cemento osseous dysplasia is more likely to be expansile

A

florid

245
Q

are cemento osseous dysplasias painful

A

rarely

246
Q

are cemento osseous dysplasias assoicated with vital or non-vital teeth

A

vital

247
Q

is the PDL affected by cemento osseous dysplasia

A

no

248
Q

what shape will cemento osseous dysplasia be

A

well defined

249
Q

what does the radiopacity of cemento osseous dysplasia depend on

A

stage of the lesion

250
Q

how might fully mature cemento osseous dysplasia lesions appear

A

entirely radiopaque

251
Q

what is ofetn lost with cemento osseous dysplasia

A

lamina dura

252
Q

does cemento osseous dysplasia cause tooth displacement or resorption

A

rarely

253
Q

what is the management of cemento osseous dysplasia

A

usually none

254
Q

when is removal of cemento osseous dysplasia recommended

A

exposure by:
- XLA
- mandibular atrophy
- trauma etc

255
Q

what is there a risk of following intervention of cemento osseous dysplasia

A

secondary infection

256
Q

why is biopsy avoided with cemento osseous dysplasia

A

to avoid secondary infection

257
Q

when would biopsy of cemento osseous dysplasia be done

A

atypical presentation - rapid expansion

258
Q

why are XLA of involved teeth of cemento osseous dysplasia avoided

A

to avoid secondary infection

259
Q

what should you consider doing for cemento osseous dysplasia

A

periodic radiographic review

260
Q

why is cemento osseous dysplasia revied radiographically

A

to check for formation of solitary bone cysts

261
Q

what are the 3 types of fibrous dysplasia

A
  • monostotic
  • polystotic
  • craniofacial
262
Q

what is the most common type of fibrous dysplasia

A

monostotic

263
Q

what is monostotic fibrous dysplasia

A

single bone affected

264
Q

what is polystotic fibrous dysplasia

A

multiple lesions affecting multiple bones

265
Q

what is cranciofacial fibrous dysplasia

A

single lesion affecting multiple bones

266
Q

what is the incidence of fibrous dysplasia

A

1:30000

267
Q

what is the mean presentation of fibrous dysplasia

A

25 years

268
Q

what gender is more prone to fibrous dysplasia

A

=

269
Q

where is fibrous dysplasia most commonly found

A

posterior maxilla

270
Q

how does fibrous dysplasia present clincally

A

facial swelling
displaced teeth
painless

271
Q

how will fibrous dysplasia loook radiographically

A

altered bone pattern

272
Q

what internal structure will have fibrous dysplasia

A

orange peel, granular, swirling, wispy

273
Q

radiographically, what increases as a fibrous dysplasia lesion matures

A

radiodensity

274
Q

as the bone in fibrous dysplasia enlarges, what deos it maintain

A

anatomical shape

275
Q

what margins will fibrous dysplasia have

A

indistinct, blending into adjacent bone

276
Q

what is the management of fibrous dysplasia if not causing any issues

A

nil

277
Q

what is the management of fibrous dysplasia if causing issues

A
  • recontouring
  • radical resection
278
Q

many fibrous dysplasia lesions stop growing, but what may happen after an event

A

start growing again

279
Q

give 2 examples of an event that would cause a mature fibrous dysplasia lesion to start growing again

A
  • pregnancy
  • jaw surgery
280
Q

what is an ossifying fibroma

A

fibro-osseous neoplasm in tooth bearing area

281
Q

where do the majority of ossifying fibromas occur

A

mandible

282
Q

what is the clinical presentation of ossifying fibroma

A

slow growing bony swelling
painless

283
Q

how does the juvenile subtype of ossifying fibroma differ from the normal type

A

subtype grows rapidly

284
Q

what age group is affected by ossifying fibroma

A

any age

285
Q

what is the mean age of presentation for ossifying fibroma

A

31

286
Q

what gender is more prone to ossifying fibroma

A

female

287
Q

what shape will ossifying fibroma be

A

rounded, expansile lesion

288
Q

what affects will ossifying fibroma have

A

displace teeth, resorb teeth

289
Q

what is the internal structure of ossifying fibroma

A

ranges from entirely radiolucent to entirely radiopaque

290
Q

what does the radiodensity of ossifying fibroma lesion depend on

A

maturation of lesion

291
Q

what margins will ossifying fibroma have

A

well defined

292
Q

what might the surrounding bone of ossifying fibroma be

A

sclerotic

293
Q

what is the management of ossifying fibroma

A

removal due to progressive growth

294
Q

how is a ossifying fibroma removed

A

enucleation or resection

295
Q

what is the rescurrence rate of ossifying fibroma

A

12%

296
Q

what is pagets disease

A

chronic condition causing disordered remodelling of the bone

297
Q

how many bones does pagets disease affect

A

multiple at one time

298
Q

what affects does pagets disease have

A
  • maloccluion
  • nerve impingement
  • brittle bones
299
Q

what are the symptoms of pagets disease

A

majority asymptomatic

300
Q

what is the incidence of pagets disease

A

up to 5% of pts >55

301
Q

what age range is pagets disease rare in

A

<40

302
Q

what age range is pagets disease more common in

A

> 55

303
Q

what gender is more prone to pagets

A

male

304
Q

where is pagets disease most commonly found in the world

A

UK

305
Q

what appearance will pagets disease have on a radiograph

A

cotton weel - abnormal bone pattern

306
Q

what is the radiodensity of pagets disease linked to

A

stage of the disease

307
Q

what patches of bone can be seen in pagets disease

A

osteosclerotic and osteolytic

308
Q

what is seen generally in pagets disease

A

enlargement of bones

309
Q

what will be seen radiographically in early stages of pagets disease

A

ostelytic

310
Q

what will be seen radiographically in late stages of pagets disease

A

osteosclerotic

311
Q

what is the cotton wool appearance of bone in pagets linked to

A

later stage of disease

312
Q

what is osteoporosis

A

decreased bone mass

313
Q

how does osteoporosis happen

A
  • age related
  • secondary to nutritional deficiencies or medications
314
Q

what affect will be seen around teeth for osteoporosis radiographically

A

thinned lamina dura

315
Q

what affects on bone will be seen in osteoporosis radiographically

A
  • thinned cortices
  • sparse trabecular bone pattern
316
Q

what causes the radiolucent affect in osteoporosis

A

sparse trabecular bone

317
Q

what is there an increased risk of with osteoporosis

A

path fractures

module 8 (9 decks)

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