Random Flashcards
(77 cards)
1
Q
What is tachyphylaxis?
A
more rapid than tolerance
The appearance of progressive decrease in response to a given dose after repetitive administration of a pharmacologically or physiologically active substance.
2
Q
Which organelle is enriched in hepatocytes and why?
A
Smooth ER because a function of hepatocytes is to synthesise lipids and this takes place at smooth ER.
3
Q
What does APTT stand for and which pathway is it used to test?
A
Activated partial thromboplastin time - tests intrinsic pathway to see how long it takes blood to clot.
4
Q
What is alteplase and its mechanism of action?
A
A fibrinolytic - converts plasminogen to plasmin to trigger degradation of fibrin.
5
Q
Would proteins with a short half life be removed by lysosomal or proteasomal degradation?
A
Proteasomal
6
Q
What are the different classes of chemical signal in the body?
A
Amino acid derivatives: - modified amino acids - peptide hormones - protein hormones Steroid hormones: - derived from cholesterol Eicosanoids - derived from lipids
7
Q
Describe Lyme disease.
A
- bacterial infection
- spread by infected ticks
- circular rash and flu like symptoms
- treated with antibiotics
8
Q
Which protein maintains the alignment of the thick filament in the middle of each sarcomere?
A
Titin
9
Q
Which cranial nerves are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system?
A
- CN III (oculomotor)
- CN VII (facial)
- CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
- CN X ( vagus)
10
Q
A mutation in the motor protein dynein can cause which condition?
A
Kartagener’s syndrome
11
Q
Which type of collagen is the predominant component in hyaline cartilage?
A
Collagen II
12
Q
How does Bcl 2 influence apoptosis?
A
- normally inhibits apoptosis by regulating the permeability of the mitochondrial membrane
- bcl 2 found to be increased in many cancers (especially lymphomas) and this increases the cells ability to evade any pro death signals
13
Q
Describe neutrophils
A
- 50-60% of circulating leukocytes
- short lived (6-12 hours)
- 1st line of defence
- bacteriostatic and toxic factors
- phagocytose pathogens
- release soluble mediators
- multi-lobed nuclei
14
Q
Which cell types can cause gliomas?
A
Glial cells (astrocytes, Schwann, ependymal, oligodendrocytes, microglial)
15
Q
In which phase of the cell cycle are organelles replicated?
A
G2
16
Q
Which extra embryonic membrane in continuous with the epiblast?
A
The amnion:
- lines the amniotic cavity which is filled with fluid and acts to protect the developing embryo - present until birth
17
Q
Describe the range of action of a paracrine signal and give an example.
A
Can reach nearby cells by diffuse e.g. a morphogen
18
Q
Which branch of the aorta supplies the upper left limbs with oxygenated blood?
A
The left subclavian artery.
19
Q
List the stages of the chain of infection.
A
- infectious agent
- reservoirs
- portal of exit
- means of transmission
- portal of entry
- susceptible host
20
Q
What are the features of class I shock?
A
Blood loss: up to 750ml Total % blood: up to 15% Pulse rate: <100 Blood pressure: normal Resp. Rate: 14-20 Urine output: >30ml/hour Mental status: normal
21
Q
What are the features of class II shock?
A
Blood loss: 750-1500ml Total % blood: 15-30 Pulse rate: >100 Blood pressure: normal Resp. Rate: 20-30 Urine output: 20-30ml/hour Mental status: mild anxiety
22
Q
What are the features of class III shock?
A
Blood loss: 1500-2000ml Total % blood: 30-40% Pulse rate: >120 Blood pressure: decreased Resp. Rate: 30-40 Urine output: 5-15ml/hour Mental status: anxious
23
Q
What are the features of class IV shock?
A
Blood loss: >2000ml Total % blood: >40 Pulse rate: >140 Blood pressure: decreased Resp. Rate: >40 Urine output: negligible Mental status: confused
24
Q
Which compound is a calcium chelator?
A
Sodium citrate
25
Which stain is routinely used to stain blood films?
Giemsa (basic methylene blue and acidic eosin)
26
List some classifications of hormones by chemical structure.
Amino acids derivatives:
- modified amino acids e.g. adrenaline
- peptide hormones e.g. oxytocin
- protein hormones e.g. insulin, growth hormone
Steroid hormones:
- derived from cholesterol e.g. testosterone, cortisol
Eicosanoids:
- derived from lipids e.g. prostaglandins
27
What type/s of hypersensitivity are antibody mediated?
I, II and III
28
What type/s of hypersensitivity are T cell mediated?
IV
29
What are the 3 cell types of cell surface receptors? Give examples.
1. Ion channel linked - used by glutamate neurotransmitter
2. G-protein-linked (GPCR) - used by adrenaline, serotonin
3. Enzyme-linked - key subtype is receptor tyrosine kinases - used by many growth factors
30
What is the mode of action for Warfarin?
Vitamin K antagonist
31
Divide the process of haemostasis into three phases.
1 - vasoconstriction
2 - platelet plug formation
3 - coagulation
32
What are the primary and secondary lymphoid organs?
Primary: bone marrow and thymus
Secondary: lymph nodes (tonsils and adenoids) and spleen
33
What pathogen causes Yellow fever?
Virus from Flavivirus genus (spread by mosquitos)
34
Describe cranial nerves I - VI
```
I - Olfactory - smell
II - Optic - vision
III - Oculomotor - eye movements
IV - Trochlear - eye movements
V - Trigeminal - motor to muscles of mastication and general sensory to the face
VI - Abducens - eye movements
```
35
Describe cranial nerves VII - XII
VII - Facial - muscles of facial expression
VIII - Vestibulocochlear - hearing and balance
IX - Glossopharyngeal - swelling and taste
X - Vagus - wandering nerve supplying heart, lungs, gut (parasympathetic system)
XI - Spinal accessory - neck muscles
XII - hypoglossal - muscles of the tongue
36
What does the brachial plexus innervate and where does it arise from?
- innervates the upper limb
| - typically arises from C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
37
Which pathogen would be common in a UTI?
Escherichia coli
38
What is the most superficial layer of intrinsic back muscles?
The splenius muscles
39
Describe the splenius muscles.
- thick and flat
- splenius capitis superior to splenius cervicis
- cover and hold deep neck muscles in position
40
Which amino acid is coded for by codon AUG?
Methionine
41
In which layer of the epidermis would you find melanocytes?
Stratum basale.
42
Using the Manchester triage system, how long should a patient classed as ‘green’ have to wait?
A maximum of 2 hours.
43
What are the insertion points for the longissimus portion of the erector spinae column of the back?
- lower ribs
- transverse processes of C2-T12
- mastoid process of the skull
44
How does neisseria meningitidis present after gram staining?
As pink cocci because gram -ve and spherical.
45
In what type of cell is vitamin D synthesis initiated?
Keratinocytes
46
Which extra embryonic membrane forms the foetal component of the placenta?
The chorion:
- a double layered membrane formed by the trophoblast and the extra embryonic membranes
- lines chorionic cavity which is found in early pregnancy but disappears with expansion of amniotic cavity
47
What type of receptor presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells?
MHC 1 (also known in humans as HLA A, B and C)
48
Describe the neurons of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Sympathetic - short pre ganglionic and long post ganglionic
Parasympathetic - long pre ganglionic and short post ganglionic
49
What are hemidesmosomes composed of?
Integrins.
50
Which type of post translational modification alters the activity of the protein?
Phosphorylation
51
Which drug targets VEGF?
Avastin (bevacizumab)
52
Where is fibrinogen produced?
Liver
53
What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the pulmonary vein?
40
54
List the different types of shock.
- cardiogenic
- hypovolaemic
- septic
- neurogenic
- anaphylactic
- obstructive
55
Which type of shock involves fluid redistribution due to leaking capillaries and vasodilation?
Septic shock
56
What is an aponeurosis?
A large, flat tendon that anchors muscle
57
Which keratohyalin granule is involved in the formation of a cell envelope around the cells in the stratum corneum?
Involucrin
58
What are the origins of the latissimus dorsi?
- spinous processes T7-T12
- thoracolumbar aponeurosis
- dorsal surface of sacrum
- dorsal 1/3 of iliac crest
- 10-12th ribs
- inferior angle of the scapula (variable)
59
Where is the insertion of the latissimus dorsi?
On the humerus at the floor of the intertubercular sulcus
60
Name the sterile sites of the body.
- blood, tissues and organ systems
- CNS
- lower respiratory tract
- sinuses, inner and middle ear
- renal system down to posterior urethra
- female reproductive tract down to cervix
- eye (except exposed conjunctivae)
61
Describe the allantois (extra embryonic membrane)
- forms as an outgrowth of yolk sac
- contributes to umbilical arteries
- connects to foetal bladder
- acts as a urine reservoir in non-human mammals
62
Where are Peyer’s patches found and what is their function?
Small intestine, they are secondary lymphoid organs
63
What are the layers of the GI tract from the lumen outwards?
- epithelium
- mucosa
- submucosa
- muscularis proprietor/externa
- adventitia/serosa
64
List some features of cardiac muscle.
- involuntary
- one or two centrally located nuclei per cell
- striated
- intercalated discs
- branching
65
How is the skin involved in physiological regulation?
- maintains body temperature via sweat and hair
- changes in peripheral circulation
- minor role in fluid balance (sweat)
- synthesis of vitamin D
66
What is the TNM system?
Tumour
Nodes
Metastases
67
Which digestive enzymes released by the pancreas are released in their active form?
- amylase
- lipase
- deoxyribonuclease
- ribonuclease
68
What type of collagen is produced in the proliferative phase of wound healing?
III
69
What activates factor XIII to become XIIIa in the clotting cascade?
Thrombin
70
What technique is used to measure HER2 on cell membranes?
Immunohistochemistry
71
How do aminoglyoside antibiotics target bacteria?
They target the bacterial ribosome therefore look to impede/inhibit protein synthesis.
72
Which bacteria causes whooping cause and how does it stain?
Bordetella pertussis - gram negative coccobacillus
73
Briefly describe the role of the complement cascade in the innate immune response.
- inflammation
- opsonisation
- kills pathogens directly
74
What is the main cell type in articular cartilage?
Chondrocytes
75
What percentage of a tendon is composed of cells?
Approx 20% (fibroblasts/tenocytes)
76
Where does the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve exit the cranial cavity?
Through the superior orbital fissure
77
How many distinct synovial joints are there in the atlantoaxial joint?
- joints between C1 and C2
- 3 synovial joints
- 2 at articular facets
- 1 at odontoid peg and anterior surface of C2 foramen
