Random from quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is released into the synaptic terminal to stimulate muscular contraction?

A

Acetylcholine

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2
Q

Which muscle can internally rotate the hip when the foot is in the planted position touching the floor?

A

TFL

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3
Q

Which exercise follows the Half Foam Roll in the lower extremity proprioceptive progression continuum?

A

Foam pad

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4
Q

Which of the following supplements have the greatest potential for excess dosage in adults?

A

Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin B6, Iron, Zinc

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5
Q

Pronation distortion syndrome - what muscles require static stretching?

A

gastro (calf stretch)

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6
Q

What connects bone to bone?

A

ligaments

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7
Q

what connects muscle to bone?

A

tendons

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8
Q

What do tendons connect?

A

Muscle and bone

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9
Q

What do ligaments connect?

A

bone to bone

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10
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which exercise?

A

standing cable chest press

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11
Q

which term refers to an anatomical position on the opposite side of the body?

A

contralateral

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12
Q

As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force increases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?

A

Eccentric

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13
Q

The body’s ability to differentiate b/t walking on concrete and walking on sand is an example of which of the following functions of the nervous system?

A

sensory

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14
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?

A

anterior pelvic tilt

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15
Q

Which of the following is a catabolic hormone secreted by the adrenal glands and serves to maintain energy supply through the breakdown of carbs, fats and protein?

A

Cortisol

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16
Q

How long should cardiorespiratory portion of the warm up last?

A

5-10 minutes

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17
Q

Typical resting heart rate for humans?

A

70-80 bpm

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18
Q

Examples of exercises in the frontal plane

A

Side lateral raise, side lunge, side shuffle

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19
Q

Examples of exercises in the saggital plane

A

Biceps curl, triceps pushdown, squat

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20
Q

Examples of exercises in the transverse plane

A

Throwing, golfing, swinging a bat, trunk rotation

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21
Q

Resting oxygen consumption is approximately how many mL of oxygen per kilogram body weight per minute?

A

3.5mL

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22
Q

What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?

A

Cardiac output

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23
Q

Which of the following refers to vessels that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart?

A

Veins

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24
Q

Which term refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction?

A

Stroke volume

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25
Pronation of the forearm involves the inward movement of the forearm in which of the following planes?
Transverse
26
Which of the following refers to a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases?
Extension
27
Which mechanoreceptors are MOST sensitive to change in length of a muscle?
Muscle spindles
28
When excited the Golgi Tendon Organ will cause the muscle to
Relax
29
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles would he or she expect to be shortened?
Adductors
30
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?
Posteriorly rotated pelvis
31
Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
Psoas
32
Muscle lengthened in lower crossed syndrome?
Transverse abdominis
33
A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system?
Circuit training system
34
What is a measuring site of the Durnin-Womersley formula?
Subscapular
35
Which scenario is a component of the sliding filament theory?
The result of two Z lines moving closer together.
36
When performing a [blank], the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.
Standing triceps extension
37
A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Resistance development
38
Which muscle is part of the core local stabilization system?
Transverse abdominis
39
What is an appropriate max heart rate intensity when training a client who is obese?
60 - 70% of their max HR
40
What is an expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client?
120 mm Hg
41
For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence their heart rate, which method establishes the most appropriate training heart rate?
Heart rate response (HRR)
42
An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of
reciprocal inhibition
43
Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?
12 to 13
44
If a client's knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which muscle(s) are overactive?
Adductor longus
45
After completing the three minute step test, client scored in zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when they do cardio training?
76-85% HR max
46
During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?
Standing calf
47
A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?
Neuromusculuar
48
How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?
16 -24 oz
49
If a client demos shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive?
upper traps
50
In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client's program?
Increasing load
51
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is:
quickness
52
Based on overhead squat assessment findings, if a client exhibitsknees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended?
Adductor static stretch
53
A high-protein diet consisting of more than 35% of total caloric intake from protein can potentially lead to which of the following adverse health effects?
Additional stress on kidneys
54
Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
Endomysium
55
Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
2 to 4
56
What is the third step in the Stages of Change model?
Preparation
57
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt - which muscle is probably overactive?
lats
58
Which exercise is classified as a balance-strength exercise?
single-leg squat touchdown
59
A client's shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which muscles may be underactive?
mid and lower traps
60
Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press?
Anterior deltoid
61
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?
Stomach
62
When performing a [blank], the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction.
Standing cable row
63
Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low-carb diet?
Loss of water
64
Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromsucular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?
Functional
65
Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?
Seeking a client's perspective
66
To maintain cert w/ NASM, CPT must earn:
2 CEUs w/in 2 years
67
Dehydration affects the body by increasing
heart rate
68
The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of:
Specificity
69
Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep max bench press estimation test?
Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
70
Example of appropriate spotting technique
The spotter should spot at the wrists when the clients are performing a dumbbell exercise.
71
To ensure proper front-side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of
dorsiflexion
72
What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high-protein, low carbohydrate diet?
A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.
73
In the stabilization endurance phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intesity?
low
74
What muscle is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?
Rhomboids
75
Davis's law states
Soft tissue models along the lines of stress
76
How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as
cardiac output
77
CPT shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of
Four years
78
Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but. not extreme?
Attainable
79
When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the later gatrocnemius is
external rotation of the feet
80
Power level balance exercise
Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
81
Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?
Abduction
82
What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardioresp training?
76 - 85%
83
Correct repetition range and tempo for Stabilization, Strength and Power Phases of the OPT model?
12-20/Slow; 1-12/ Moderate; 1-10/Explosive
84
The client is ready to progress from PHase: Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of new Strength Endurance workout?
Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
85
Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt?
Glute max
86
Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?
Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
87
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?
Decreased oxygen delivery
88
Micronutrient that should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin?
Calcium
89
Reactive training improves neuromusc efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems?
Central nervous system
90
What is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration in the adult population?
low-back pain
91
During the concentric action of the glute max what movement is occuring at the joint?
Hip extension and external rotation
92
Method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin?
Skinfold measurement
93
Client's knees move inward - which muscle is overactive?
TFL
94
During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving their head forward. Which static stretch would be appropriate for this client?
Levator scapulae
95
Knees moving inward - underactive muscles
glute med and glute max
96
Client's head protrudes during pulling assessment - which muscles should be stretched?
Sternocleidomastoid
97
Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with OA?
Limit the client to 10 to 12 reps per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
98
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as
Balance - strength
99
How many sets per exercise should be performed for resistance training in the Power Phase of the OPT model?
3-5
100
Which of the following is true about dynamic stretching?
It should be performed at a controlled speed.
101
What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?
Balance - power exercise
102
When training a client in the stabilization level, what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
Alternating arm
103
Client having trouble performing a signle-leg balance on a foam pad. Which balance training modality is appropriate for this client?
A half foam roll
104
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which exercise?
Standing cable chest press
105
What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
106
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?
Standing cable row
107
What is a core-stabilization exercise?
Floor prone cobra
108
When working with a client with hypertension, which of the following is the most appropriate exercise?
Standing cobra
109
First stage in teh stages of change model?
Precontemplation
110
A characteristic of the maintenance stage?
They have maintained change for 6 months or more.
111
A stage where people do occasionally exrecise but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month?
Preparation
112
Stage of change where individuals intend to take action in the next month?
Preparation
113
Father decides too much injury risk for sone to partake in personal training. This is an example of
Behavioral reactants
114
A client exercises occasionally and plans to regularly participate in a structured exercise program next month. What stage of change is this client?
Preparatoin
115
A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of
Behavioral reactants
116
What cognitive behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior?
Association and dissociation
117
A client tells teh trainer they do not exercise, but is thinking about becoming more active in teh next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client?
Contemplation
118
Clients must learn to identify challenging situations and barriers to exercise. Which of the following processes is the best tool for this type of learning?
Self-monitoring
119
An individual is training at the gym on his own. He asks a fellow gym member to spot him during the bench press exercise. Of which type of support is this an example?
Instrumental
120
CPT has been training a client for the last 2 years. On their next session, the client informs the trainer they are pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the trainer to take?
Discontinue sessions until client provides medical clearance.
121
Which of the following actions falls within a personal trainer's scope of practice regarding a client's nutrition?
Discuss food preparation methods.
122
What is the term for a force that produces rotation?
Torque
123
What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles?
Autogenic inhibition
124
Which of the following concepts is demo whe na tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the glute max?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
125
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the glute max - what is this an example of?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
126
Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds?
Glycolysis
127
Client's feet turn out - what is likely overactive muscle?
Lateral gastro
128
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles are shortened?
Adductors
129
A client's shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?
Lower traps
130
What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?
Decrease blood pressure
131
What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus
132
While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
Lats Dorsi
133
During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
Glute med
134
During a pushing and pulling assessment, the personal trainer notices that a client demos shoulder elevation. Which muscles are likely overactive?
Levator scapulae
135
Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?
Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood.
136
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?
Scalenes
137
Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?
Heart rate and oxygen uptake
138
Which of the following is specifically employed in a resistance training workout in order to devo muscular endurance of the legs?
Exercises that involve light weights and high reps
139
Acute variables determine which of the following?
The amount of stress placed on the body
140
What is a primary goal of training in the Power Level?
Increase rate of force production
141
Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromusc efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?
Reverse crunch
142
Maximal strength adaptations during a resistance training program are best achieved with which rest period?
3-5 minutes
143
High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following?
Metabolic rate
144
Mesocycle?
Monthly training plan
145
Training a client with OA?
Limit 10-12 reps per set for phase 1
146
When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
Psoas
147
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
Standing cable chest press
148
When performing SMR of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
The groin region inside the upper thigh
149
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?
Standing cable row
150
A client is able to successfully reach their shins when performing the single-leg squat touchdown. What is the next progression this client should work towards for this exercise?
Reaching all the way to the foot.
151
What type of support is tangible and practical to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve their goals?
Instrumental support
152
A personal trainer provides client with step by step instructions on how to perform a ball squat to shoulder press. Which type of support is this an example of?
Informational support
153
Which of the following should be considered when training clients in their own homes?
Packing equipment into the trainer's car. Yes, seriously.