Random HY Flashcards

1
Q
Transfusion related 
acute respiratory distress, 
fever, chills, 
hypotension, 
general PRURITUS,
BACK PAIN
pain at the IV site 
are suggestive of:
A

acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)

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2
Q

An adverse effect of transfusion of blood products characterized by acute-onset,
NONcardiogenic pulmonary edema.

Manifests with dyspnea, hypoxemia, HYPOtension, and fever that typically occurs within 6 hours after transfusion.

A

transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

get CXR

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3
Q

A transfusion reaction in which patients develop pulmonary EDEMA as a result of volume overload. Typically occurs when a large amount of blood products are transfused rapidly. Risk factors include a history of underlying cardiovascular or renal disease.
Px with HTN, respiratory distress, and hypoxia within 6 hours of transfusion, with signs of pulmonary edema on examination and imaging.

A

transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)

get CXR

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4
Q

____ should be obtained in patients with suspected transfusion-associated sepsis, which can manifest with fever, chills, respiratory distress, tachycardia, and hypotension.

A

Blood cultures

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5
Q

Transfusion related respiratory distress, hypotension, and tachycardia, and wheezing

A

anaphylactic transfusion reaction

screen for selective IgA deficiency

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6
Q

Measurement of ___, can be performed in patients with anaphylactic transfusion reactions.

A

anti-IgA antibodies & IgA levels

*selective IgA deficiency

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7
Q

hemodynamically unstable patient presents with hypotension
distant heart sounds
and JVD
pulsus paradoxus (absent pulse during inspiration),
and chest pain indicate (Dx)

A

cardiac tamponade

Tx: Pericardiocentesis

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8
Q

tacrolimus side effects include hyperkalemia, hypertension, glucose intolerance, neurotoxicity, and

A

nephrotoxicity

like cyclosporin

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9
Q

Manifests with recurrent episodes of monoarthritis (Knees & Wrist) typically self-limited.

Radiographic findings include Chondrocalcinosis and degenerative changes (subchondral cysts) in affected joints.

A

calcium pyrophosphate deposition (CPPD) disease (pseudogout)

Rhomboid calcium pyrophosphate crystals with +birefringence (synovial fluid)

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10
Q

a medial popliteal mass that disappears upon flexion of the knee (when the joint space is widened) and increases in extension of the knee

A

Popliteal cyst (Baker cyst)

Risk factors: knee trauma, OA, RA

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11
Q

The combination of ____ is the preferred three-drug regimen for HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

A

raltegravir (or dolutegravir)
tenofovir
emtricitabine

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12
Q

prevents bone resorption by acting as an estrogen aGonist in the BONE.

& estrogen anTagonist qualities in the BREAST and ENDOMETRIUM

A

Raloxifene

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13
Q

epigastric pain that improves with food intake, which suggests a

A

duodenal ulcer

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14
Q

The most common location for peptic ulcer perforation is the _______ which usually perforate into the _____

A

anterior duodenum

peritoneal cavity

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15
Q

Perforated ulcers in the _____ tend to cause massive _____ from the adjacent gastroduodenal artery

A

posterior duodenum

bleeding (hematemesis)

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16
Q

A high-pitched, holosystolic murmur at the apex with radiation to the back and higher intensity with increased systemic vascular resistance (hand grip, squatting) in a patient with exertional dyspnea is characteristic of

A

mitral regurgitation

LA dilation on echo

17
Q

PCV13 vaccine is currently recommended for all individuals ≥ __ years with an immunocompromising condition (CLL, chemotherapy) and should be followed by the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine 23 (PPSV23) at least 8 weeks later.

18
Q

Femoral arteriovenous fistula following femoral artery catheterization manifest with

A

groin bruit

19
Q

Femoral artery pseudoaneurysm following femoral artery catheterization manifest with pain in the groin and

A

a pulsatile mass, and a systolic bruit over the swelling

get a Duplex ultrasonography

20
Q

Post Afib treatment with Warfarin can cause what skin finding?

A

Reduced levels of protein C results in a transient state of hypercoagulability → risk of thrombosis and warfarin-induced SKIN NECROSIS.

21
Q

worsening diarrhea shortly after starting chemotherapy, suggests chemotherapy-induced diarrhea (CTID).
TX

A

Loperamide (1st)

Octreotide (2nd or septic)

22
Q

Gastric ulcer worse with food. Most Common Cx is

A

GI bleed

not perforation

23
Q

What neuro finding is intact in ALS?

2

A

Sensation to pinprick and vibration

24
Q

Why does diabetic nephropathy present with hyperfiltration of kidneys?
(aka increased microalbuminuria:Cr)

A

Non-enzymatic glycosylation (NEG)

25
What is one of the most common causes of CHF?
Arterial hypertension (HTN)
26
What medication causes exacerbation of advanced congestive heart failure (CHF)?
NSAID use
27
What do next if patient has a positive TB Skin Test?
Get a Sputum PCR for Mycobacterium tuberculosis