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Random Knowledge Flashcards

(102 cards)

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1
Q

SMOKE FUMES IN THE COCKPIT

A
  1. Oxygen mask (if required)- Don & 100%
  2. Crew Communication- Establish
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2
Q

CABIN ALT MESSAGE

A
  1. Oxygen Mask- Don & 100%
  2. Crew Communications- Establish
  3. Captain assumes PF duties
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3
Q

STAB TRIM RUNAWAY

A
  1. Control Wheel- Assume manual control and override runaway
  2. Stab Trim Disconnect- Push, hold, and release
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4
Q

BRAKING LOSS/ASYMMETRY

A
  1. Wheel Brakes- Release momentarily
  2. PM will select Antiskid to off
  3. Wheel Brakes- Reapply as required
  4. Reverse Thrust- Apply maximum until stopping assured
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5
Q

Crew coordination steps

A

1) PF- maintain aircraft control
2) Identify non-normal (cancel warning)
3) Accomplish immediate action items (if applicable-memorized or QRC)
4) CA assigns PF
5) Complete QRH procedures
6) Analyze and develop plan

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6
Q

Minimum alternate fuel

A

1500 lbs

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7
Q

Minimum fuel for go around

A

600 lbs/wing

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8
Q

Max AC load on engine

A

40 kva

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9
Q

ADG min speed needed

A

135 kts to power

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10
Q

What does ADG power?

A

Essential bus
-slats/flaps 1/2 each motor
-hydraulic pump 3B (primary flight controls)
-Stab ch 2

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11
Q

CA does takeoff if vis is?

A

Less than 1600 RVR or 1/4sm

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12
Q

Steady state idle engine oil pressure

A

25 psi minimum

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13
Q

Tire limit ground speed (700/900)

A

700- 182 kts
900- 195 kts

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14
Q

On flight less than 1 hour, which wx do you use?

A

METAR or TAF- whichever is worse

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15
Q

Pax O2 time

A

13 minutes

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16
Q

Max DC load on each TRU

A

120 amps

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17
Q

What does TRU stand for and what do they do?

A

Transformer rectifier units
Transforms 120 volt AC power into 28 volt DC power

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18
Q

Cargo carry limitation
Why?

A

Flight must be within 60 minutes of a suitable airport if cargo is carried in either cargo compartment.
Slow release cargo fire extinguisher only lasts 60 minutes.

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19
Q

Aircraft required forms/manuals

A

1) airworthiness cert
2) registration
3) FCC license
4) EFB
5) normal checklist (2 avail, 1 req)
6) QRC (2 avail, 1 req next to PM)
7) QRH

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20
Q

EFB required documents

A

EFB STAR, POH, FOM, MEL, CDL, GNG, NEF, system resets (manual), HOT tables, RCAM/OLD tables, speed book, air carrier insurance document, international ferry auth letters (if needed)

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21
Q

Air start ITT

A

<90

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22
Q

Minimum ambient temperature approved for takeoff

A

-40*C

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23
Q

Maximum ambient temperature for TOL

A

ISA + 35*C

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24
Q

RVSM required equipment

A

1)Autopilot- must be operational
2)Altitude alerting system- must be operational
3)Altitude reporting transponder (2)- 1 must be operational
4)ADC (2)- both must be operational

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25
APU max start and operating altitude
37,000’ 41,000’
26
FLEX takeoff limitations
1. Anti skid must be operative 2. Prohibited on contaminated runways 3. Prohibited if airplane has been deiced 4. Prohibited if wing or cowl anti ice bleeds in use 5. Prohibited if windshear or downdraft warnings in forecast 6. Prohibited with engine that can’t achieve full rated thrust 7. Prohibited when a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff
27
Ground start ITT
<120*C
28
Max cruise Mach in RVSM airspace
.82 M
29
Maximum landing weight (7/9)
700- 67,000 lbs 900- 75,100 lbs
30
Maximum pressure altitude for TOL
8000 ft
31
Maximum continuous thrust & APR
12,670 APR- 13,790
32
NLG turning limit with & without torque link
80% with 8% without
33
Engine starter cranking limits Dry motoring cycle
1. 90 secs. 5 mins OFF 2&sub. 30 secs. 5 mins OFF
34
Oil pressures (5)
1) Steady state idle: 25 psi min 2) Takeoff power: 45 psi min 3) Maximum continuous: 95 psi max 4) Maximum transient: 156 psi when oil temp is <60*C 5) Maximum transient after cold start (10 minutes max): 182 psi or amber dashes
35
Cold start oil pressure must remain
At idle until oil pressure returns to normal range
36
Max time at 2 engine TOGA
5 minutes
37
When must you do a RAIM check?
If dispatched to a destination with no ground based approaches
38
EGPWS landing gear
Below 500’ Below 190 KIAS
39
When is tactile check required?
1) <10*C 2) Bulk fuel <0*C 3) Conditions favorable to frost formation 4) Ice & frost may adhere to the wings >10*C
40
PYLD
Actual pax x seasonal weight Pax x 1.5 x 34 (bag weight) + cargo
41
How much dry ice is allowed on board?
275 lbs 5.5 lbs each package Up to 50 lbs for medical shipments
42
Manual cabin pressure limits
8.6 +/-.1 -.5
43
Airspeed green line
Minimum steady flight speed
44
BARC
Takeoff fuel Burn Alternate Reserve Contingency
45
BARM
Hold fuel Burn Alternate Reserve Missed
46
Maneuvering limit load factors Flaps retracted Flaps extended
Retracted -1.0 to +2.5 G Extended 0.0 to +2.0 G
47
DC service switch connects what?
DC SERV bus to APU battery direct bus
48
AC bus 2 power priority
Gen 2, APU gen, Gen 1, external AC power
49
What happens when CPAM fails
Ground valve (OVBD cool fail) Auto oxygen mask drops at 14,000’ Seatbelt sign auto at 10,000’
50
Stall indicators
Stick shaker Stick pusher Audio warning Visual warning AP disconnect Continuous ignition Opens bleeds to prevent compression stall
51
Emergency review to FAs
Type of emergency Estimated time available Signal & evac Take special instructions
52
Explain dual vs single fire loops
Dual- both must detect fire If one fails it reverts to single 1 failed + 1 sensing fire
53
What is on the DC service bus? What is on the DC utility bus?
Navs/Lavs/Domes Reading light
54
Minimum contingency fuel (7/9)
700- 937 lbs 900- 1082 lbs Shit hits the fan fuel HFR- based on historical data
55
Trim order of importance
Manual Autopilot Auto Mach
56
What type of engine do we have?
CF34-8C5B1
57
Threat levels
Level 1- disruptive Level 2- physically abusive behavior Level 3- life threatening behavior Level 4- attempt breach of cockpit
58
Reserve fuel (7/9)
700- 2100 lbs 900- 2200 lbs
59
When are you allowed to turn on departure?
No turns until 50’ 50’-400’ turns require crew briefing before departure
60
How is the NLG down and locked? Up and locked?
D&L: mechanically & hydraulically with over center lock U&L: mechanically with up lock
61
TO config OK message requires what?
1) both engines running 2) reverses not deployed 3) autopilot not engaged 4) flaps in TO position (8/20) 5) parking brake off 6) aileron/rudder trim <1* stab trim between 3.6-11.6 7) flight spoilers not deployed
62
What does the source select panel do/control?
Regains lost display info during AHRS or ADC failure
63
Maximum runway slope approved for TOL
+/- 2.0
64
Engine starter cranking limits in flight
1. 2 mins. 10 secs OFF 2&sub. 1 min. 5 mins OFF
65
N2 RPM start limit
The starter must not be engaged if indicated N2 RPM exceeds 45% (inflight or on ground)
66
GCU monitors for what?
Generator Control Unit 1) over current 2) out of phase 3) over/under voltage 4) over/under frequency Gives “Generator Overload” message
67
Stall test required items
Hydraulics Flaps/slats up Stick pusher (both on) Pitch trim 6.0 +/- .2
68
CRJ 700 dimensions
24’10” ground to top of tail 106’8” length 76’3” width Pavement 180* turn: 75’
69
CRJ 900 dimensions
24’10” ground to top of tail 118’11” length 81’6” width Pavement 180* turn 80’
70
EICAS components
ED 1&2 (CRTs) 2 DCUs (data control units) Audio panel LDU (lamp driver unit)
71
What panel do you move the PFD to the MFD in case of failure?
Display reversionary panel
72
When the EICAS panel fails, which buttons are mechanical and still functioning?
PRI CAS STAT STEP
73
Tanker fuel
Minimum 330 lbs Taxi- 7 minutes APU- .7 (42 minutes) Also for fuel cost savings
74
IDG components
Constant speed drive Generator GCU (generator control unit)
75
What powers the “fire fighting” items after pushing the engine fire emergency button?
DC power
76
Rudder travel in degrees
33*-4* movement
77
IDG switchlight turns on for?
High oil temp Low oil pressure Over torque More??
78
Missed appch fuel (in contingency)
700- 170 lbs 900- 222 lbs
79
How to restore AC ESS BUS to AC bus 1 and the APU Gen after ADG deploys?
Stow ADG deploy handle Press PWR XFR OVERRIDE button
80
Bleed valves are ___ controlled & ___ operated. ISOLATION valve & wing A/ICE xbleed valves are ___ & ___?
Electrically; Pneumatically Electric; electric
81
CAS messages inhibited when?
TO power- 400’
82
CPAM uses which static source?
S3
83
Can the APU be started with external ground power?
No. Power has to come from the batteries. There is no DC plug
84
What are NACA vents?
Look it up :)
85
MEL categories Which can be deferred?
A- specified time B- w/in 3 days C- w/in 10 days D- w/in 120 days B&C can be deferred
86
When can’t low time FO land?
1. RVR < 4000 2. Vis < 3/4 sm 3. Windshear 4. Braking cond < good 5. Contaminated runway 6. CA says so 7. Special qual airport 8. Xwind > 15kts
87
RVSM airspace altitudes
29,000-41,000 ft
88
What happens at FL316
1/2 bank on IAS changes to Mach
89
TO config ok
1. Flaps 8 or 20 2. Autopilot off 3. Parking brake off 4. Trim in green (stab) 5. Trim in green (aileron) 6. Trim in green (rudder) 7. Spoilers stowed
90
What does CPAM mean? What does it control?
Cabin pressure acquisition module: We don’t actually have one, but it’s like it -Turns the seatbelt sign on at 8,500 feet -drops pax oxygen masks at 14,000 feet cabin pressure altitude -Controls the ground valve (if it doesn’t close, the plane won’t pressurize)
91
Steep approach considerations
PSA considers greater than 3.5* a steep approach. 3.5 or less, either pilot can be PF Greater than 3.5, Captain must be PF
92
CAMI
Confirm Activate Monitor Intervene
93
What are you required to use on a CAT I ILS approach when visibility is less than 3/4 mile or 4000 RVR?
At a minimum, a single flight director or the use of a single flight director and a couple auto pilot
94
Who is allowed to fly an ILS PRM approach?
CA only
95
When can you perform a circling maneuver?
@least 1000’ ceiling, or the published circling MDA, whichever is higher, and @least 3sm or published vis, whichever is higher
96
CAT II airplane systems and landings mins
Autopilot 100DH 1200/600/300
97
Emergency equipment
Hatch Axe Life vest Flashlight Rope Oxygen PBE Extinguisher
98
When the altimeter setting is set on the ground for TO, what is the an altimeter limitation?
The difference between the known elevation and the elevation displayed on the altimeters should not exceed 75’
99
When cleared to a different FL, the aircraft should not be allowed to over/undershoot the FL by how much?
150’
100
When will you get an IDG 1 caution? When will the IDG automatically disconnect?
HOTLOP Over temp & over torque
101
What is included in the IDG?
1. Constant speed drive-converts inconsistent engine speeds into consistent AC power 2. Generator-supplies the engine driven AC power to the ACPC system 3. Generator control unit-controls generators frequency and voltage, protects from over and differential current faults
102
ADG supplies power to which bus? Which items?
ADG BUS 3B hydraulic pump Flaps/slats (1/2 speed) Pitch trim channel 2

PSA CA Upgrade (6 decks)

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