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random maternal questions Flashcards

1
Q

how should a pt relieve swelling and discomfort from engorgement?

A

apply ice pack for 15 mins

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2
Q

what kind of bra should a pt wear to relive discomfort from engorgement

A

a well fitted supported bra

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3
Q

should a pt post partum wear a supportive bra while asleep? if yes for how long??

A

yes for at least the first 4 days

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4
Q

should a pt express breast milk 3x per day? why or why not?

A

no because expressing can stimulate more milk production.

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5
Q

should a pt experiencing engorgement run warm water over the breast? why or why not

A

no because warm water can increase milk production

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6
Q

light massaging on pt abdomen in rhythm with breathing during contractions is called

A

effleurage

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7
Q

steady pressure applied to sacral area during contractions using heel of hand, tennis ball or fist during contractions is called

A

counterpressure

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8
Q

what is counterpressure used for

A

relieving low back pain from fetus in occipitoposterior presentation

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9
Q

can a newborns face be washed using a mild soap?

A

no use plain water

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10
Q

what part of a new borns boy should be washed last? and what should you use to wash a newborns body

A

genitals last. use mild soap

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11
Q

should a newborn be bathed once a day? why or why not?

A

no because it can mess w skin integrity & protective acid mantle

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12
Q

when should a newborn be bathed

A

when they wake up and before a feeding

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13
Q

should you bathe a newborn after a feeding? why or why not?

A

no because they can regurgitate food

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14
Q

should you clean a newborns ears & nose w a cotton swab?

A

no

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15
Q

what should you clean a newborns ears with

A

corner of a washcloth

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16
Q

hyperglycemia, polyphagia, polyuria and polydipsia are signs of what pregnancy complication

A

gestational diabetes

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17
Q

headache, vision changes, epigastric/abdominal pain, facial/hand edema are signs of what pregnancy complication

A

preeclampsia

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18
Q

severe vomiting, weight loss, fluid and electrolyte imbalances and nutritional deficits are signs of what pregnancy complication?

A

hyperemesis gravidarum

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19
Q

vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, uterine contractions are signs of what pregnancy complication

A

abruptio placentae

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20
Q

what is fundal height and what is it used for

A

distance of top of uterus to pubic bone. used to see if baby small for gestational age

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21
Q

is umbilical cord stump blackening an expected finding in a newborn who was born a few days ago

A

yes it should happen by 2nd or 3rd day

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22
Q

is skin redness at base of the umbillacal stump an expected finding in a newborn who was born a few days ago

A

no its a sign of infection

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23
Q

is dried blood on skin around umbillical cord stump an expected finding in a newborn who was born a few days ago

A

yes

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24
Q

is a hardened umbillical cord stump an expected finding in a newborn who was born a few days ago

A

yes

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25
how many times should a newborn be fed in 24hrs
8-12 times
26
how many wet diapers should a newborn have after 4 days
at least 6 wet diapers
27
what does fewer than 6 wet diapers after day 4 indicate
ineffective breastfeeding
28
what 5 things do an apgar score asses
heart rate resp effort muscle tone reflex irritability color at 1 and 5 min following birth
29
heart rate score of 0 means what on apgar scoring
absent heart rate
30
heart rate score of 1 means what on apgar scoring
slow heart rate below 100 bpm
31
heart rate score of 2 means what on apgar scoring
heart rate above 100 bpm
32
resp rate score of 0 means what on apgar scoring
absent resp effort
33
resp rate score of 1 means what on apgar scoring
slow/weak resp effort
34
resp rate score of 2 means what on apgar scoring
loud cry
35
muscle tone score of 0 means what on apgar scoring
flaccid
36
muscle tone score of 1 means what on apgar scoring
some flexion of extremities
37
muscle tone score of 2 means what on apgar scoring
well flexed
38
reflex irratibility score of 0 means what on apgar scoring
no response
39
reflex irratibility score of 1 means what on apgar scoring
grimace
40
reflex irratibility score of 2 means what on apgar scoring
cry
41
color score of 0 means what on apgar scoring
pale/blue
42
color score of 1 means what on apgar scoring
pink body w blue extremities
43
color score of 2 means what on apgar scoring
completely pink
44
Prepregnancy BMI of what is considered obese
over 30
45
a obese prepregnant pt should plan to limit their weight gain to how many pounds? kg if ur feeling fancy
11-20 lbs (5-9.1 kg)
46
Prepregnancy pts are underweight if they have a BMI of?
less than 18.5
47
underweight prepregnancy pts should plan to gain how many lbs during pregnancy? kg if ur feeling fancy
28-40 lbs (12.7-18.1 kg)
48
normal prepregnant BMI
18.5-24.9
49
A nurse is caring for 4 newborns. Which of the following newborns is at the greatest risk of hypoglycemia? A. A newborn who is large for gestational age B. A newborn who has an Rh incompatibility C. A newborn who has pathologic jaundice D. A newborn who has fetal alcohol syndrome
A. A newborn who is large for gestational age
50
A nurse is checking laboratory values to determine if a client with diabetes mellitus is adhering to the treatment plan. Which of the following tests should the nurse use to make this determination? A. Glycosylated hemoglobin levels B. Urine sugar and acetone levels C. Glucose tolerance test D. Fasting serum glucose
A. Glycosylated hemoglobin levels
51
A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 35 weeks gestation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse obtain? A. Rubella titer B. Blood type C. Group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic D. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
C. Group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic
52
what should be given prophalactically for pts during labor who are group B strep positive
antibiotics
53
when should maternal blood type and Rh factor testing be done
first prenatal visit
54
when will RhoGAM be given to rh - pt
28 weeks
55
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for induction of labor and has a prescription for misoprostol. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a contraindication to administering this medication? A. Gestational diabetes B. Past cesarean delivery C. Preeclampsia D. Genital herpes
B. Past cesarean delivery
56
what is misoprostol used for
inducing labor
57
why is misoprostol contraindicated in pts w hx of c-sections or uterine surgery
increases risk of uterine tachysystole
58
what is uterine tachysystole
more than 5 contractions/10 mins in 2 consecutive intervals
59
A nurse is caring for a recently delivered newborn whose mother had gestational diabetes. What action should the nurse take within 1 hr after birth? A. Administer the hepatitis B (HBV) vaccine B. Assess the newborn's blood glucose level C. Bathe the newborn D. Perform a screening for congenital heart disease
B. Assess the newborn's blood glucose level
60
when should skin to skin contact occur
the first 1-2 hrs after birth
61
when should newborn be bathed
when temp has stabalized
62
when should congenital heart disease be screened in newborn
24-48 hrs after birth
63
what happens if congenital heart disease screening occurs prior to 12 hrs after birth
acrocyanosis (bluish discoloration)
64
what is used to screen for congenital heart disease
pulse oximeter
65
when should Hepatitis B vaccine be administered to newborn
prior to discharge
66
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is pregnant and has a low progesterone level. Which of the following complications should the nurse expect? A. Gestational diabetes B. Preterm labor C. Inadequate milk supply D. Inadequate uterine growth
B. Preterm labor
67
what does progesterone do
maintains uterus lining reduces uterine contractility
68
what happens if a preg pt has low progesterone
preterm labor
69
human placental lactogen (HPL) can cause what preg complication
gestational dm
70
lactogenesis is influcenced by what
human placental lactogen
71
what stimulates uterine growth and mammary gland development
estrogen

concept 3 (17 decks)

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