RAPID REVIEW- Classic/ Relevant treatments

Question 1

Absence seizures

Answer 1

Ethosuximide

Question 2

Acute gout attack

Answer 2

NSAIDs, colchicine

Question 3

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

Answer 3

All trans retinoic acid

Question 4

ADHD

Answer 4

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

Question 5

Alcohol use disorder

Answer 5

AA + disulfiram, naltrexone or acamprosate for patient. A1-Anon for patient’s family

Question 6

Alcohol withdrawal

Answer 6

Benzodiazepines

Question 7

Anorexi

Answer 7

nutrition, psychotherapy

Question 8

Anticoagulation during pregnancy

Answer 8

Heparin

Question 9

Arrhytmia in damaged cardiac tissue

Answer 9

Class IB antiarrhytmic (lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide)

Question 10

B12 deficiency

Answer 10

Vitamin B12 supplementation (work up caise with Schilling test)

Question 11

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Answer 11

Tamsulosin, finasteride

Question 12

Bipolar disorder

Answer 12

Lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood stabilizers)

Question 13

Breast cancer in postmenopausal woman

Answer 13

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

Question 14

Buerger disease

Answer 14

Smoking cessation

Question 15

Bulimia nervosa

Answer 15

SSRIs

Question 16

Candida albicans

Answer 16

Amphotericin B (systemic), nystatin (oral thrush), azoles (vaginitis)

Question 17

Carcionid syndrome

Answer 17

Ocreotide

Question 18

Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer 18

Doxycycline (+ ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

Question 19

Chronic gout

Answer 19

Probenecid (underexcretor), allopurinol (overproducer), febuxostat

Question 20

Chronic hepatitis

Answer 20

IFN- α

Question 21

Chronic myeolgenous leukemia

Answer 21

Imatinib

Question 22

Clostridium botulinum

Answer 22

Antitoxin

Question 23

Clostridium difficile

Answer 23

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

Question 24

Clostridium tetani

Answer 24

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

Question 25

CMV

Answer 25

Ganciclovir

Question 26

Crohn Disease

Answer 26

Corticosteroids, infliximab, methotrexate, azathioprine

Question 27

Cryptococcus neoformans

Answer 27

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS patients)

Question 28

Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

Answer 28

Mesna

Question 29

Depression

Answer 29

SSRIs (first line)

Question 30

Diabete insipidus

Answer 30

DDAVP (central); hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)

Question 31

Diabetes mellitus type 1

Answer 31

Dietary intervention (low sugar) + insulin replacement

Question 32

Diabetes mellitus type 2

Answer 32

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (if refractory)

Question 33

Diabetic ketoacidosis

Answer 33

Fluids, insulin, K+

Question 34

Enteroccoci

Answer 34

Vancomycin/ ampicillin+ aminoglycoside

Question 35

Erectile dysfunction

Answer 35

Sildenafil, vardenafil

Question 36

ER + breast cancer

Answer 36

Tamoxifen

Question 37

Ethylene glycol/ methanol intoxication

Answer 37

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

Question 38

Haemphilus influenza (B)

Answer 38

Rifampin (prophylaxis)

Question 39

Generalized anxiety disroder

Answer 39

Buspirone

Question 40

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegner)

Answer 40

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

Question 41

Heparin toxicity (acute)

Answer 41

Protamine sulfate

Question 42

HER2/neu + breast cancer

Answer 42

Trastuzumab

Question 43

Hyperaldosteronism

Answer 43

Spironolactine

Question 44

Hypercholesterolemia

Answer 44

Statin (first line)

Question 45

Hypertriglyceridemia

Answer 45

Fibrate

Question 46

Immediate anticoagulation

Answer 46

Heparin

Question 47

Infertility

Answer 47

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile), clomiphene

Question 48

Influenza

Answer 48

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

Question 49

Legionella pneumophila

Answer 49

Erythromycin

Question 50

Long term anticoagulation

Answer 50

Warfarin

Question 51

Malaria

Answer 51

Chloroquine/ mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

Question 52

Malignant hypertermia

Answer 52

Dantronele

Question 53

Medical abortion

Answer 53

Mifepristone

Question 54

Migraine

Answer 54

Sumatriptan

Question 55

Multiple Sclerosis

Answer 55

β interferon, immunosuppression, natalizumab

Question 56

MRSA

Answer 56

Vancomycin

Question 57

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer 57

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinemide, ethambutol)

Question 58

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer 58

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent Chlamydia)

Question 59

Neisseria meningitidis

Answer 59

Penicillin/ ceftriaxone, rifampin (prophylaxis)

Question 60

Neural tube defect prevention

Answer 60

Prenatal folic acid

Question 61

Osteomalacia/ rickets

Answer 61

Vitamin D supplementation

Question 62

Osteoporosis

Answer 62

Bisphosphonates; calcium and vitamin D supplementation

Question 63

Patent ductus arteriosus

Answer 63

Indomethacin

Question 64

Pheochromocytoma

Answer 64

α antagonists (eg. phenoxybenzamine)

Question 65

Pneumocystis jirovecii

Answer 65

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis in AIDS)

Question 66

Prolactinoma

Answer 66

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonists)

Question 67

Prostate cancer/ uterine fibroids

Answer 67

Leuprolide, GnRH (continous)

Question 68

Prostate carcinoma

Answer 68

Flutamide

Question 69

Pseudomona aeruinosa

Answer 69

Antipseudomonal penicillin + aminoglycoside

Question 70

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

Answer 70

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

Question 71

Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 71

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (associated with aplastic anemia)

Question 72

Ringworm infections

Answer 72

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

Question 73

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

Answer 73

5-HT 2A antagonists (eg 2nd generation antipsychotics)

Question 74

Schizophrenia (positivesymptoms)

Answer 74

D2 receptor antagonists (eg. 1st and 2nd generation antipsychotics)

Question 75

SIADH

Answer 75

Demeclocycline, lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

Question 76

Sickle cell anemia

Answer 76

Hydroxyurea (↑ fetal hemoglobin)

Question 77

Sporothrix schenckii

Answer 77

Oral potassium iodide

Question 78

Stable angina

Answer 78

Sublingual nitroglycerin

Question 79

Staphylococcus aureus

Answer 79

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin (meningitis)

Question 80

Streptococcus bovis

Answer 80

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

Question 81

Streptococcus pyogenes

Answer 81

Penicillin prophylaxis

Question 82

Temporal artheritis

Answer 82

High dose steroids

Question 83

Tonic clonic seizures

Answer 83

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

Question 84

Toxoplasma gondii

Answer 84

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

Question 85

Treponema pallidum

Answer 85

Penicillin

Question 86

Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer 86

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

Question 87

Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)

Answer 87

Carbamazepine

Question 88

Ulcerative Colitis

Answer 88

5 ASA, infliximab, colectomy

Question 89

UTI prophylaxis

Answer 89

TMP- SMX

Question 90

Warfarin toxicity

Answer 90

Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vitamin K (chronic)