Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hematology Module > Red Blood Cells > Flashcards

Red Blood Cells Flashcards

1
Q

Anemia

A

decreased RBC mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Symptoms of anemia

A

fatigue, dizzy, poor concentration, pallor, SOB, dyspnea, tachycardia, palpitations, weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Symptoms of iron overload

A

vertigo, bronze skin, arthritis, hair loss, memory loss, high liver enzymes, heart degeneration, diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Retic index <2

A

decreased production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Retic index >2

A

increased destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MCV in microcytic anemia

A

< 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Microcytic anemia differential

A 
"TICS"
Thalassemia
Iron deficiency
Chronic disease
Sideoblastic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anemia of chronic disease causes

A

autoimmune SLE, chronic infection, immunodeficient

chronic inflammatory illness: inflam interferes with iron uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Normocytic MCV range

A

80-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Macrocytic MCV

A

> 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Iron deficiency smear

A

hypochromic, pencil cells, micro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Causes of iron deficiency

A
  1. GI bleed
  2. heavy menses
  3. GI malignancy
  4. Malabsorption (celiac)
  5. dietary intake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Thalassemia demographic

A

mediterranean, african

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Thalassemia smear

A

target RBCs, micro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Beta thal minor

A

1 gene, minor anemia, no treatment needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Beta thal intermedia/major

A

both genes
severe microcytic anemia with low HCT
bone marrow expansion, need tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

thalassemia treatment

A

transfusions with deferoxamine to chelate iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

thalassemia diagnosis

A

hemoglobin electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Alpha thal

A

one- fine
two- still fine
three- Hg H disease, need transfusions
four- fatal in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

sideroblastic anemia cause

A

cant incorporate Fe into Heme

  1. nutritional deficiency (Copper, Zinc, B6)
  2. chronic alchoholism
  3. lead poisoning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sideroblastic anemia smear/BM shows

A

sideroblasts on BM, basophilic stipplings, pappenheimer bodies on smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sideroblastic anemia treatment

A

chelation therapy for lead
nutrition replacement
detox alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sickle cell genetics

A

autosomal recessive beta globin single base pair mutation
Glu–> Val
SC is Glu–> Lys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sickle Cell manifestations

A 
ichemia reperfusion
free Hg release
vascular injury
thrombosis
susceptibility to infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sickle cell- just the trait

A

chronic pain
CV collapse under stress
spleen infarction
renal papillary necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sickle cell treatment

A
  1. hyroxyurea- fetal Hg, reduced pain, inc survival
  2. Transfusions- simple or exchange
  3. BM/SC transplant-curative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Indications for transfusion in sickle cell

A

stroke, acute chest syndrome, splenic sequestration, hepatic issue, symptomatic anemia
watch: iron overload, infection, alloimmunization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sickle Cell: infection

A

more susceptible to capsules
pneumo, staph, h flu, menigococus, salmonella
osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Acute chest syndrome

A

sickle cell

pneumonia, lung sickling (sm ves occlusion), thromboembolism (lg ves occlusion), chest wall sickling, bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Sickle cell: stroke

A

continuously @ risk
screen cranial flow
look for moya moya
exchange transfusions and revascularization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Aplastic Crisis

A

sickle cell
caused by parovirus B19–> anemia, low retics, not making anything
transfuse ASAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sickle cell diagnosis

A

Hg electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Compensated Hemolytic Anemia vs non-compensated

A

Hemolysis with adequate increase in RBC production (reticulocytes) vs. without

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hemoglobinuria vs hematuria

A

Hg molecules in urine vs. bloody urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Intravascular hemolysis

A

Red cell destruction with arteries , veins, or capillaries
SEVERE: pain, fever, jaundice, renal damage
IgM mediated
Sometimes mechanical force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Extravascular hemolysis

A

Red cells consumed by macrophages after being sequestered in spleen
MILD: slow decrease in Hg, low grade fever, slow developing jaundice
IgG mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What lab indications are seen in intravascular hemolysis?

A

Free Hg detectable in serum and urine (hemoglobinemia or Uria)
Increased LDH
Increased total bilirubin
Decreased haptoglobin

38
Q

Haptoglobin

A

Binds free Hg

39
Q

What are lab indications for extravascular hemolysis?

A

No free Hg in serum or urine
Mildly increased LDH
Slight increase in bilirubin
Haptoglobin unchanged

40
Q

Congenital hemolytic anemia: Hemoglobin

A

Thalassemia and sickle and Hg C disease

41
Q

Congenital hemolytic anemia: membrane defect

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

Hereditary elliptocytosis

42
Q

Congenital hemolytic anemia: Metabolism defect

A

G-6-PD

Pyruvate Kinase

43
Q

What is an autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

Immune system attacks it own red cells as foreign and forms autoantibody- marked for destruction in the spleen

44
Q

Warm vs cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Warm: high temp, extravascular hemolysis, IgG, CLL NHL SLE

Cold: cold temp, intravascular hemolysis, IgM, mycoplasma and mononucleosis, more SEVERE

45
Q

What does Coombs test measure?

A

Person’s RBC agglutinate to anti human Ab

46
Q

What is an alloimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

Antibody based immune attack against foreign RBC antigens

  • Hemolytic transfusion reactions-ABO non-ABO
  • Hemolytic disease of the newborn- Rh neg mom
47
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Mom is Rh neg and attacks Rh positive baby in her second pregnancy once she has developed anti + antibodies- cross placenta and destroys fetal RBCs

48
Q

Hydrophobic fetalis presentation and consequences

A

Massive anemia of fetus
Congestive heart failure
Oran hypoperfusion
Organ damage and death

49
Q

What causes microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?

A

Fibrin strands
(In small vessels with fibrin strand clots, intracellular RBCs get sheared going through them)
Seen in DIC TTP HUS

50
Q

What are common culprits in infectious anemia?

A

Malaria and babesia
RBC are loses trying to clear infected RBCs
Resolves with abx

51
Q

What protects you from congenital anemias in the first 8 months of life, and is the reason they often go undetected early on?

A

Fetal Hg

52
Q

How do sickle cells sickle?

A

Hg SS polymerizes into a long tube AFTER it goes into circulation and is deoxygenated- locked in

53
Q

Clinical presentation of vaso-occlusive crisis

A

-sudden onset of severe bone pain
- infection or high temperature
-abdominal pain
-priapism
Lasting hours to days

54
Q

Acute chest syndrome can escalate to

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome- form of damage to alveoli in lungs that prevents oxygen transport to blood

55
Q

What is meant by the term “functional asplenia”?

A

Spleen goes infarct
Increased risk for infections with encapsulated
Need penicillin prophylaxis
See Howell-jolly bodies on smear

56
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis: Disorder of RBC _________ results in ______ RBCs. This causes them to be _______, hence causing

A

Structural proteins
Spherical
Taken up by the spleen
Chronic anemia and splenomegaly

57
Q

Spherocytes on smear differential

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Difference: spherocytosis is inherited, autoimmune is acquired
Also look for Ab

58
Q

What causes G6PD deficiency and why?

A

Fava beans and sulfa drugs
Without the enzyme you accumulate oxygen radicals that cause a severe hemolytic anemia
-This is X linked, so men only

59
Q

What is sneaky about anemia caused by blood loss trauma?

A

When you do labs, HCT and Hg may show up normal since they represent values based on total blood volume. Show up as normocytic

60
Q

Why does renal failure anemia occur?

A

EPO production is decreased, causing normocytic anemia over time. EPO injection helps HCT/Hg

61
Q

Two causes of macrocytic anemia

A

B12 and folate deficiency

62
Q

B12 deficiency hallmarks

A

Macrocytic anemia
Levels <200
PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY

63
Q

Top 4 causes of B12 deficiency

A
  1. Liver disease (alcoholism)
  2. Diet (vegan)
  3. Pernicious anemia (autoimmune impairment of gut absorption)
  4. GI surgery- malabsorption
64
Q

What symptoms is missing in folate deficiency?

A

Neuropathy

65
Q

Top 3 causes of folate deficiency

A
  1. Liver disease
  2. Diet
  3. Pregnancy (higher consumption)
66
Q

This strange increase can be seen in iron deficiency anemia because they have the same precursor- might be making these instead of RBCs

A

Platelets

67
Q

In anemia of chronic disease, inflammation can also interfere with what?

A

Uptake of iron via hepcidin

68
Q

3 effects of EPO

A
  1. Inc rate of RBC precursor division
  2. Inc rate of Fe incorporation
  3. Inc rate of reticulocytes entry into blood
69
Q

What are you lacking in aplastic anemia?

A

Low number of erythroid precursors- pancytopenia with teardrop RBCs

70
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

Autoimmune disorder when Abs are produced against parietal cells of the stomach so intrinsic factor cant be produced.

71
Q

Shilling test

A

For B12 deficiency anemia- looks at radiolabeled cobalmin in urine

72
Q

Iron is absorbed in the ________ while it is ultimately stored in ______ and _______.

A

Duodenum

Bone marrow, ferritin

73
Q

Clinical definition of iron deficiency anemia (values)

A

Ferritin <10 (normal 20-250 in men and 10-200 in women)

OR absent BM stores

74
Q

In anemia of chronic disease, _________ is high while _______ is low.

A

Ferritin

TIBC

75
Q

In ACD, why is TIBC low and ferritin high?

A

YOu have the transferrin bound by iron already but cant deliver it to the RBCs

76
Q

What does LDH tell us?

A

It is energy metabolism enzyme of the RBC so it is elevated in hemolytic anemia states

77
Q

Why is cold AIHA more severe?

A

IgM and complement mediated

78
Q

Basophilic stipplings are seen in

A

BASte the ox TAIL

Thalassemias,
Anemia of chronic disease,
Iron deficiency,
Lead poisoning

79
Q

Target cells are seen in

A

HALT

HgC disease
Asplenia
Liver disease
Thalassemia

80
Q

Lab levels in anemia of chronic disease

A

Low iron, low TIBC, high ferritin

81
Q

What is aplastic anemia

A

Destruction of myeloid stem cells- low number of precursors

82
Q

What causes aplastic anemia?

A
  1. Radiation and drugs
  2. Viral agents (parvovirus, EBV, HIV, HCV)
  3. Franconi’s anemia (DNA repair)
  4. Idiopathic, immune mediated
83
Q

G6PD deficiency smear

A

Heinz bodies and bite cells

84
Q

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

A

Autosomal recessive
Defect causes less ATP and rigid RBCS

Hemolytic anemia in a newborn

85
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

Complement mediated RBC lysis, urine hemosiderin and thrombosis

86
Q

Microangiopathic anemia

A

RBC are damaged when passing through obstructed/ narrow vessel

DIC
TTP
HUS
SLE

Schistocytes

87
Q

Macroangiopathic anemia

A

Prosthetic heart valves and aortic stenosis cause d/t mechanical destruction

Schistocytes

88
Q

Factor deficiencies and lab values seen in hemophilia A and B

A

Prolonged PTT due to factor 8, 9 deficiency, respectively

89
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Low platelets
Deficient ADAMTS 13 leads to less degradation of vWF

Presents: large vWF multimers, inc platelet aggregation and thrombosis

90
Q

DIC pneumonic

A

STOP Making New Thrombi

Sepsis
Trauma
Obstetric complication
Pancreatitis
Malignancy
Nephrotic syndrome
Transfusion
91
Q

DIC in simple terms

A

Widespread activation of clotting leads to a deficiency in clotting factors which creates a bleeding state

Hematology Module (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions