RELEARN Flashcards
1
Q
Acute Hep B infection shows what on blood film?
A
Hbsag +ve, Anti-Hbs -ve, Anti-HBc Immunoglobulin +ve
2
Q
what treatment do you give baby if mum has an acute hep B infection?
A
Hep B vaccine and Hep B immunoglobulins
3
Q
what is the most common cause of type 2 nec fascitis?
A
group a strep
4
Q
nec fasciitis symptoms
A
red swollen tender leg, systemic unwellness
5
Q
most common way to diagnose CJD?
A
tissue biopsy
6
Q
What Hb is the time for patients with CKD?
A
> 100
7
Q
if it is just Hb that is low in someone with CKD what do you give?
A
erythropoietin
8
Q
progressive prolonged PR interval with stable haemodynamics is most likely what?
A
wenchebach mobitz type 1
9
Q
when are reuloux formation seen?
A
myeloma
10
Q
when is smudge cells seen?
A
CLL
11
Q
when is auer rods seen/
A
AML - APML (ACUTE PROMEYLOTIC Leukaemia) can be consistent withAML findings also
12
Q
mature myeloid cells are seen in what?
A
CML
13
Q
when is active phase labour?
A
4 cm dilation
14
Q
what is second stage labour?
A
10cm dilation to delivery
15
Q
latent phase is what?
A
0-4 cm dilation
16
Q
third stage?
A
baby delivery ends, placenta delivered
17
Q
fourth stage?
A
recovery
18
Q
what is kaposis sarcoma known as what and what tumour marker indicates it?
A
herpese human virus 8 and LANA1
19
Q
what is kaposis?
A
vascular tumour, purple lesion on leg that goes dark/black
20
Q
with meningitis iv over50 you give amoxicillin but is it iV or oral?
A
IV
21
Q
what is the most common form of thyroid cancer?
A
papillary
22
Q
axilla lump what is the most common cause?
A
breast cancer even if exam shows otherwise
23
Q
first line investigation for angina??
A
CT angio
24
Q
periods of bradycardia and tachycardia indicate what
A
sick sinus syndrome
25
colovesical fistual symptoms and investigation?
fecourine and gas in urine accompanied by lower left iliac fossa pain + Cystoscopy
26
what can cause epiglottis in children related to vaccines?
HiB
27
what is used as treatment for epiglottis caused by HiB
IV cef
28
what biomarker can help detect bacterial sepsis?
procalcitonin
29
what is a significant finding if suspected COPD?
Diffusing cap citing of the lungs carbon monoxide (DLCO)
30
what is usually the culprit for LUTS post prostatectomy?
urethral stricture
31
what are the symptoms of parvovirus?
slapped cheek appearance and mild feverish illness that is set limiting
32
what is increased at birth f you have cystic fibrosis?
immunoreactive trypsinogen
33
what treatment do you give empirically for acute osteomyelitis?
IV Flucloxacillin
34
urinary incontinence, dementia and gait abnormality is a sign of what?
normal pressure hydrocephalus
35
how to treat normal pressure hydrocephalus?
CSF tap
36
lucid interval following trauma may be a sign of what?
impending extradural haemorrhage
37
one third from the anterior iliac spine and umbilicus on the right is known as what?
mcburney points
38
salmonella significant symptom?
rose coloured maule rash on torso that appears 5-10 days later
39
what is a marker in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
elevated CK
40
what can cause haemoptysis in people with history fo a TB infection?
aspergillomas
41
acute testicular pain indicates what next step in management?
surgicalexploratin
42
hereditary haemachromatosis is what genetic pattern?
autosomal recessive
43
what drug os first choice for pain in stage 4/5 CKD?
alfentanil
44
what bacteria causes profuse vomiting and non-bloody diarrhoea post diary ingestion?
staph auerues
45
what is hirschsprungs disease?
lack of ganglions in the lower bowel, causes constipation abdominal bloating liquid diarrhoea on rectal exam - links with downs syndrome
46
optic neuritis key symptoms?
red desaturation, painful acute vision loss (often associated with autoimmune disorders and MS)
47
investigation and management for MS?
vision field tests + MRI IV methylpred
48
Relative afferent pupillary defect is seen in what people/
optic neuritis, MS
49
what test is used to diagnose mumps?
salivary IgM
50
starry sky appearance is indicative of what disease?
EBV (translocation 8 and 14)
51
what is felts syndrome?
triad of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia
52
skin darkening, hormonal imbalance, tiredness, hilarious and perihilar imbalance are indicative of what?
small cell long cancer (acth secreating)
53
acute mania in bipolar is managed with what?
risperidone
54
signs of nephritic syndrome?
haematuria, HTN and oedema
55
what is tested for in post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis?
urine dip, MSU, ACRU&E, ASOT (antistreptolysine titre) and complement .... renal biopsy can be definitive (10 days pen V should be given orally first line)
56
acute urgent surgery, how to manage INR and warfarin?
warfarin stopped, IV vit K given and INR reassessed till below 1.5
57
what palliative rug can cause dry mouth?
hyoscine hydrobromide
58
valvular conniventes are what?
ladder/stacked coin look of the bowels indicative of small bowel obstrutcion
59
tibial fracture i most commonly associated with what?
lateral meniscal tear
60
sign of NOF
shortened and externally rotated
61
immobile older patient with intracapsular fracture - what do you do/
hemiarthroplasty
62
younger pt or mobile pt with intracapsular fracture - what do you do?
total hip replacement
63
trochanter fracture is fixed by?
dynamic hip screw
64
subtronchanteric fracture is fixed by?
intramedullary nail
65
bile duct injury presents like what?
fever, peritonitis symptoms and more acutely (days rather than weeks to month)
66
post-cholecystectomy syndrome presents like what?
weeks after surgery, ALP raised and GGT raised and absence of fever and high WCC
67
pulmonary fibrosis has what type of FEVC pattern?
restrictive >70%, reduced FVC and increased TLCO
68
what is an essential investigation for ruling out different pathologies for a PE
CXR
69
JAK V617F mutation is often seen in what?
myelofibrosis
70
tear drop poikilocytes are also seen in what?
myelofibrosis
71
which antipsychotic can cause myocarditis (sweating dizziness and chest pain)?
clozapine
72
AAA of 5.5 and clinically stable - what is the next step?
seen by vascular surgeon in 2 weeks
73
pain on passive dorsiflexion is indicative of what?
acute compartment syndrome
74
what does alendrotnic acid do?
reduce the rate of bone turnover and strengthens bone
75
most common cause of septic arthritis
staph aureus
76
reduced uptake of iodine is suggestive of what thyroid issue?
de quervains thyroditiis
77
when looking at ABG what do we need to interpret first?
anion gap
78
anion gap calculation?
sodium + potassium - bicarb + chloride
79
80
Calcium Gluconate is used to treat what?
Hypocalcaemia
81
Carpopedal spasm and long QT is a sign of what?
Acute pancreatitis
82
Digoxin toxicity is treated with what?
Digoxin specific antibody
83
What is osmotic diuresis??
More proteins and solutes in the renal tubules causing water being kept in the tubules also, leading to hypovolemia in the body and hypernatraemia (secondary to HHS and DKA)
84
Tinnitus can be caused by what medicine?
Loop Diuretics
85
86
What is the initial treatment for sarcoidosis?
Prednsiolone
87
What should be prescribed alongside rifampacin, isoniazid, pyridoxine, ethambutol?
Vitamin B6
88
What is the most common cause of cushings?
Exogenous corticosteroids
89
Large bowel Perf vs peptic ulcer Perf?
Perforated peptic ulcer has less systemic symptoms and shows as air under diaphragm whereas large bowel Perf is more generalised Perf and systemic unwellness
90
91
What does a raised SAAG suggest?
Budd-chiari and portal hypertension
92
What does a reduced SAAG suggest?
Peritoneal cancers
93
What is a WEBER TYPE B fracture?
Ankle fracture at the level of the syndesmosis which can be associated with interosseous ligament damage
94
What is type A and type C webers?
A= below
C = above syndesmosis
95
What antiemetic shouldn’t be used in those at risk of urinary problems?
Cyclizine
96
Second metatarsal base stress fracture is associated with what?
Ballerinas/repetitive movement and especially those with menstrual irregularities
97
What drug can cause both hypo and hyperthyroidism ?
Amiodarone
98
What are signs of cor pulmonale?
Raised JVP, white sputum, hepatomegaly, pitting oedema, cough and background of COPD
99
What investigation helps determine haemophilia A?
Factor VIII assay
100
What autoantibody causes acquired haemophilia
Factor VIII autoantibody
101
What is gold standard for confirming intubation?
End tidal CO2
102
What if there is no CO2 present
Oesophageal intubation
103
GAD vs adjustment disorder?
Adjustment is less severe version
104
What treatment is typically used for wet ARMD
VEGF
105
What treatment is typically used for dry ARMD
Zinc and antioxidant supplements
106
What is congenital rubella syndrome?
Cataracts, brain damage and deafness
107
Tumour lysis syndrome is what?
Raised potassium phosphate and hypocalcaemia
108
What is TLS first line tx
Rasburicase
109
