Renal + Urogenital Flashcards

(159 cards)

1
Q

What is the function of the urinary tract?

A
  • to collect continuously produced urine
  • to store it under safe conditions
  • to expel urine when socially acceptable
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2
Q

What are the key features in the filling of a normally functioning bladder?

A
  • continence
  • sensation of bladder volume
  • receptive relaxation: relaxes to allow larger volume without increased pressure
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3
Q

What are the key features in the voiding of a normally functioning bladder?

A
  • voluntary initiation
  • complete emptying
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4
Q

What incontinence problems can occur in neuropathic bladder management?

A
  • incontinence: neurogenic detrusor overactivity ( sphincter contracts by itself
  • stress incontinence: when pressure inc in abdomen e.g. coughing, urine leaks out - normally prevented by guarding reflex
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5
Q

What upper tract injury problems can occur in neuropathic bladder management?

A
  • infection
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6
Q

What are the 5 main functions of the kidney?

A
  • fluid balance and BP control
  • waste, toxin and drug removal
  • red cell production (generates erythropoietin)
  • vit D metabolism
  • acid-base regulation
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7
Q

Why are most people with advanced CKD anaemic?

A
  • not enough EPO to stimulate bone marrow to produce RBC
  • leads to normocytic anaemia
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8
Q

What is acute kidney injury?

A
  • acute drop in kidney function over hours or days
  • diagnosed by measuring serum creatinine
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9
Q

What are the NICE criteria for AKI?

A
  • rise in creatinine of ≥25µmol/L in 48h
  • rise in creatinine of ≥50% in 7 days
  • urine output of < 0.5ml/kg/hr for > 6hrs
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10
Q

What are risk factors for AKI?

A
  • CKD
  • heart failure
  • diabetes
  • liver disease
  • older age
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11
Q

What are pre-renal causes of renal failure?

A
  • due to inadequate blood supply to the kidneys, reducing filtration of blood
  • hypovolaemia
  • reduced CO
  • drugs that reduce BP
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12
Q

What are causes of renal failure?

A
  • intrinsic disease leads to reduced filtration of blood
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • Interstitial nephritis
  • Acute tubular necrosis
  • rhabdomyolysis: CK in skeletal muscle is nephrotoxic
  • nephrotoxic drugs and antibiotics
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13
Q

What are post-renal causes of AKI?

A
  • caused by obstruction to the outflow of urine causing back pressure and reduced kidney function
  • renal stones
  • cancer
  • enlarged prostate
  • blocked catheter
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14
Q

What are symptoms of AKI?

A
  • nausea
  • dehydration and less urination
  • diarrhoea
  • confusion and drowsiness
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15
Q

How is AKI investigated?

A
  • urinalysis
  • leucocytes and nitrites: infection
  • protein and blood: acute nephritis
  • glucose: diabetes
  • ultrasound for obstruction
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16
Q

How is AKI managed?

A
  • fluid rehydration if pre-renal
  • stop nephrotoxic medication
  • relieve obstruction if post renal
  • dialysis if serious
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17
Q

How is CKD investigated?

A
  • eGFR calculated using U&E
  • proteinuria using albumin:creatinine ratio (≥3mg/mmol)
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18
Q

Which LUTS fall into storage?

A
  • frequency
  • urgency
  • nocturia
  • incontinence
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19
Q

Which LUTS fall into voiding?

A
  • poor flow
  • intermittency
  • straining
  • terminal dribbling
  • hesitancy
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20
Q

Which LUTS fall into post micturition?

A
  • sensation of incomplete voiding
  • post-micturition dribbling
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21
Q

What can cause difficulty voiding?

A
  • benign prostatic hyperplasia
  • urethral stricture
  • masses
  • prolapse
  • non-obstructive: atonic bladder: insufficient detrusor contraction
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22
Q

What is stress incontinence?

A
  • weakness of the pelvic floor and sphincter muscles
  • leads to urine leakage when there is inc pressure on the bladder
  • occurs when laughing, coughing, sneezing
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23
Q

What is urge incontinence?

A
  • overactivity of detrusor leads to sudden urge to pass urine
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24
Q

What is overflow incontinence?

A
  • occurs in chronic urinary retention
  • due to obstruction of outflow of urine
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25
What are the risk factors for renal cell carcinoma?
- smoking - obesity - genetic - more common in males - hypertension - dialysis
26
How does renal cell carcinoma present?
- triad: haematuria, loin pain, palpable mass - mostly found incidentally on scan
27
How is renal cancer staged?
- Stage 1: tumour diameter < 7cm - Stage 2: diameter > 7cm - Stage 3: local size, spread to nearby tissues and veins - Stage 4: metastasis occurred
28
How is renal cancer investigated?
- CT TAP used for staging - MRI if needed - biopsy
29
How is renal cancer managed?
- active surveillance if slow growing and treatment would be detrimental - radiofrequency ablation, cryotherapy, arterial embolisation - partial or radical nephrectomy
30
What are the types of renal cell carcinoma?
- clear cell carcinoma - papillary carcinoma - chromophobe - collecting duct
31
What paraneoplastic features are associated with renal cell carcinoma?
- polycythaemia: unregulated EPO - hypercalcaemia: PTH mimic - hypertension: inc renin secretion and physical compression - Staffer's syndrome: abnormal LFTs without liver metastasis
32
What are common complications of renal cell carcinoma?
- spread to renal vein, IVC - cannonball metastases appear as defined circular opacities scattered through lung fields on CXR
33
What are the risk factors for bladder cancer?
- smoking - exposure to aromatic hydrocarbons, dyes, rubber, - industrial exposures: hairdressers, leather and chemical workers - drugs e.g. cyclophosphamide
34
How does bladder cancer present?
- painless, visible haematuria - LUTS without cause - recurrent UTIs
35
Where does bladder cancer occur and what are the types?
- transitional cell carcinoma = 90%: affects urothelium - squamous cell carcinoma: dysplasia from irritation e.g. stones, schistosomiasis
36
How is bladder cancer investigated?
- flexible cystoscopy: direct visualisation which is very quick - ultrasound
37
What are the surgical management options for bladder cancer?
- transurethral resection (TURBT) is used for non muscle invasive bladder cancer - tumour removal during cystoscopy - radical cystectomy: removal of entire bladder
38
How is bladder cancer staged?
- non-muscle invasive bladder cancer vs muscle invasive bladder cancer - T1: sub epithelial only: low risk - T2: muscle invasive - T3a/b through the muscle / invading perivesical fat - T4a/b invading prostate / pelvic side wall
39
What are the non surgical management options for bladder cancer?
- intravesical chemotherapy: given through catheter to reduce recurrence risk - intravesical BCG: BCG vaccine used as immunotherapy
40
What is the most common way to divert urine following cystectomy?
- draining urine from the kidney, bypassing the ureters, bladder and urethra - creating ileal conduit - urine drains from kidneys > ureters > separated ileum > urostomy bag
41
What are the types of testicular cancer?
- germ cell: seminoma or non seminoma - Non seminoma: teratoma, yolk sac tumour, choriocarcinoma - Leydig, and Sertoli cell are rare
42
How does testicular cancer present?
- painless testicular lump: non-tender, hard, irregular
43
What are risk factors for testicular cancer?
- cryptorchidism - family history - HIV - previous testicular cancer
44
How is testicular cancer investigated?
- scrotal ultrasound - tumour markers: α fetoprotein, β hCG, LDH
45
What is the epidemiology of testicular cancer?
- caucasian males - aged 15-35
46
How is testicular cancer staged?
- X-ray - 1: isolated to testicle - 2: spread to retroperitoneal lymph nodes - 3: spread to lymph nodes above diaphragm - 4: metastasised to other organs
47
How is testicular cancer managed?
- radical inguinal orchidectomy - platinum based chemotherapy - sperm banking due to possible infertility
48
What are key risk factors for prostate cancer?
- increasing age - family history - Black African/Caribbean origin
49
How does prostate cancer present?
- LUTS (similar to benign prostatic hyperplasia) - haematuria - erectile dysfunction - symptoms of metastasis
50
How is prostate cancer diagnosed?
- PSA - DRE - MRI - transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy - histopathology: Gleason grading
51
What type of cancer is prostate typically?
- adenocarcinoma - typically occurs in peripheral zone of prostate - multifocal, occurs with a dominant nodule - metastasises to lymph nodes, bone, brain, lungs - firm, hard, irregular and loss of central sulcus in DRE
52
What is the Gleason scoring system?
- tissue grading for prostate cancer - looks to see how close the tissue is to normality - grade: how the cancer is likely to behave
53
What is the staging for prostate cancer?
- T1: no palpable tumour on DRE, present on biopsy - T2: visible nodule, palpable on DRE but confined to prostate - T3: palpable tumour extending beyond capsule - T4: invading local structures: sphincter, rectum
54
How is prostate cancer managed?
- surveillance: if early - external beam radiotherapy: can lead to proctitis - brachytherapy or hormone therapy - radical prostatectomy
55
What is glomerulonephritis?
- broad term referring to a group of conditions concerning inflammation and damage to the glomeruli and nephrons
56
What is IgA nephropathy?
- most common cause of primary glomerulonephritis - abnormality in IgA glycosylation leads to deposition in the mesangium - leads to haematuria and proteinuria
57
How does IgA nephropathy present and how is it diagnosed?
- episodic macroscopic haematuria - stimulated by illness e.g. sore throat - nephrotic syndrome rare - biopsy
58
How is IgA nephropathy treated?
- controlling BP: ACE-i, ARBs - steroids and immunosuppression
59
What are the types of erectile dysfunction?
- neurogenic: failure to initiate - arteriogenic (most common): failure to fill - venogenic: failure to store
60
What is the epidemiology of erectile dysfunction?
- affects 10% of men aged 40-70 - increasing prevalence with age
61
What is a UTI?
- combination of clinical features and the presence of bacteria in the urine
62
How can UTIs be classified?
- asymptomatic bacteriuria - uncomplicated - complicated
63
What is pyuria?
- presence of leucocytes in the urine - associated with infection - can have sterile pyuria: finding white cells but not detecting any bacteria e.g. if non-infective cause
64
What are some examples of complicated UTIs?
- pregnant women - men and children - catheterised - immunocompromised or persistent infection
65
Which bacteria commonly cause UTIs?
- E. coli >50% - Proteus (if repeated suggests renal stones) - Klebsiella (tend to be catheter associated) - Enterococci - Staph. saprophytic (young women) - S. aureus - Pseudomonas aeruginosa
66
What is the capacity of the bladder?
- 500ml in women - 700ml in men
67
What is the aetiology of UTIs?
- catheterisation: cystitis > UTI - short female urethra - stones reduce flow and capacity
68
Why does reduced flow cause UTI and what are some causes?
- reduced flow and capacity leads to inflammation and inc frequency - means bacteria isn't washed away - renal, ureteric and bladder stones - obstruction from prostatic hypertrophy - low urine vol
69
What are symptoms of lower UTIs?
- painful urination (dysuria: stinging, burning) - haematuria - cloudy/foul smelling urine - frequency + urgency - more localised
70
What are symptoms of upper UTIs?
- haematuria - fever - more systemically unwell
71
How are UTIs diagnosed?
- urine sample > dipstick - microscopy > cultures - sensitivities to find treatment
72
What factors are considered in urinalysis?
- bloods - protein - pH - glucose and ketones - leucocytes and nitrates
73
What are the types of urine sampling?
- MSU: midstream urine - CSU: catheter stream - clean catch/bag: children - SPA aspirate: suprapubic
74
What is early morning urine used for?
- looks for TB - 3x samples - large volume of urine due to no urination overnight - higher no. of bacilli on first void of day
75
How are uncomplicated UTIs treated?
- most can be treated empirically with 1st line antibiotics > 3 day course - inc fluid intake > inc frequency - voiding pre and post intercourse - keeping good hygiene
76
What antibiotics are used to treat UTIs?
- avoid broad spectrum - nitrofurantoin (contraindicated in 3rd trimester pregnancy & low creatinine clearance)/trimethoprim - 3 days if uncomplicated, 7 if male, pregnant, catheter
77
What is pyelonephritis?
- bacterial infection causing inflammation of kidney - affects renal parenchyma and soft tissues of renal pelvis + upper ureter
78
What are the causes/risk factors for pyelonephritis?
- young women who are fluid depleted - structural urological abnormalities - vesico-ureteric reflux - diabetes
79
What are the classic triad of symptoms of pyelonephritis?
- loin pain - fever - nausea/vomiting
80
What are other signs of pyelonephritis?
- upper UTIs present with systemic illness - loss of appetite - haematuria
81
What are the possible causes of pyelonephritis?
- ascending: urethra colonised with bacteria - haematogenous: S. aureus or Candida - lymphatic spread is rare
82
How is pyelonephritis investigated?
- abdo exam: loin and renal angle tenderness - bloods inc cultures - Ultrasound - Mid stream urine - urine dipstick: nitrites, leukocytes, blood
83
How is pyelonephritis treated?
- fluid replacement - IV antibiotics: broad spectrum e.g. co-amoxiclav ± Gentamicin: 1-2 weeks - drain the obstructed kidney - catheter and analgesia
84
Where do stones occur in the urinary tract?
- anywhere from collecting duct to external urethral meatus - renal and ureteric stones in upper urinary tract - bladder, prostatic and urethral stones in lower
85
What are the causes of urinary tract stones?
- congenital: due to stasis of urine - acquired: obstruction, trauma and reflux - urinary: calcium, oxalate, urate, cystine - dehydration - infection
86
What are urinary tract stones made of?
- crystals of normal urinary constituents - Most are calcium based with oxalate and phosphate - some from uric acid
87
How can stones be prevented?
- over hydration (based on urine output) - low salt diet - healthy protein and normal dairy intake - reduce BMI and keep an active lifestyle
88
What are the symptoms of urinary tract stones?
- loin pain (radiating to groin)/flank pain - reduced urine output - renal colic - UTI symptoms: dysuria, urgency, frequency - recurrent UTIs - haematuria
89
What is testicular torsion?
- twisting of the spermatic cord and rotation of the testicle which cuts off the blood supply - can lead to ischaemia, necrosis and infertility
90
What is the epidemiology and aetiology of testicular torsion?
- typically occurs in teenage boys - triggered by activity e.g. sport - Bell-clapper deformity: absence of fixation between testicle and tunica vaginalis
91
What is the presentation of testicular torsion?
- acute, rapid onset of unilateral testicular pain - abdo pain and vomiting - firm, swollen testicle - testicle lying high and horizontal - absent cremasteric reflex
92
How is testicular torsion investigated?
- doppler ultrasound to rule out epididymitis (but can delay surgery) - absent cremasteric reflex - surgical exploration mandatory as urological emergency
93
How is testicular torsion managed?
- surgery - surgical exploration of scrotum - orchiopexy (correction of position) - orchidectomy (removal) if necrosis
94
What is benign prostatic hyperplasia?
- hyperplasia of the stromal and epithelial cells of the prostate
95
How is BPH investigated?
- international prostate symptom score (IPSS) - DRE - PSA - urine dipstick and bladder diary
96
What can cause a raised PSA?
- prostate cancer - BPH - prostatitis - UTI - vigorous exercise - recent ejaculation or prostate stimulation
97
How is BPH treated?
- α blockers e.g. tamsulosin relaxes smooth muscle - 5-α reductase inhibitors reduce size of prostate: convert testosterone to DHT e.g. finasteride
98
What is felt in a prostate exam that differentiates BPH and cancer?
- BPH: smooth, symmetrical, slightly soft with central sulcus - cancer: hard, asymmetrical, irregular, loss of central sulcus
99
What is an epididymal cyst?
- occur at head of epididymis (top of testicle) - fluid filled sac - soft, round lump - separate from testicle - harmless
100
What is a hydrocele?
- collection of fluid in tunica vaginalis - can be idiopathic - cause: cancer, torsion, epididymo-orchitis, trauma
101
How does a hydrocele present?
- testicle palpable within hydrocele - painless and soft scrotal swelling - irreducible and no bowel sounds - transilluminated by torch
102
What is a varicocele?
- veins in pampiniform plexus become swollen - veins drain into testicular vein and regulate temp in testes - caused by inc resistance in testicular vein/incompetent valves - 90% occur in LHS
103
How does a varicocele present?
- throbbing pain, dragging sensation - more prominent on standing and disappears when lying down - scrotal mass that feels like bag of worms
104
How are varicoceles investigated?
- US with doppler imaging - semen analysis - hormonal tests
105
What complications can arise from varicoceles?
- testicular atrophy - reduction in size and function of testicle - infertility/impaired fertility due to temperature disruption
106
What diseases are included in an STI screen?
- chlamydia - gonorrhoea - syphilis - HIV
107
What is the national chlamydia screening programme?
- screens every sexually active person under 25 for chlamydia annually or when they change sexual partner - positive cases retested after 3 months
108
What is the public health response to gonorrhoea?
- referral to GUM clinic for testing, treatment and contact tracing - treatment with ciprofloxacin - NAAT testing to check if cured due to antibiotic resistance
109
How is syphilis managed?
- full STI screen - advice and contact tracing - deep IM dose of benzathine benzylpenacillin
110
How is syphilis tested for?
- antibody testing for Abs to T. palladium - dark field microscopy and PCR
111
How is syphilis transmitted?
- Oral, vaginal or anal sex - Vertical transmission - IV drug use - Blood transfusions (rare)
112
What is nephritic syndrome?
- a group of symptoms - haematuria (smoky coloured urine) - oliguria - proteinuria - fluid retention
113
What is Goodpasture's syndrome?
- rare, genetic, autoimmune condition - glomerulonephritis and alveolar haemorrhage with circulating anti-GBM antibodies
114
What is post streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
- patients under 30 y/o - occurs 1-3 weeks after streptococcal (S. pyogenes) infection - patients develop a nephritic syndrome and usually have a full recovery
115
What are the types of prostatitis?
- acute bacterial: rapid onset - chronic: symptoms last > 3 months - chronic bacterial
116
How does chronic prostatitis present?
- pelvic pain - LUTS - sexual dysfunction - pain with bowel movements - tender and enlarged prostate
117
How is chronic prostatitis managed?
- α blockers (tamsulosin) - analgesia - antibiotics - laxatives for pain during bowel movement
118
How is prostatitis investigated?
- urine dipstick testing - urine microscopy, cultures and sensitivities - chlamydia and gonorrhoea NAAT testing
119
What is epididymo-orchitis and what are the causes?
- inflammation of the epididymis and testicle on one side - E. coli, chlamydia trachomatis, neisseria gonorrhoea, mumps
120
What is the aetiology of nephrotic syndrome?
- minimal change disease - focal segmental glomerulosclerosis - membranous nephropathy
121
What is the triad of nephrotic syndrome symptoms?
- proteinuria >3g/24hr - hypoalbuminaemia <30g/L - oedema
122
What is the management of nephrotic syndrome?
- high dose steroids - low salt diet - diuretics - albumin infusions - ACE-i
123
What are the genetics and epidemiology behind autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
- mutation in PKD1/2 gene on chromosome 16 - more common in males, presents age 20-30
124
What is the presentation of ADPKD?
- cystic enlargement of collecting ducts - liver cysts - intracranial aneurysms: subarachnoid haemorrhage - abdo pain ± haematuria - bilateral flank pain
125
What is the pathophysiology behind the presentation of ADPKD?
- PKD 1 + 2 code for polycystin (Ca channel) - when filtrate passes, channels open and calcium influx inhibits excessive growth - PKD mutation: Ca reduced so excess cilia growth > cysts
126
How is ADPKD diagnosed and treated?
- kidney USS - treat hypertension (ACE-i) - treat end stage renal failure (transplant) - laparoscopic cyst removal
127
What are the genetics behind ARPKD?
- mutation of PKDH1 on chromosome 6 - codes for proteins creating tubules and healthy epithelial tissue
128
What is the pathophysiology behind ARPKD?
- oligohydraminos is lack of amniotic fluid - leads to Potter syndrome - leads to underdeveloped lungs and resp failure
129
What are the symptoms of ARPKD?
- cystic enlargement of collecting ducts - oligohydraminos - pulmonary hyperplasia - congenital liver fibrosis - Potter syndrome
130
What is Potter syndrome?
- dysmorphic features - underdeveloped ear cartilage and low set ears - flat nasal bridge - skeletal abnormalities
131
What is the extrarenal presentation of ARPKD?
- liver failure - portal hypertension - progressive renal failure - hypertension - chronic lung disease
132
What is chronic kidney failure?
a permanent and progressive reduction in kidney function
133
What are aetiologies of chronic kidney failure?
- diabetes - hypertension - age - glomerulonephritis - PKD - meds: NSAIDs, PPIs, lithium
134
What are risk factors for chronic kidney failure?
- older age - diabetes - hypertension - smoking - nephrotoxic medication
135
What is the pathophysiology behind chronic kidney disease?
- damaged nephrons > reduced GFR - inc burden on remaining nephrons - compensatory RAAS to inc GFR causes inc transglomerular pressure and damages basement membrane selectiveness - leads to proteinuria and haematuria - mesangial scarring
136
What is the presentation of chronic kidney disease?
- pruritus - loss of appetite - nausea - oedema - muscle cramps - hypertension - pallor
137
What investigations are done in chronic kidney disease?
- eGFR with U&E: 2 tests 3 months apart - urine dipstick: haematuria - albumin:creatinine >3mg/mmol - renal USS
138
What is the criteria for chronic kidney disease?
eGFR <60mL/min/1.73m^2
139
What is the management of chronic kidney disease?
- treat diabetes, htn, oedema and glomerulonephritis - exercise and dietary advice - atorvastatin for prevention of CVD
140
How is anaemia of chronic disease treated?
- IV/oral iron and erythropoietin
141
What are the 5 stages of chronic renal disease?
- G1 = >90 - G2 = 60-89 - G3a = 45-59 - G3b = 30-44 - G4 = 15-29 - G5 = <15 (end-stage renal failure)
142
What is the pathophysiology behind renal bone disease?
- high serum phosphate due to reduced excretion and low vit D > less calcium absorbed - 2º hyperparathyroidism > inc osteoclast activity
143
What are the features of renal bone disease?
- osteomalacia - osteoporosis - osteosclerosis
144
Where do renal stones most commonly get stuck?
- vesico-ureteric junction
145
What are the common complications of renal stones?
- obstruction > AKI - infection > obstructive pyelonephritis
146
What is the cause of renal stones?
- hypercalcaemia is a common cause esp when paired with low urine output
147
What types of kidney stones most commonly occur?
- calcium oxalate (80%) - calcium phosphate - uric acid, struvite, cystine
148
How do renal stones present?
- unilateral loin to groin pain - colicky pain - haematuria - nausea, vomiting - reduced urine output - patient can't lie still
149
What investigations are done for renal stones?
- urine dipstick: haematuria - bloods: FBC, U&Es - KUB CT
150
What is the management of renal stones?
- NSAIDs - extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy - percutaneous nephrolithiotomy - tamsulosin can be used to help passage
151
What are the NICE guidelines for the prevention of renal stones?
- inc oral fluid intake (2-3L/day) - normal calcium intake (low intake inc risk) - lower oxalate intake (spinach, beetroot, nuts)
152
Which medications can be used to prevent renal stones?
- potassium citrate - thiazide diuretics
153
What is membranous glomerulonephritis?
- bimodal peak age 20 and 60 - IgG and complement deposits on basement membrane - usually idiopathic
154
How is glomerulonephritis/nephritic/nephrotic syndrome treated?
- immunosuppression - blood pressure control (ACE-i or ARBs) - furosemide if oedema
155
How is glomerulonephritis/nephritic/nephrotic syndrome investigated?
- renal biopsy - to check for minimal change disease
156
What is the pathophysiology behind nephrotic syndrome?
- basement membrane in glomerulus becomes highly permeable to protein - proteins leak from blood > urine - leads to frothy urine
157
What is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?
- tissue scarring in glomerulus - light microscope shows segmental sclerosis - treated by corticosteroids
158
What are the investigations done in nephrotic syndrome?
- light microscopy - electron microscopy
159
What is seen on electron microscopy in minimal change disease and membranous nephropathy?
- MCD: podocyte effacement + fusion - MN: subpodocyte immune complex deposition