repro revision Flashcards

1
Q

4 phases of menstrual cycle

A

menstruation
follicular
ovulation
luteal

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2
Q

how is the menstrual cycle controlled by feedback systems??

A

level of oestrogen = negative / positive feedback of HPO axis

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3
Q

3 phases of ovarian cycle and what happens

A

follicular - theca (produce androgens) and granuloma (inhibin) cells, FSH production inhibited by oestrogen and inhibin

ovulation - LH surge after 12 hrs, day 14, after maturation of dominant follicle and ruptures, releasing oocyte

luteal - lasts for 14 days, formation of corpus luteum,
progesterone production

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4
Q

gold standard investigation for suspected endometriosis ??

A

laparoscopy

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5
Q

adenomyosis - definitive tx??

A

hysterectomy

occurs when the tissue that normally lines the uterus (endometrial tissue) grows into the muscular wall of the uterus (myometrium)

Basically, ‘endometriosis but with the extra tissue being in the uterine wall only’

Can treat with hormonal therapy (eg, Mirena coil), tranexamic and mefanamic acid, uterine artery embolisation (fertility-sparing), or ablation/hysterectomy.

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6
Q

what meds can be used to reduce the size of fibroids before surgery??

A

GnRH

OR

ulipristal acetate for fibroids ≥3cm in diameter

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7
Q

USE OF Mefenamic acid VS Tranexamic acid

A

Mefenamic acid - to relieve the dysmenorrhoea. usually 2nd line after using IUS

3rd line - Tranexamic acid is used for heavy menstrual bleeding, rather than dysmenorrhoea (painful bleeding).

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8
Q

VIN

how long to turn into cancer??

A

Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia
pre-cancerous condition, will usually take over 10 yrs to turn into cancer

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9
Q

Lymph from the gonads drains to which lymph node group??

A

lumbar (caval/aortic)
para-aortic nodes

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10
Q

______ signals corpus luteum to secrete progesterone

A

hCG

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11
Q

what happens when you forget to take a pill (COCP)?? do you need any emergency contraception ??

A
  • fine if missed in middle of wk
  • if 1 pill has been missed and it is 48-72 hrs since the last pill in the current pack, or is 24-48 hrs late starting the new pack, MISSED PILL NEEDS TO BE TAKEN ASAP
  • remaining pills continued at usual time
  • if 2 pills have been missed, take most recent one. Barrier contraception until 7 consecutive pills are taken

emergency contraception not required unless pills were missed earlier or in last wk of previous pack

if COCP, implant, IUS, injection is started after day 5, need to use contraception for at least 1 week
IUD = immediately fine, no contraception needed
POP = 2 days

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12
Q

patient has menorrhagia with small subserosal fibroids. what is an appropriate form of contraception??

A
  1. IUS
  2. IF PATIENT DOES NOT WANT IUS, THEN MAYBE POP
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13
Q

IUS

IUD

A

IUS coil - up to 5 yrs, making menstrual periods lighter and shorter
invasive - risk of perforation, ectopic pregnancy

IUD - up to 10 yrs, making menstrual periods heavier and irregular
invasive - PID, perforation

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14
Q

Most likely embryonic explanation for 2 uteri

A

incomplete fusion of paramesonephric duct

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15
Q

in males, which structure develops to form the vas deferens (ductus deferens)?

A

mesonephric duct

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16
Q

in females, which structure develops to form the superior portion of the vagina ??

A

paramesonephric duct

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17
Q

how long do male lice live on average ??

A

22 days (3 wks)

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18
Q

what structures relax in pregnancy that may cause pelvic pain??

A

pelvic inlet
first sacral segment, ilium, and the pubis

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19
Q

what is a complete hydatidiform mole at risk of turning into? compared w partial moles

A

choriocarcinoma

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20
Q

Best contraception for 46 yr old, BMI of 42, smokes 20 a day, history of PID. Has multiple fibroid uterus including intramural and submucous fibroids

what is contraindicated in this?

A

POP

Difficult to fit Mirena w fibroid uterus.

COCP contraindicated in smoking and high BMI and aged above 40

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21
Q

vertex

A

area of foetal skull:
anterior and posterior fontanelle
and
parietal eminences

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22
Q

occipitofrontal diameter and biparietal

A

occipitofrontal - longer than wider

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23
Q

distance of the foetal head from the ischial spines is called the ________

A

station

negative number = the baby head is above the ischial spines
positive number = baby head is positive

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24
Q

placenta accreta vs placenta praevia vs placental abruption

A

accreta = attached to myometrium due to defective decidua basalis, previous C SECTIONS

praevia = vaginal painless bleeding, 3rd trimester

abruption = placenta separates from the uterus

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25
PPH
-primary postpartum haemorrhage -emergency -4Ts causes, trauma, tissue, thrombin, tone
26
normal value for NT
<3.5mm assessing the amount of fluid in neck of foetus
27
screening for Down's
11+0 weeks and 13+6 weeks = combined test bloods and USS US = NT Bloods = PAPP-A, aFP, beta-hCG 2ND STAGE OF SCREENING = 15-16 WEEKS, add in inhibin and oestriol
28
in downs, what are the levels of PAPP-A, aFP, beta-hCG and NT??
PAPP-A and aFP are low beta hcg and nt are increased
29
when are foetal anomaly scans done??
18-20 weeks 20 week scan for every woman
30
when is SFH measured??
from 24 weeks
31
when is anti-d offered if neg?? 1st and 2nd dose
28 weeks 34 weeks
32
what test can be done to check the right dose for anti-d sensitizing event by quantifying fetal red blood cells in mother's blood?? to have maximal effect, when should anti-d be given by??
KLEIHAUER within 72 hrs
33
2 main diagnostic tests for fetal abnormality?? when can they be done??
CVS - between 11 and 13+6 wks amniocentesis - after 15 wks
34
NIPT - screening test (NOT diagnostic)
non-invasive prenatal test more sensitive and specific than other screening tests reduces the risk of miscarriage
35
chorionicity is most determined by ________ using the shape and thickness of membrane when is this done?? and why is this important??
USS 11 - 13+6 weeks to pick up early signs of TTTS
36
what is the mode of delivery for MCMA?? mode of delivery for BREECH BABIES
C-section due to higher risk for cord entanglement C-section or ECV
37
3 types of breech presentation, which one is the most risky??
complete breech - legs folded at bottom footling breech - one or both feet point down frank breech - both legs UP FOOTLING - cord prolapse
38
IN FOETAL HYPOXIA, umbilical artery __________ its resistance MCA __________ its resistance
39
definition of stillbirth and causes
baby born with no signs of life at or after 28 weeks gestation labour complications, maternal infections and disorders, FGR
40
hypertensive disorders of pregnancy - 3
pre-existing hypertension gestational hypertension pre-eclampsia gestational hypertension develops after 20 wks but does not involve proteinuria/oedema unlike pre-eclampsia
41
what happens if pre-eclampsia is not controlled ??
develop into eclampsia = characterised by grand Mal seizures
42
gestational diabetes
polyhydramnios glycosuria
43
PPROM
pre-term prelabour rupture of membranes if the latent period between rupture of membranes to onset of painful contractions is greater than 4hrs
44
hydrops fetalis - what is this a late sign of ??
45
placental praevia and vasa praevia
46
infections in pregnancy
47
_____ is the leading direct cause of maternal death?? what is the leading indirect cause of maternal death??
48
SGA - has an estimated weight or abdo circumference below the _____ centile
10th
49
large for dates fetus has an estimated fetal weight to be greater than the _____ centile
50
what substance would you give for inducing labour ?
prostaglandin
51
pregnant woman has confirmed DVT and suspected PE. Tx?
start low molecular weight heparin in suspected PE CTPA and V/Q scan = confirm or rule out the presence of a thrombus
52
1ST LINE AND 2ND LINE for management of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy.
1. Labetalol (do NOT use in asthmatics) 2. Nifedipine
53
mx for severe pre-eclampsia, she has presented with moderate hypertension and also has symptoms of headache and vomiting
IV magnesium sulphate and plan immediate delivery
54
most common cause of antepartum haemorrhage?? second most common cause??
1. placental rupture 2. placental praevia
55
prolonged labour - diagnosis
when cervical dilatation is of less than 2cm in 4 hours during active labour
56
labour 3 stages
1 stage is divided into latent and active, latent = up to 4cm active = 4-10cm 2nd = full dilatation to delivery (passive/active stage) 3rd = time between delivery of foetus and delivery of placenta and membranes (active/physiological mx) active - need to use drugs
57
in a nulliparous patient, delay is diagnosed when the active 2nd stage has reached ____ hrs?? in a multiparous patient, delay is diagnosed when the active 2nd stage has reached ____ hrs??
2 1
58
what are the 7 steps of the mechanism of labour??
engagement descent flexion internal rotation extension external rotation expulsion
59
caput succedaneum cephalohaematoma subgaleal haemorrhage
present at birth develops several hrs after birth at delivery and may progress rapidly
60
pros and cons of operative vaginal delivery vs C-section
vag = shorter stay and quicker recovery neonatal trauma, facial nerve palsy, postpartum haemorrhage, shoulder dystocia C-section = no injury to cervix or tears haemorrhage, TTN, risk of uterine rupture, venous thromboembolism
61
IOL - most commonly used method of assessment? what are the methods of inducing labour??
Bishop's score >6 = most likely to predict labour artificial rupture of membrane drugs mechanical - balloon catheter
62
CEFM
continuous electronic fetal monitoring associated w increased level of intervention without much improvement in low risk women, so usually for people with risk factors
63
DR C BRAVADAO mnemonic - for interpreting CTGs
64
amniotic fluid embolism
65
CPR in pregnant woman
66
uterine neoplasia / cancer
67
endometrial carcinoma endometrial sarcoma carcinosarcoma endometrial hyperplasia myometrium abnormalities
68
ovarian neoplasms/cancer
69
benign tumours pathology functional cysts endometrioma polycystic ovaries theca lutein cyst serous cystadenoma mucinous cystadenoma fibroma sertoli/leydig mature teratoma
70
malignant tumours epithelial mucinous endometrioid clear cell sex cord germ cell
71
cervical neoplasia