Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NPLEX I > Reproductive System > Flashcards

Reproductive System Flashcards

(89 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

vas deferens

A

Ducts that conveys sperm from he testicle to the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Seminal vesicles

A

The seminal vesicles (also known as the vesicular or seminal glands) are a pair of glands found in the male pelvis, which function to produce many of the constituent ingredients of semen. They ultimately provide around 70% of the total volume of semen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bulbourethral gland

A

In response to sexual stimulation, the bulbourethral glands secrete an alkaline mucus-like fluid. This fluid neutralizes the acidity of the urine residue in the urethra, helps to neutralize the acidity of the vagina, and provides some lubrication for the tip of the penis during intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is 5 alpha-reductase?

A

The enzyme that converts testosterone into Dihydrotestosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the function of dihydrotestosterone?

A

DHT is biologically important for sexual differentiation of the male genitalia during embryogenesis, maturation of the penis and scrotum at puberty, growth of facial, body, and pubic hair, and development and maintenance of the prostate gland and seminal vesicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does LH (leutinizing hormone) do in males?

A

Make the Leydig cell pump out testosterone
For men, luteinizing hormone stimulates the production of testosterone from Leydig cells in the testes. Testosterone, in turn, stimulates sperm production and helps accentuate male characteristics — like a deep voice or growth of facial hair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

remember

A

A negative feedback system occurs in the male with rising levels of testosterone acting on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary to inhibit the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH. The Sertoli cells produce the hormone inhibin, which is released into the blood when the sperm count is too high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does inhibin do?

A

High levels of inhibin reduce the release of LH and FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of epididymis?

A

Store and matures sperm
The epididymis is a long, coiled tube that rests on the backside of each testicle. It carries and stores sperm cells that are created in the testes. It’s also the job of the epididymis to bring the sperm to maturity — the sperm that emerge from the testes are immature and incapable of fertilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Epidimytitis and orchitis

A

Associated with UTI and prostatitis, GC, or Chlamydia in men under 35
E. coli pseundomas in men over 35
mumps 1 week after onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Varicocele

A

Scrotal varicosity, abnormal dilation and tortuosity of pampiniform plexus of veins
99% left-sided

A varicocele (VAR-ih-koe-seel) is an enlargement of the veins within the loose bag of skin that holds your testicles (scrotum). A varicocele is similar to a varicose vein you might see in your leg. Varicoceles are a common cause of low sperm production and decreased sperm quality, which can cause infertility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hydrocele

A

accumulation of serous fluid in the scrotum

occurs developmentally in the descent of testis or second to inflammations, painless, enlarged fluctuant scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hematocele/torsion

A

blood in scrotal sac due to trauma or sx spontaneously in atherosclerosis, DM, scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Seminomas

A

Most common tumor with cryptorchidism
best prognosis of testicular tumors
metastasis to lymphatics
some have incrased HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bacterial Prostatitis

A

e.coli and other gram-negative rods, staph, GC
dysuria, fever, tender, boggy prostate, painful
chronic prostatitis > mb asymptomatic or low back pain, dysuria, positive culture in expressed secretions, tx difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chronic abacterial prostitis

A

Mostly common chlamydia, ureaplasma, no history of recurrent UTI
15 WBC per HPF, cultures negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia/Nodular hyperplasia

A

discrete nodules in periurethral area middle and lateral lobes, partial or complete obstruction
TUP sx, dihydrotestosterone causes hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Carcinoma of Prostate

A

Most common cancer of men, usually posterior lobe
hematogenous spread is mainly to lumbar spine, femur, pelvis, thoracic spine, ribs; local invasion, blacks higher incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acute cervicitis

A

GC, Chlamydia, trichonomas,

Cervical motion tenderness + mucopurulent discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chronic cervicitis

A

Vaginal bacterial overgrowth causing irritation of cervix, transformational zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

A

Mostly benign dysplasia in transformational zone

We try to stop dysplasia before they get anaplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cervical cancer

A

DPV 16, 18, 31, 33..
Exposure replayed spread:
Early age first intercourse
Mutual sexual partners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cervical squamous cell carcinoma

A 
90% of cervical cancer
Peak at age 40-60
Stage I-IV spread and prognosis:
Stage I 80% 5 yr survival
Stage IV has a 10-15% 5 yr survival 
Most are asymptomatic
Bleeding post intercourse can be a common sign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acute endometritis

A

Bacterial infection group A strep, staph follwoing delivery or miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Chronic Endometritis
PID, IUD, TB, Chamydia
26
Endometriosis
endometrial cells outside the uterus May fall anywhere Ovary and adnexa are most common often painful disorder in which tissue similar to the tissue that normally lines the inside of your uterus — the endometrium — grows outside your uterus. Endometriosis most commonly involves your ovaries, fallopian tubes and the tissue lining your pelvis.
27
Endometrial Polyps
May be estrogen receptive or Tamoxifen induced. Not considered precancerous Causes menorrhagia
28
Leiomyoma/fibroid
``` Most common tumor in women Estrogen dependent Fibroid myometrium Asymptomatic or symptomatic: - Compressive Sn/Sx - Bleeding - Urinary frequency - Infertility ``` ``` Leio = smooth Myo = muscle oma = tumor ```
29
How is the uterus anchored to the sacral bone?
By the uterosacral ligaments
30
Parts of the uterus
Ovaries, ovarian ligament, fimbriae infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus, fundus, cervix, body, round ligaments (anteriorly), cardinal ligaments (laterally), mesometrium (part of the broad ligament)
31
Uterine adenocarcinoma
``` Most common invasive cancer of the female tract More common than the leiomyoma Age 55-65 DM Hypertension Nulliparous ```
32
Oophoritis
inflammation of the ovaries; uncommon`
33
Follicular cysts
Common, physiologic, may cause pelvic pain follicular cyst occurs when the follicle of the ovary doesn't rupture or release its egg. Instead, it grows until it becomes a cyst. Cysted formed during the first 2 weeks
34
Luteal cyst
Corpus luteal (CL) cysts are a type of functional ovarian cyst that results when a corpus luteum fails to regress following the release of an ovum Fails to regress Normal, may rupture into the peritoneum and cause inflammation Cyst formed during the second 2 weeks
35
PCO/ Stein-Leventhal Syndrome
Polycystic ovary syndrome Poly = many Cystic = cysts Dysfunction of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis Too much release of LH causing the theca cells to produces excess amounts of androstenedione. It flows into the blood. Then it gets converted into estrone by aromatase in fats. This causes negative feedback to the anterior pituitary. You have an ovarian system that is not moving androgen to estrogen; androgen excess.
36
How is the normal menstrual cycle divided?
Follicular phase - before ovulation | Luteal phase - after ovulation
37
What happens during the follicular phase?
The hypothalamus release Gonadaltropic releasing hormone. This hormone gets into the anterior pituitary and makes it secrete other hormones, called gonadotropins such as LH and FSH.
38
Where do the FSH and LH travel to once they are released from the anterior pituitary?
To the follicles in the ovaries
39
What are follicles?
follicles are small clusters of theca and granulosa cells. They protect the developing egg (oocyte) Theca cells have receptors for the LHs. Lh makes theca cells release androstenedione. Granulosa cells have receptors for the FSH. These make the granulosa cells release aromatase which converts androstenedione into 17 B estradiol With the rise in 17 B estradiol, negative feedback occurs telling the hypothalamus to release less FSH
40
Remember
the first 2 weeks are follicular and the second 2 weeks are luteal. 1st 2 weeks, estrogen dominant. 2nd two weeks, progesterone predominant
41
Tumor of ovaries
``` 80% are benign cysts Malignant disease increases after 40 years Risk: - BRCA and other genetic makers Nulliparous ``` May be more fatal due to - Usually asymptomatic; Dx at high grade/stage May have GI symptoms
42
Skenes ducts
found close to the urethra. | believed to secrete a substance to lubricate the urethra opening.
43
Bartholin's glands
helps lubricate the vagina | located on each side of the entrance to the vagina
44
vulva dystrophy
Vulvar dystrophy is a condition that is caused by an abnormal growth of skin on the vulva
45
Lichen Sclerosus
after menopause, skin parchment-like, vaginal mucosa thinned, dryness, discomfort
46
LH
induces ovulation
47
Metabolism - (ovarian) sex steroids
Cholesterol - pregnenolone - 17 alpha hydroxypregnenolone - either dehydroepiandrosterone or androstenedione
48
What converts androstenedione into testosterone?
aromatase
49
Remember
Aromatase is the enzyme that creates estrogens from androgens
50
Menopause
40-55 yrs 52 is average in US No menses for 12 or more months
51
Breast benign conditions
Congenital nipple inversion | Galactocele (cyst in lactiferous duct or lobule)
52
Acute mastitis
Bacterial infection of the lactating breast Staph Fever
53
Mammary duct ectasia
dilation of lactiferous ducts usually multiparous women 50-60 yrs, mb abnormal abnormal mammogram
54
mammary duct ectasia
benign (non-cancerous) breast condition that occurs when a milk duct in the breast widens and its walls thicken. This can cause the duct to become blocked and lead to fluid build-up
55
Carcinoma
``` in ductal and glandular tissue Number 1 female cancer Family hx: mutation of BRCA 1 Estrogen: Early menarche / late menopause Nulliparous ```
56
What does nulliparous mean?
Term used to describe women who can no longer give birth to a child
57
Paget's disease of the breast
Palpable mass in the breast | Starts in the milk ducts of the nipple
58
How many stages are there between fertilization and implantation?
``` 4 stages 1 - fertilization to zygote formation 2 - 2 cell stage through morula 2-3 3 - free blastocyst 4-5 4. Blastocyst attaches day 5-6 ```
59
What is the primary site of fertilization?
The ampulla
60
Where does implantation usually occur?
More in the posterior wall than anterior wall | More in the Superior uterus
61
Ectopic implantation
Medical emergency This happens when a fertilized egg implants in a structure that can't support its growth. An ectopic pregnancy often happens in the fallopian tube
62
Ectoderm
``` CNS PNS Sensory epithelia of eye, ear, and nose Epidermis and appendages Mammary glands Posterior pituitary Adrenal medulla ```
63
Mesoderm
``` Connective tissue, cartilage, bone Muscle Heart Blood, lymph vessels, and cells Kidneys, ovaries, testes, genital ducts Serous membranes Spleen Adrenal cortex ```
64
Endoderm
Gastric and respiratory epithelium Parenchyma of tonsils, thyroid, parathyroid, liver, thymus, pancreas Epithelial lining of bladder, most of urethra, tympanic cavity, tympanic antrum, auditory tube anterior pituitary
65
What does the ligamentum teres connect?
The liver to the umbilicus
66
Ligamentum arteriosum
Connecting the proximal left pulmonary artery and the undersurface of the junction of the aortic arch and descending aorta, at the aortic isthmus
67
Foramen ovale
Dentation in the wall which separates the two atrium
68
Lactation and suckling reflex
Both posterior and anterior pituitary plays part in this process. Posterior will release oxytocin which allows for milk ejection. Anterior pituitary releases prolactin which induces milk production in the breast
69
Lactation and suckling reflex
Both posterior and anterior pituitary plays part in this process. Suckling will send signals to the hypothalamus. Posterior will release oxytocin which allows for milk ejection. Anterior pituitary releases prolactin which induces milk production in the breast
70
Reminder
hCG levels increase during the first weeks of pregnancy (12-14 weeks) Corpus luteum causes progesterone and ovary estrogen to come out After these are run out, we have the placenta producing oestradiol
71
Nucleotide
sugar with a base (nucleoside) and phosphate
72
DNA
Deoxyribose Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine Two strands in a double helix
73
RNA
Adenine, URACIL, Guanine, Cytosine | Single strand
74
What are the purines?
Adenine and Guanine | AG
75
What are the pyrimidines?
Uracil, thymine, and cytosine | UTC
76
Nucleosides
Finish with -ine
77
Nucleotides
Finish with -ate
78
What is purine biosynthesis dependent on?
100% folic acid-dependent for its methylation step
79
Folic acid is a complete cofactor for
50% folic acid-dependent
80
Transcription
Formation of mRNA from DNA mRNA carries instruction from the nucleus to the cytoplasm RNA polymerase polymerizes nucleotides on the DNA template to form an RNA copy Promoters signal RNA polymerase when to start
81
Polymerase I
makes rRNA
82
Polymerase II
makes mRNA
83
Polymerase III
makes tRNA
84
mnemonic
1, 2, 3 | r, m, t
85
Cell division
Replication
86
Apoptosis
controlled death of cells
87
Mitosis
nuclear division | occurs in somatic / body cells
88
Meiosis
produces gametes | occurs in reproductive cells
89
What are the divisions of mitosis?
Interphase (Go, G1, S, G2), Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

NPLEX I (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions