RESEARCH STUDIES FINAL EXAM Flashcards

RESEARCH STUDIES FINAL EXAM (127 cards)

1
Q

What is the primary purpose of business research?
A) To decrease business performance
B) To mobilize decision-makers to take appropriate actions
C) To implement business strategies
D) To increase market competition

A

B) To mobilize decision-makers to take appropriate actions

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2
Q

What is the main driver behind business research?
A) Business Tactics
B) Organizational Mission
C) Market Trends
D) Technological Advances

A

B) Organizational Mission

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3
Q

When should research not be conducted?
A) When information can improve decision-making
B) When there are insufficient resources
C) When the information supports a critical decision
D) When business goals are unclear

A

B) When there are insufficient resources

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4
Q

Which type of study aims to describe characteristics of a phenomenon?
A) Predictive
B) Descriptive
C) Explanatory
D) Reporting

A

B) Descriptive

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5
Q

What kind of study attempts to forecast future outcomes?
A) Descriptive
B) Predictive
C) Explanatory
D) Reporting

A

B) Predictive

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6
Q

Which of the following is an ethical violation in research?
A) Breaking confidentiality
B) Explaining participant rights
C) Obtaining informed consent
D) Do no harm

A

A) Breaking confidentiality

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7
Q

What ethical principle emphasizes avoiding harm to participants?
A) Independent Variable
B) Dependent Variable
C) Do no harm
D) Informed Consent

A

C) Do no harm

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8
Q

Which of the following is a synonym for an independent variable (IV)?
A) Criterion
B) Response
C) Predictor
D) Consequence

A

C) Predictor

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9
Q

What is an extraneous variable (EV)?
A) The main cause in an experiment
B) A variable that is measured as an outcome
C) An uncontrolled variable that can affect results
D) A hypothesis variable

A

C) An uncontrolled variable that can affect results

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10
Q

What role do hypotheses play in research?
A) They eliminate data collection
B) They provide a framework for conclusions
C) They restrict research designs
D) They replace the need for variables

A

B) They provide a framework for conclusions

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11
Q

Which type of reasoning uses specific observations to form general conclusions?
A) Deductive Reasoning
B) Hypothetical Reasoning
C) Inductive Reasoning
D) Descriptive Reasoning

A

C) Inductive Reasoning

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12
Q

What is the first stage of the research process?
A) Data Analysis & Interpretation
B) Proposing Research
C) Clarifying the Research Question
D) Reporting the Results

A

C) Clarifying the Research Question

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13
Q

In which stage is a legally-binding contract typically established?
A) Clarifying the Research Question
B) Proposing Research
C) Designing the Research
D) Data Collection

A

B) Proposing Research

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14
Q

Which of the following is a primary data source?
A) Textbooks
B) Internal Records
C) Encyclopedias
D) Bibliographies

A

B) Internal Records

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15
Q

What is a characteristic of tertiary sources?
A) They provide firsthand data
B) They include interviews
C) They compile information from primary and secondary sources
D) They include laws and memos

A

C) They compile information from primary and secondary sources

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16
Q

What type of study design has a loose structure and develops hypotheses?
A) Formal Study
B) Exploratory Study
C) Ex Post Facto Study
D) Experimental Study

A

B) Exploratory Study

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17
Q

Which research design involves manipulation of one or more variables?
A) Descriptive Study
B) Experimental Study
C) Cross-sectional Study
D) Longitudinal Study

A

B) Experimental Study

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18
Q

Which sampling method involves selecting participants based on ease of access?
A) Simple Random Sampling
B) Stratified Sampling
C) Convenience Sampling
D) Cluster Sampling

A

C) Convenience Sampling

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19
Q

Which type of sampling is characterized by participants recommending others?
A) Purposive Sampling
B) Quota Sampling
C) Snowball Sampling
D) Judgment Sampling

A

C) Snowball Sampling

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20
Q

Which of these is an example of a self-administered survey?
A) Telephone Interview
B) Online Questionnaire
C) Focus Group
D) Personal Interview

A

B) Online Questionnaire

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21
Q

What is the main disadvantage of using laboratory experiments?
A) Inability to manipulate variables
B) High cost
C) Artificiality of the setting
D) Inability to replicate results

A

C) Artificiality of the setting

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22
Q

What scale measures data by classification only?
A) Interval
B) Ratio
C) Nominal
D) Ordinal

A

C) Nominal

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23
Q

Which scale includes a true zero point?
A) Nominal
B) Ordinal
C) Interval
D) Ratio

A

Ratio

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24
Q

What section of a research report contains a summary for busy executives?
A) Abstract/Executive Summary
B) Methodology
C) Results
D) Appendices

A

A) Abstract/Executive Summary

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25
Which part of the research report provides additional but non-essential information? A) Front Matter B) Body C) End Matter D) Executive Summary
C) End Matter
26
What does business research aim to maximize? A) Organizational Tactics B) Business Goals C) Business Performance D) Market Competition
C) Business Performance
27
Which of the following is not a driver of business research? A) Organizational Mission B) Business Strategies C) Personal Goals D) Business Tactics
C) Personal Goals
28
Which of the following is an example of violating research ethics? A) Explaining study benefits B) Misrepresenting results C) Obtaining informed consent D) Providing confidentiality
B) Misrepresenting results
29
Which ethical principle ensures participants understand the risks involved? A) Do no harm B) Explain participant rights C) Misrepresenting results D) Padded invoices
B) Explain participant rights
30
Which variable is also known as the 'presumed cause'? A) Dependent Variable B) Extraneous Variable C) Independent Variable D) Controlled Variable
C) Independent Variable
31
What is a dependent variable also called? A) Criterion B) Predictor C) Antecedent D) Stimulus
A) Criterion
32
Which type of study focuses on explaining reasons behind phenomena? A) Descriptive B) Predictive C) Explanatory D) Reporting
C) Explanatory
33
A study that forecasts future outcomes is called: A) Explanatory B) Reporting C) Descriptive D) Predictive
D) Predictive
34
Which is not a role of a hypothesis in research? A) Guides the study's direction B) Limits data collection C) Identifies relevant facts D) Provides a research design framework
B) Limits data collection
35
Deductive reasoning moves from: A) Specific to General B) General to Specific C) Theory to Hypothesis D) Hypothesis to Theory
B) General to Specific
36
What happens during Stage 4 of the research process? A) Clarifying the research question B) Data Analysis & Interpretation C) Proposing Research D) Data Collection & Preparation
D) Data Collection & Preparation
37
Which step in the research process involves final reporting? A) Stage 3 B) Stage 4 C) Stage 5 D) Stage 6
D) Stage 6
38
What type of research design begins with hypotheses and uses precise procedures? A) Exploratory Study B) Ex Post Facto Study C) Formal Study D) Cross-Sectional Study
C) Formal Study
39
A study that manipulates variables to observe outcomes is called: A) Descriptive Study B) Experimental Study C) Ex Post Facto Study D) Longitudinal Study
B) Experimental Study
40
Which sampling method ensures each population element has an equal chance of selection? A) Convenience Sampling B) Simple Random Sampling C) Snowball Sampling D) Quota Sampling
B) Simple Random Sampling
41
Which sampling design is most efficient for analyzing subgroups? A) Systematic Sampling B) Cluster Sampling C) Stratified Sampling D) Judgment Sampling
C) Stratified Sampling
42
Which survey method is typically the most cost-effective? A) Personal Interview B) Web-Based Survey C) Telephone Interview D) Focus Group
B) Web-Based Survey
43
Which data collection method is best for observing natural behaviors? A) Structured Interview B) Mechanical/Digital Observation C) Focus Group D) Self-Administered Survey
B) Mechanical/Digital Observation
44
Which scale includes both classification and order? A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio
B) Ordinal
45
A Likert Scale is used to measure: A) Preferences B) Categories C) Opinions and Attitudes D) Numerical Data
C) Opinions and Attitudes
46
What part of a research report contains conclusions and recommendations? A) Front Matter B) Abstract C) Body D) End Matter
C) Body
47
Which section of the report typically includes charts and additional data? A) Executive Summary B) Technical Appendix C) Research Overview D) Methodology
B) Technical Appendix
48
Which of the following is NOT a type of study? A) Reporting B) Explanatory C) Descriptive D) Critical
D) Critical
49
Which type of study aims to explain relationships and reasons behind events? A) Reporting B) Explanatory C) Descriptive D) Predictive
B) Explanatory
50
What type of ethical violation involves misleading participants? A) Padded invoices B) Misrepresenting results C) Deceiving participants D) Breaking confidentiality
C) Deceiving participants
51
Which is considered an ethical violation? A) Explaining study benefits B) Breaking confidentiality C) Obtaining informed consent D) Providing full disclosure
B) Breaking confidentiality
52
Which ethical principle emphasizes avoiding harm to participants? A) Explain study benefits B) Do no harm C) Deceive participants D) Break confidentiality
B) Do no harm
53
What must be obtained to ensure participants understand study risks? A) Informed consent B) Padded invoices C) Misrepresented results D) Disclosure agreement
A) Informed consent
54
Which term is synonymous with an independent variable? A) Criterion B) Response C) Predictor D) Consequence
C) Predictor
55
Which term refers to a dependent variable? A) Stimulus B) Antecedent C) Criterion D) Manipulated
C) Criterion
56
What is the primary function of an extraneous variable? A) To serve as a predictor B) To be the main effect C) To interfere with the relationship between IV and DV D) To act as a criterion
C) To interfere with the relationship between IV and DV
57
Which of these is NOT a role of a hypothesis? A) Guide the study direction B) Provide framework for conclusions C) Suggest a research design D) Collect raw data
D) Collect raw data
58
What is the main purpose of the scientific method? A) To prove a hypothesis B) To explore random ideas C) To systematically investigate phenomena D) To collect data only
C) To systematically investigate phenomena
59
Deductive reasoning moves from: A) General to Specific B) Specific to General C) Observation to Theory D) Data to Hypothesis
A) General to Specific
60
Inductive reasoning involves: A) Developing a theory from general principles B) Using specific observations to form general conclusions C) Testing a specific hypothesis D) Collecting data to disprove a theory
B) Using specific observations to form general conclusions
61
Which is the first stage of the research process? A) Proposing Research B) Designing the Research C) Clarifying the Research Question D) Data Collection
C) Clarifying the Research Question
62
What is the primary goal of clarifying the research question? A) Identifying the management dilemma B) Collecting raw data C) Writing the final report D) Choosing a hypothesis
A) Identifying the management dilemma
63
A research proposal typically includes: A) A list of participants B) Timing, budgets, and extent C) Only the research hypothesis D) The conclusion of the study
B) Timing, budgets, and extent
64
What is the purpose of research design? A) To analyze data B) To write conclusions C) To provide a blueprint for the study D) To generate raw data
C) To provide a blueprint for the study
65
Which of the following is a primary data source? A) Textbooks B) Internal records C) Newspapers D) Encyclopedias
B) Internal records
66
Which of these is a secondary source of information? A) Speeches B) Internal records C) Textbooks D) Letters
C) Textbooks
67
What factor is NOT considered when evaluating information sources? A) Authority B) Format C) Audience D) Opinion
D) Opinion
68
Which of the following best defines research design? A) A plan for conducting a study B) A type of data analysis C) A research hypothesis D) A literature review
A) A plan for conducting a study
69
Which study type has a loose structure? A) Exploratory B) Formal C) Cross-sectional D) Experimental
A) Exploratory
70
How many participants are typically in a focus group? A) 2-4 B) 6-10 C) 15-20 D) 20-30
B) 6-10
71
Which study examines data at a single point in time? A) Longitudinal B) Cross-sectional C) Experimental D) Explanatory
B) Cross-sectional
72
Descriptive studies primarily aim to: A) Explain relationships B) Describe characteristics C) Predict outcomes D) Manipulate variables
B) Describe characteristics
73
What is a key feature of an experiment? A) Loose structure B) Manipulation of variables C) Reporting only D) Lack of control group
B) Manipulation of variables
74
Qualitative research primarily focuses on: A) Numbers and statistics B) Understanding meanings and experiences C) Testing hypotheses D) Manipulating variables
B) Understanding meanings and experiences
75
Quantitative research is best suited for: A) Theory building B) Describing experiences C) Theory testing D) Open-ended responses
C) Theory testing
76
Which of the following is a type of non-probability sampling? A) Simple random sampling B) Stratified sampling C) Purposive sampling D) Cluster sampling
C) Purposive sampling
77
The interview question hierarchy progresses from: A) Broad to Specific B) Specific to Broad C) Closed to Open-ended D) Random to Structured
A) Broad to Specific
78
Which interview format has a predefined set of questions? A) Unstructured B) Semi-structured C) Structured D) Open-ended
C) Structured
79
In which observer-participant relationship is the observer's presence unknown? A) Direct B) Indirect C) Known D) Unknown
D) Unknown
80
Which method uses technology to record behavior? A) Structured interview B) Focus groups C) Mechanical observation D) Unstructured interview
C) Mechanical observation
81
What is required to establish causal evidence? A) Agreement between IV and DV B) Random data collection C) Open-ended questions D) Focus group discussions
A) Agreement between IV and DV
82
Which is an advantage of experiments? A) Artificiality of labs B) Ability to manipulate IV C) Non-representative samples D) High cost
B) Ability to manipulate IV
83
Internal validity refers to: A) Generalizability of results B) Control over extraneous variables C) Replication of results D) Cost of the study
B) Control over extraneous variables
84
In an after-only case study, measurements are taken: A) Before and after treatment B) Only before treatment C) Only after treatment D) At random intervals
C) Only after treatment
85
What is a characteristic of a one-group pretest-posttest design? A) No control group B) Random assignment C) Multiple groups D) Only posttest measurements
A) No control group
86
What differentiates a pretest-posttest control group design? A) No pretest measurement B) Only one group C) Random assignment with a control group D) No posttest measurement
C) Random assignment with a control group
87
What is a key feature of a posttest-only control group design? A) No pretest B) Pretest and posttest C) Only one group D) Non-random assignment
A) No pretest
88
Which is a common source of error in research? A) Exact measurements B) Interviewer bias C) Random assignment D) Control groups
B) Interviewer bias
89
Which is an example of a self-administered survey? A) Telephone interview B) Online questionnaire C) Face-to-face interview D) Focus group
B) Online questionnaire
90
Which of the following is a type of web-based survey service? A) Telephone survey B) Fee-based service C) Focus group D) Face-to-face interview
B) Fee-based service
91
Which level of measurement includes both order and a true zero point? A) Nominal B) Ordinal C) Interval D) Ratio
D) Ratio
92
Which of the following is an example of nominal data? A) Height in centimeters B) Customer satisfaction rating C) Types of fruit D) Temperature in Celsius
C) Types of fruit
93
A balanced scale provides: A) More positive options B) An equal number of positive and negative options C) Only negative options D) No neutral option
B) An equal number of positive and negative options
94
In a forced-choice question, respondents: A) Can skip the question B) Must choose an answer C) Can select multiple answers D) Provide open-ended responses
B) Must choose an answer
95
What is a common number of points on a Likert scale? A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10
C) 5
96
A dichotomous scale typically has how many options? A) Two B) Three C) Five D) Seven
A) Two
97
In a single-response scale, respondents: A) Select one answer B) Select multiple answers C) Write an open-ended response D) Rank their answers
A) Select one answer
98
In a multiple-response scale, respondents: A) Choose only one option B) Can choose more than one option C) Rank their answers D) Provide a written response
B) Can choose more than one option
99
A Likert scale is commonly used to measure: A) Yes/No responses B) Levels of agreement C) Numerical data D) Open-ended feedback
B) Levels of agreement
100
In a constant sum scale, respondents: A) Assign points to various options B) Choose only one option C) Provide a yes/no answer D) Rank options
A) Assign points to various options
101
In a paired comparison scale, respondents: A) Compare two items at a time B) Assign points to items C) Select multiple options D) Provide open-ended feedback
A) Compare two items at a time
102
What should be considered when determining question content? A) Participant's willingness to answer B) Researcher's opinion C) Length of the survey D) Number of questions
A) Participant's willingness to answer
103
Effective question wording should be: A) Ambiguous B) Clear and concise C) Complex D) Long and detailed
B) Clear and concise
104
Open-ended questions allow respondents to: A) Select predefined options B) Provide detailed answers in their own words C) Rank items D) Assign numerical values
B) Provide detailed answers in their own words
105
What is a sampling frame? A) The entire population B) A list of elements in the population C) A subset of the population D) A complete count of the population
B) A list of elements in the population
105
The funnel approach starts with: A) Specific questions B) Broad questions C) Open-ended questions D) Dichotomous questions
B) Broad questions
106
Which is an advantage of sampling? A) Higher cost B) Greater accuracy C) Time-consuming D) Larger population
B) Greater accuracy
107
Which of these is a probability sampling method? A) Convenience sampling B) Judgment sampling C) Stratified sampling D) Snowball sampling
C) Stratified sampling
108
When should you use a larger sample? A) When the population is small B) When greater precision is needed C) When time is limited D) When resources are limited
B) When greater precision is needed
109
What happens if a sampling frame is incorrect? A) Increases accuracy B) Reduces errors C) Introduces bias D) Improves validity
C) Introduces bias
110
What is a key characteristic of simple random sampling? A) Selection based on judgment B) Every element has an equal chance of selection C) Selection based on convenience D) Selection based on quotas
B) Every element has an equal chance of selection
111
In systematic sampling, elements are selected: A) Randomly B) At regular intervals C) Based on convenience D) Using quotas
B) At regular intervals
112
Stratified sampling involves: A) Dividing the population into subgroups B) Selecting the easiest elements C) Selecting every nth element D) Using a snowball approach
A) Dividing the population into subgroups
113
Which is an advantage of cluster sampling? A) Lowest cost per sample B) Highest statistical efficiency C) Requires a complete list D) Difficult to implement
A) Lowest cost per sample
114
Which is an example of non-probability sampling? A) Simple random sampling B) Cluster sampling C) Convenience sampling D) Stratified sampling
C) Convenience sampling
115
What is precoding in survey research? A) Coding responses after collection B) Assigning codes before data collection C) Skipping data coding D) Eliminating invalid responses
B) Assigning codes before data collection
116
How are open-ended responses typically coded? A) Using predefined categories B) Numerically C) Using participant names D) With yes/no codes
A) Using predefined categories
117
Which is an example of dirty data? A) Accurate entries B) Duplicate records C) Complete data D) Validated responses
B) Duplicate records
118
What does a frequency table display? A) Relationships between variables B) The distribution of a single variable C) Correlations D) Regression analysis
B) The distribution of a single variable
119
Cross-tabulation in SPSS is used to: A) Summarize one variable B) Compare two or more variables C) Clean data D) Rank responses
B) Compare two or more variables
120
A normal distribution curve is: A) Skewed left B) Skewed right C) Symmetrical D) Bimodal
C) Symmetrical
121
A correlation measures the: A) Difference between two groups B) Strength and direction of a relationship C) Mean of a dataset D) Variance of a variable
B) Strength and direction of a relationship
122
Variance measures: A) The average value B) How spread out the data is C) The strength of correlation D) The mode of the data
B) How spread out the data is
123
Which measure represents the middle value in an ordered dataset? A) Mean B) Mode C) Median D) Range
C) Median
124
Audience variance refers to differences in: A) Research methods B) Participant demographics C) Data accuracy D) Statistical analysis
B) Participant demographics
125
Which section of a report includes the title page and table of contents? A) Body of the report B) End matter C) Front matter D) Technical appendix
C) Front matter
126
Which part of the report provides a brief overview of the entire study? A) Research overview B) Executive summary C) Technical appendix D) Implementation strategy
B) Executive summary