Respiratory Flashcards
(231 cards)
1
Q
Where does the most resistance to airflow occur? Also where inhaled gas is warmed and humidified.
A
upper airway
2
Q
Where does gas exchange occur?
A
lower airway
3
Q
The pediatric airway is harder to intubate because they have a ___ tongue, ____ vocal cords, ____ epiglottis, and ___ larynx.
A
large, angled, floppy, funneled
4
Q
The narrowest part of the pediatric airway if the?
A
cricoid cartilage
5
Q
We do not overextend an infant’s airway due to its large?
A
occiput
6
Q
Up to what age are infants obligate nose breathers?
A
6 months of age
7
Q
Because infants are obligate nose breathers, they are at increased risk for difficulty breathing when _____ airway disease occurs.
A
upper
8
Q
Anatomically, infants have a harder time compensating with lower airway disease due to their poorly developed _____ _____, ____ shaped chest, and e____ airway.
A
chest muscles, barrel, edematous
9
Q
Prior to asystole or cardiac arrest, children begin with?
A
respiratory conditions or respiratory arrest
10
Q
upper airway illness will lead to an increase in sn____ and no____ breathing.
A
snoring, noisy
11
Q
Macroglossia, laryngomalacia, and an extrathoracic foreign body can lead to what respiratory problem?
A
inspiratory stridor
12
Q
laryngitis, vocal cord paralysis, and papillomatosis may lead to what respiratory problem’s?
A
hoarse voice or stridor
13
Q
Children with congenital syndrome Pierre-Robinson syndrome are harder to intubate due to their ____ chin and ___ tongue.
A
small, large
14
Q
The obstruction of 1 or 2 nostrils is called?
A
choanal atresia
15
Q
Children with asthma or a foreign body may present with an __ or ___ cough.
A
acute or chronic
16
Q
Dehydration will lead to an elevation in __/__ and __
A
H/H and WBC
17
Q
What type of chest x-ray is indicated to assess for effusions or pulmonary fluid level?
A
lateral decubitus
18
Q
What test is used to assess for solid lung etiologies such as tumors?
A
pulmonary MRI
19
Q
What diagnostic test is used to evaluate lung disease in the presence of asthma?
A
PFTs ( pulmonary function test)
20
Q
Laryngotracheobronchitis also known as croup, is most common in kids less than ___ YOA, and often seen in what months?
A
6, October- march
21
Q
What is the most common croup pathogen?
A
parainfluenza 1 & 2
22
Q
Croup s/s are worse at ____, due to upper airway e____
A
night, edema
23
Q
croup s/s include s____, a ____ cough, and h____
A
stridor, a barky cough, and hoarseness
24
Q
Croup often begins ___ hours after a ____
A
48 hours after a URI
25
If croups s/s are severe, obtain a ____ ___ film x-ray.
lateral neck
26
The characteristic croup x-ray finding is known as the ____ sign.
steeple
27
Croup management includes ____. The dosing is ___mg/kg IV/IM x1
dexamethasone, 0.6 mg/kg
28
If a child with croup s/s does not improve with dexamethasone, obtain an __/__ neck ___ to r/o the presence of a foreign body.
a/p neck x-ray
29
Tracheitis is often bacterial in nature. The most common tracheitis pathogens include s____ and s___ ____
Staph and strep pneumonia
30
Key tracheitis characteristics include a ____ fever > ____ with ___ look
high fever, > 103 with a toxic look
31
What condition presents with high fever, toxic appearance, stridor, respiratory distress?
tracheitis
- May look like croup, doesn’t respond to racemic epi
32
What type of X-ray do you obtain for tracheitis?
lateral x-ray
33
Tracheitis x-ray findings include the ____ sign.
thumb
34
tracheitis management includes
C______ + na____ or ox____
Or
C_______ + c_______ if penecillin resistance exists
Or
V______ +\- c_______ of patient toxic appearing with multi organ involvement
Ceftriaxone + naficillin/oxacillin
Ceftriaxone + clindamycin
Vancomycin + clindamycin
35
foreign body airway obstruction occurs in what age groups?
infants and toddlers
36
The most important history piece in a child with foreign body airway obstruction is that there is no?
illness prior to s/s development
37
Foreign body airway obstruction is an acute event of c___, c___, ____ breathing, and CHRONIC _____.
choking, coughing, difficulty breathing, and chronic stridor
38
When working up a child with a foreign body aspiration, what assesses for differences in lung sizes while the child is holding their breath?
An i_____ film
an inspiratory film
39
What diagnostic test, identifies where the foreign object is?
A Fl______ evaluation
a fluroscopic evaluation
40
What is the gold standard treatment for a foreign body aspiration?
a bronchoscopy in OR
41
Ensure to keep children with a foreign body aspiration ____ due to their high risk for complete ____. When agitation, foreign objects tend to?
calm, obstruction.
move further down the airway.
42
If the foreign object cannot be removed with bronchoscopy, prepare the child for a?
tracheotomy
43
What is the most common tracheal congenital anomaly?
tracheomalacia
44
Over time, tracheomalacia may?
improve on its own.
45
tracheomalacia is more common in premies and infants with a history of previous _____ as well as those with a history of pulmonary i____ or le____
intubation, lesions or injuries
46
tracheomalacia is associated with?
f____ problems
feeding problems
47
s/s of tracheomalacia include ___ and ___ which worsen with ____ or _____
stridor and cough. feeding or agitation
48
Due to a history of feeding difficulties, children with tracheomalacia may present as?
FTT
49
tracheomalacia is diagnosed with a fl______ br_____ during ______ respiration
flexible bronchoscopy, during spontaneous respiration
50
What radiology exam assesses for the presence of a vascular ring?
CT scan
51
What radiologic exam evaluates pulmonary anatomy?
fl______
fluoroscopy
52
what diagnostic test r/o laryngomalacia?
a laryngoscopy
53
Tracheomalacia management includes?
observation
54
Tracheomalacia typically resolves by what age
18 M.O.A
55
Severe cases of tracheomalacia may be treated with a T____+ ____
tracheostomy and CPAP
56
In severe cases of tracheomalacia, an aortopexy may be used to help decrease?
a____ c____
airway compression
57
What is acute severe epiglottis inflammation?
epiglottitis
58
epiglottitis is considered an airway _____
emergency
59
In epiglottitis, there is a sudden onset of breathing ____ without _____.
obstruction without fever
60
The most common organism of epiglottitis in children who aren't vaccinated is?
Haemophilus influenza
61
The most common organism of epiglottitis in children who are vaccinated is?
1)
2)
1) strep
2) staph
62
What age group is most affected by epiglottitis?
1-5 YOA
63
The diagnostic test for epiglottitis is a?
lateral neck xray
64
What x-ray finding is characteristic of epiglottitis?
thumbprint sign
65
When evaluating a child with epiglottitis, a laryngoscopy will show a ___, ____, ___ epiglottis
beefy, red, swollen
66
Epiglottitis management includes keeping the child?
calm
- do not examine throat
- intubate, if intubation fails immediate tracheotomy
67
Treatment for a child with epiglottitis includes
R_____ and
D______
Rocephin
Dexamethasone
Warm humidified oxygen
68
Treatment for a child with epiglottitis resistant to MRSA and Penicillin includes r_______ + _____.
Rocephin + Vanco
69
What type of airway abscess is more common in older kids and teens
a peritonsillar abscess
70
A peritonsillar abscess typically begins as a L____ C____ that turns into a D___ N___ A___
Local cellulitis that turns into a deep neck abscess
71
Peritonsillar abscesses are typically polymicrobial. The most common 3 organisms in order of occurrence are?
strep, staph, H. flu
72
Peritonsillar abscess s/s include c/o of a ___ ____, decrease in ____ ____, ear ___, and a ____ voice (hot potato)
sore throat, oral intake, pain, muffled
73
Peritonsillar abscess outpatient treatment includes?
Augmentin
74
If a peritonsillar abscess does not improve with antibiotics treatment, consult with ENT who will?
lanse abscess
75
What is the most common reason for a TNA?
obstructive sleep apnea
76
The following clinical manifestations are characteristic of what?
snoring, obesity, daytime hyperactivity, and sleeping at school.
obstructive sleep apnea
77
Obstructive sleep apnea complications include ___ ___ and ___ ____
pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale
78
pulmonary hypertension can be diagnosed with an?
ECHO
79
What is the diagnostic exam for obstructive sleep apnea?
a polysomnography and/or sleep study
80
To rule out the presence of complications associated with OSA, obtain both an?
EKG and ECHO
81
True or False. After a TNA, obese kids may still have s/s?
true
82
After TNA, obese children may need extra respiratory support s/p surgery with a?
CPAP or BiPAP
83
What is the curative treatment for patients with severe obstructive sleep apnea?
a tracheotomy
84
What is the most common chronic illness in childhood?
asthma
85
Asthma is characterized by airway _____ leading to broncho ____
inflammation, constriction
86
Children that present with nighttime coughing, sob, hypoxia, unable to speak, and retractions unresponsive to treatment are in?
status asthmaticus
87
What type of asthma occurs less than or equal to 2 days/week
intermittent asthma
88
What type of asthma occurs > 2 days/week but not daily
mild asthma
89
In what type of asthma do s/s once occur daily?
moderate asthma
90
What type of asthma has s/s that occur several times daily?
severe asthma
91
In asthma and ETT may cause further ____ making it difficult to _____
bronchoconstriction, ventilate
92
The gold standard diagnostic test for asthma is a?
chest x-ray
93
What may a chest x-ray in a child with asthma show?
chest hyperinflation and flattened diaphragm
94
In the ER, what is the last treatment modality used in a step-wise approach to help decrease bronchial constriction?
Magnesium sulfate
95
What do you need to monitor for s/p mag sulfate infusion?
hypotension
96
Admission criteria for a child with asthma include
* > _____ min of s/s despite txt
* oxygen needs via ____
* The need for q _____ hour albuterol
or ____ albuterol
* a history of?
60
CPAP or BiPAP
Q2-3 hour, continuous
prior admissions
97
If a child with asthma requires sedation, sedate with?
ketamine
98
When intubated, children with asthma are at risk for ___ ___ and permissive ______
air leak and permissive hypercapnia
99
Pertussis, also known as whooping cough most often occurs in what age group?
less than 2 months of age before vaccination
100
In what trimester is the Tdap vaccination recommended?
third trimester
101
What type of bacteria is pertussis?
gram-negative
102
Pertussis causes respiratory tract _____ and is contacted via _____
inflammation....droplets
103
In pertussis, the Catarrhal stage (first stage) presents as a _____. Clinical manifestations include?
URI
congestion, rhinorrhea, low-grade fever, non-productive cough
104
The second stage of Pertussis, the paroxysmal stage lasts for about ____ weeks.
Clinical manifestations include a
* cough which is more severe at ____
* decreased o___ i____
* episodes of ______ and
* instances where the infant is not _____
1-2 weeks
night
oral intake
hypoxia
breathing
105
In what Pertussis stage does the whooping cough develop?
Whooping cough is due to pulmonary _____.
The Paroxysmal stage
spasms
106
Parents of children in the last stage of pertussis also known as the convalescence stage should expect a cough lasting up to ____ weeks.
6-10 weeks
107
What CBC finding is seen in children with pertussis?
high leukocyte count
108
What is the gold standard pertussis diagnostic test?
P____ c____
PCR culture
109
Pertussis has the highest mortality rate in infants less than what age?
6 months of age
110
What is the gold standard pertussis treatment?
E_______
Erythromycin
111
Azithromycin is an alternative treatment for pertussis. Keep in mind that azithromycin is contraindicated in what age group?
Infants less than 1 month of age
112
Children with pneumonia will have a history of prolonged?
cold or URI
113
When considering what fever, viral pneumonia, and mycoplasma pneumonia will cause?
a low grade fever
114
Children with bacterial pneumonia will present with what type of fever?
high fever
115
What diagnostic test helps rule out the presence of Mycoplasma pneumonia?
cold agglutins
116
The following gram-negative organisms: GBS, E. Coli, listeria, chlamydia, and Klebsiella are common pneumonia etiologies for what age group?
neonates
117
What are the common organisms for pneumonia in late-onset neonates?
staph and strep
118
What is the etiology of pneumonia in infants + toddlers (2 M.O.A - 2 Y.O.A)?
viral etiology
119
Strep Pneumonia and H. Flu type B are organisms of pneumonia most often seen in what age group?
2-5
120
Mycoplasma and strep are organisms of pneumonia most often seen in what age group?
5-teen years
121
What is the first-line antimicrobial outpatient treatment for pneumonia?
p______
penicillin
122
What is the first-line antimicrobial inpatient treatment for pneumonia?
ampicillin
123
What antimicrobial should be added when chlamydia is suspected as a cause of pneumonia?
azithromycin
124
What antimicrobial should be added for mycoplasma coverage in children with pneumonia?
zithromax
125
Children with aspiration pneumonia should be treated with?
cl______
clindamycin
126
What is a complication of bacterial pneumonia?
parapneumotic/pleural effusion
127
Initial inpatient management of a parapneumotic/pleural effusion includes _________, followed by coverage with?
drainage via chest tube followed by coverage with broad-spectrum antibiotics
128
A child with bacterial infection spread into pleura with purulent fluid has an?
empyema
129
Children with empyema require what surgical procedure?
V___\th_____
VATS/thoracentesis
130
What diagnostic test can help identify the presence of a pleural effusion?
A lateral decubitus X-ray
131
What are the pneumonia admission requirements?
toxic appearance,
children with an underlying condition
presence of an effusion or empyema
Staph or Strep CAP
Oxygen need via HFNC/CPaP/BiPaP
132
ARDS is characterized by ____ injury.
alveolar
133
The following conditions:
Direct lung injury, shock, sepsis, drowning, trauma, aspiration, contusion, TRALI, heart attack.
Increase the child's risk for the development of what?
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
134
Clinical Manifestations of ARDS include:
H_____
R_______
Decreased a_____
Increased _____
Decreased ______
Hypoxia
Respiratory Distress
Decreased aeration
Increased CO2
Decreased PaO2
135
What PaO2/FiO2 value is diagnostic for ARDS?
PaO2/FiO2 < 200
136
What is the inheritance pattern for Cystic Fibrosis?
autosomal recessive
137
What is the Cystic Fibrosis gene?
CFTR
138
What clinical manifestation is characteristic of Cystic Fibrosis?
Sticky secretions
139
Children with CF may benefit from ____ to assist with sticky secretions
CPT
140
Sticky secretions increase the child with CF risk for?
More lung infections
141
What other body systems are affected by CF?
pancreas, intestine, liver, sinus, reproductive tract, sweat glands.
142
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for CF?
S____ c_____ test
Sweat chloride test
143
GI-wise, children with CF are at increased risk for?
Polyps
144
Children with CF need _____ diet + ____ replacements
high-calorie diets with enzyme replacements
145
During infections, children with CF require gram ____ coverage. The antibiotic of choice is ci_____.
Negative
Ciprofloxacin
146
Along with airway clearance management, children with CF need to have their ____ ____ monitored.
blood glucose
147
A complication of cystic fibrosis includes the need for _____ transplantation
liver
148
This is the typical presentation for what pulmonary condition:
Adolescent female, who is overweight and on birth control.
pulmonary embolism
149
In the presence of a P.E., the D.Dimer will be?
elevatd
150
The gold standard diagnostic test for a P.E. is a?
VQ scan or a spiral (helical) CT scan
151
The treatment for a P.E. includes what low molecular weight heparin?
Lovenox
152
Tracheoesophageal fistula's are most commonly seen in the ____ setting.
NICU
153
Tracheoesophageal Fistulas are often identified when?
Right before or after birth
154
Clinical manifestations of an infant with a Tracheoesophageal Fistula include?
C_____
C_____
c______
s/s are worse when ______
Abdominal _______
coughing
choking
worse when feeding
abdominal distension
155
What is the treatment for Tracheoesophageal Fistula?
Surgery, Consult team
156
Tracheoesophageal Fistula management includes the passage of an ____ and keeping the _______, to prevent aspiration
NGT
-won’t advance
and keeping the HOB elevated
157
The following conditions cause what type of blood gas finding?
Hypo/Hyperventilation
CNS depression
Respiratory Neuromuscular disorders
CPOD
Hypoxemia
Respiratory Acidosis
158
The best oxygen modality for bronchiolitis is via?
HFNC
159
The best oxygen modality for asthma and OSA is via?
BiPAP or CPAP
160
During invasive ventilation, what change in the settings affects CO2?
Rate
161
What ventilation setting assists with oxygenation?
P____
PEEP
162
The Tidal Volume setting is based on the child's size and weight. What is pediatric tidal volume calculation?
4-6 ml/kg
163
An intubated child's chest rise is dependent on what ventilator setting?
Tidal volume
164
Ventilator respiratory rate is dependent on age, what is a good ventilator RR range?
12-30
165
The following inspiratory time settings are appropriate for what age group?
0.4-0.6
neonates and infants
166
The following inspiratory time settings are appropriate for what age group?
0.6-0.8
2 years of age and older
167
To improve the oxygenation of an intubated child, increase the?
PEEP and FiO2
168
To improve the ventilation of an intubated child, increase the?
T___
+ r_____
tidal volume and respiratory rate
169
In pediatrics, what is the maximum tidal volume?
6
170
What oxygen modality is best to assist in ventilating a child having difficulties with oxygenation?
High Flow NC
171
HFNC is contraindicated in children with:
* Increased i _____
* Hy____
* Increased ai_____ re____
* pn______-m____
ICP
hypotension
increased airway resistance
pneumomediastinum
172
Tracheostomy is indicated in children with:
* Failure to maintain a ____ _____
* airway o_____
* severe T____/B_____
patent airway
airway obstruction
severe tracheo/bronchomalacia
173
What sterile procedure with sedation is indicated to drain pleural fluid or air?
chest tube
174
Pneumococcal 12-valent conjugate vaccination is recommended at what age groups?
2, 4, and 6 months of age
175
In high-risk populations, the 23-valent pneumococcal vaccine should be administered at what age?
2 years of age
176
What vaccine is only recommended at 6 months of age for any infant who will be traveling internationally:
6 months of age
177
Pneumomediastinum is caused by?
al_____ rupture
alveoli rupture
178
In children under the age of 7, pneumomediastinum is often associated with a?
lower respiratory infectoin
179
In older children and adolescents, pneumomediastinum is most often associated with?
asthma
180
The following children are at risk for the development of what?
* Children s/p vomiting
* Children on high-flow nasal cannula therapy
* Patients with anorexia nervosa
pneumomedastinum
181
Upon evaluation of a pneumomediastinum, a chest x-ray will reveal increased _____ and ____ in the mediastinum.
lucency and air in the mediastinum
182
While patients can be asymptomatic, Common presenting signs and symptoms of pneumomediastinum are?
C___ ____
D____
N___ ____
chest pain, dyspnea, and neck pain
183
Pneumomediastinum physical exam findings include ____ sign. Described as _____ heart sounds or subcutaneous ______
Hamman's
crunching heart sounds
subcutaneous emphysema
184
As long as there is no circulatory compromise, pneumomediastinum is ______ and does not require _____.
self-limiting
treatment
185
Chest pain associated with pneumomediastinum can be treated with?
NSAIDs
186
Subcutaneous emphysema leading to tracheal compression includes management with a ______ which _____ the mediastinum
tracheotomy
decompresses
187
Pneumothorax radiograph demonstrates?
air in the pleural space
188
Children with pneumothorax typically present with
C___ ____
D_____
____ or ____ breath sounds
and T______
chest pain
dyspnea
decreased or absent breath sounds on side of pneumo
tachycardia
189
Tracheal deviation to the contralateral side is characteristic of a?
tension pneumothorax
190
Tension pneumo treatment includes a?
needle decompression
191
What is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in the first 6 months following pediatric lung transplantation?
infection
192
S/P lung transplantation, antimicrobial prophylaxis includes coverage for?
b____, v_____, f_____ pathogens
bacterial, viral, and fungal pathogens
193
What is the most common cause of serious viral infection following a lung transplant?
CMV
194
S/P lung transplant CMV infection can cause br____ on_____ leading to graft d___ and d_____
bronchiolitis obliteran
graft dysfunction and death
195
Those at highest risk for CMV pneumonia s/p lung transplant are seronegative recipients of lungs from?
seropositive donors
196
Step wise approach to a moderate asthma exacerbation
1) supplemental _____, maintain % > ___
2) I_____ B____, administering up to ___ doses in the first hour
3) systemic ______ (IV or PO) every ____ hour
4) nebulized ___ with ____, H___ or C_____
1) supplemental oxygen, > 90%
2) inhaled B2 agonist, 3
3) corticosteroids, 12
4) nebulized short-acting B2 agonist with ipratropium, hourly or continuous
197
Intubation criteria
* unresponsive to ____
* persistent or increasing _____
* worsening M____ status
* absence of ____ or _____
oxygenation
hypercapnia
mental
breath sounds or wheezing
198
What is the infant tidal volume calculation?
6-7 ml /kg
199
Children on pressure support ventilation have the ability to _____ all breaths and determine the ____ of breaths on his/her own
initiate
volume
200
Children on pressure support demonstrating adequate tidal volumes as per age parameters, are ready for?
extubation
201
During mechanical ventilation, what is a marker of poor lung compliance?
High p_____ pressures
high peak pressures
202
Peak pressures in infants should be less than?
____ cm H2O
20 cm H2O
203
Inhaled nitric oxide necessitates what for delivery?
m_____ v____
Mechanical ventilation
204
Infants post-operative from atrioventricular canal repair, are at risk for?
pulmonary hypertension
205
To maintain oxygenation and the distension of alveoli, infants s/p congenital diaphragmatic hernia repair require what vent setting?
High P____
high PEEP
206
Congenital diaphragmataic hernias impede lung ____ and limit lung _____
lung expansion
Limit lung volumes
207
Prior to extubation, what is the standard PEEP goal?
PEEP of 5
208
Hemoptysis, respiratory distress, hypoxia, subcutaneous emphysema, and consolidation on chest radiograph are clinical manifestations of a?
P_____ C_____
Pulmonary contusion
209
20 % of patients with pulmonary contusion will develop?
ARDS
210
Secondary complications of a pulmonary contusion include?
as______ and
in______
aspiration and infection
211
ARDS Management aimed at minimizing ventilator-induced lung injury includes targeting
* Low ___ ____ (__-__ ml/kg) = MOST IMPORTANT
* Permissive _______
* titration of ____ and ____ to maintain lower _____
* Prevent oxygen toxicity by maintaining PaO2 at ___-__ mmHg
tidal volumes (6-8 ml/kg)
permissive hypercapnia
titration of PEEP and FiO2, oxygenation
55-80
212
Cough, rales, rhonchi, retractions, and nasal flaring are highly specific for?
pneumonia
213
hoarseness, barking cough, and stridor are highly specific for?
laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)
214
Due to bronchial anatomy, what foreign body aspiration is more common in smaller children?
left-sided aspirations
assess for decreased or absent breath sounds over the left lung
215
Tracheitis is ____ in origin. Children present with high _____ and ____ airway symptoms.
bacterial
fever
upper
216
In neonates, the most serious complications of assisted ventilation include?
air leak syndromes
217
Pulmonary interstitial emphysema, pneumomediastinum, and pneumothorax are all examples of>
air leak syndromes
218
In air leak syndrome, distal alveoli rupture. High ventilator _____ and severe lung _____ are causative factors.
pressures and severe lung disease
219
Pneumomediastinum can progress into a?
tension pneumothorax
220
What presents as an elevation of the diaphragm or wedge-shaped opacity on the chest radiograph?
a pleural effusion
221
pulmonary interstitial emphysema is an air leak syndrome that occurs predominantly in what age group?
extremely premature
222
When intubation is indicated for septic shock, induction agents increase the risk for worsening ______. In this scenario, what sedative is the agent of choice?
hypotension
due to myocardial depression and vasodilator effects
ketamine
-maintains cardiovascular stability
223
Tracheostomy patient with mechanical ventilation experiences the delivery of higher PIP pressures, low tidal volume, and increased RR.
What are the two differential diagnoses?
tracheal plug or dislodgement
224
A Pneumothorax can lead to mediastinal shift and subsequently?
c______ collapse
cardiovascular collapse
225
A tension pneumothorax is an emergency. Immediate needle thoracostomy is achieved by inserting the needle into the?
2nd intercostal space at the midclavicular line
226
What needs to be placed s/p tension pneumothorax decompression?
a chest tube
227
TRALI onset may be delayed as long as ____ hours post-transfusion. A chest x-ray will show?
6
bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
228
higher PEEP decreases p____ leading to h_____
preload, hypotension
229
What is the best method for primary confirmation of endotracheal tube placement?
c______
capnography
230
Management of a child S/p submersion injury includes the administration of _______, and monitoring up to ____ hours post submersion.
100% supplemental oxygen
6
231
Peritonsillar abscess inpatient treatment includes?
1) am______
2) c______ +c_____ for severe cases
3) c______ or v_____ or l____ is MRSA resistant
Ampicillin
Ceftriaxone + clindamycin
Clindamycin, vancomycin, linezolid
* continue IV Atbx until patient is afebrile, transition to oral ATBX x 14 days
