Respiratory Flashcards
(178 cards)
1
Q
Effects of alveolar hypoxia
A
vasoconstriction
2
Q
Hypoventilation is due to which acid base disturbance?
A
Metabolic alkalosis
3
Q
Negative prognostic indicator in R. equi pneumonia
A
Intra-abdominal abscess Osteomyelitis
4
Q
Virulence factor of Manheimia hemolytica?
A
Leukotoxin
5
Q
Cattle with cough, harsh dorso-caudal lung sounds, subcutaneous edema
A
BRSV
6
Q
Diagnostic method for verminous pneumonia
A
Baermann
7
Q
Most common cell in RAO BAL
A
Neutrophils
8
Q
Sheep with cough, weight loss, hard udder
A
Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)
9
Q
Cow in feedlot with fever, cough, red nose
A
BHV-1
10
Q
Treatment of horse with strangles
A
Horses with early clinical signs • ATB on early stage, before abscessation (3-5 days) • May prevent local abscess and shedding Horses with lymph node abscessation • Supportive care • Soft food • NSAIDs, hot compress, drainage, lavage • ATB recommended if horse is depressed, anorectic, dyspneic • Penicillin → drug of choice • Cephalosporins, macrolides • ATBs may prevent development of lasting immunity
11
Q
Diagnosis for Cryptococcus neoformans
A
Latex agglutination
12
Q
Most important immune cell for R. equi
A
T lymphocytes?
13
Q
Cow with lesion in lung caudodorsally
A
Bovine respiratory syncytial virus
14
Q
Pathogenensis R. equi and decreased immune (macrophage) response
A
Lipoarabinominam on bacterium surface and Macrophage phagocytosis of R. equi
15
Q
Diagnosis of Chronic carrier state for S. equi
A
Guttural pouch fluid/swab PCR
16
Q
Fungi that most commonly causes pneumonia in horses
A
Coccidiomicosis
17
Q
Horse with a nasal granuloma (mass), histopathology revealed large amounts of eosinophils around the lesions
A
Condidiobolus coronatus
18
Q
What test to run in a horse that had been exposed to S. equi 3 weeks before
A
SeM ELISA? Nasal PCR?
19
Q
What is the best immune response against R. equi:
A
IFN-y
20
Q
What is the best for monitoring and early diagnosis of R. equi pneumonia in endemic farms:
A
CBC, monitoring for fever, cough
21
Q
Adult cow with respiratory signs, mild, fever, tachypnea:
A
BHV-1, BRSV?
22
Q
Acute interstitial pneumonia in cattle, associated with?
A
Hyperplasia of pneumocytes type 2
23
Q
With respect to BRSV and vaccination of calves before 1 month old
A
vaccination of calves before 1 month old is not effective.
24
Q
Lesions of Haemophilus in cattle
A
Pleuritis, myocarditis, fibrinopurulent pneumonia
25
Elimination of EIV Australia
canary pox 14 days
26
BRSV and vaccination of neonatal calves
Non protective
27
Zoonotic in dog and horse?
Blastomycosis?
28
Lung mechanism of IAD
?
29
Drug of choice of Pneumocystis carinii
TMS
30
Vaccination of EIV
Canary q14d
31
Vaccine with highest efficacy to decrease BRDC?
Killed: BVDV MLV: BHV-1, BRSV, PI3
32
EIPH, what is associated with?
Histology changes
33
In strangles, what is a positive nasal PCR
Actively shedding
34
Pulse oxymeter at 90
60 mmHg
35
Pneumocytes II
Lush pastures
36
Immune response in R. equi pneumonia
IFN-g --\> macrophages
37
How to determine strangles titer?
SeM protein
38
Requisite for M. haemolytica vaccine
Leukotoxin
39
What is the function of the surface glycoproteins in BHV-1 infection?
Surface glycoproteins gC, gD, gB interact with heparan sulfate proteoglycans for cell attachment and entry
40
In BHV-1, how are the lungs in necropsy?
Lesions in respiratory, ocular, and reproductive mucosa, but do NOT extend to the lungs. "Boom!"
41
Effects on vaccine for BRSV
Th2 response After intranasal vaccine --\> IgA
42
Which is the most common virus isolated from lungs of calves euthanized for pneumonia
Bovine parainflueza 3
43
Effect of bovine PI3 in RBCs
Hemagglutinates and hemadsorbs
44
Serotypes causing pneumonia in Manheimmia hemolytica
A1 --\> Cattle A2 --\> Sheep and goats
45
Main characteristic of M. hemolytica lung lesions
CV, fibrinous pleuritis \*\*Necrotizing fibrinous pleuropneumonia\*\*
46
Virulence factor for M. hemolytica
Leukotoxin --\> CD18 receptor Also: PS capsule, IROM P
47
ATBs to be used in prophylaxis for M. hemolytica
Tilmicosin, florfenicol
48
Serogroup causing pneumonia in P. multocida
A3
49
"Calf pneumonia" is usually referred to which infectious agent?
P. multocida
50
What is a main feature of the clinical presentation of P. multocida pneumonia
Chronic or ongoing pneumonia
51
Main features in the pathogenesis of H. somni
Binds to Fc in antibody --\> preventing opsonization Vasculitis and vascular thrombi Induce IgE
52
Most time of infection for H. somni
First 2 months or 2 weeks of the feeding period
53
Why is Mycoplasma bovis resistant to b-lactams?
Bacteria lacks cell wall
54
Syndrome caused by Mycoplasma bovis
Chronic pneumonia and polyarthritis
Resistant to ATB
55
Virulence factor of M. bovis
Variable surface proteins (VSPs)
Lack of cell wall --\> resistant to b-lactams
56
Sources of infection for M. bovis
Contact Aerosol Infected milk
57
Lung lesions for M. bovis
Caseonecrotic lesions Foci of coagulation necrosis
58
Test for carriers of Mycoplasma mycoides-large colony type
PCR of auricular swabs
59
Important source of infection of M. mycoides LCT
Does that recover from mastitis become chronic carriers
60
M. mycoides-large colony type
\*hot swollen joints\*
61
Prevention of m. mycoides LCT
Feed heat treated colostrum, or cow colostrum at birth, then pasteurized milk or replacer from 1 month to weaning
62
"Fog fever"
Acute Bovine Pulmonary Edema and Emphysema
63
Cause of ABPEE
L-tryptophane from lush pastures --\> 3-Methylindole
64
3 important features of ABPEE
1. Absence of coughing 2. No signs of sepsis 3. No adventitious lung sounds
65
Target cells is ABPEE
Type I pneumocytes and Clara cells
66
Moldy Sweet Potato
4 - Ipomeanol toxicity --\> interstitial pneumonia
67
Diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis "bovine farmer's lung"
Antibody to S. rectivirgula
68
Treatment for D. viviparus
Ivermectin -\> 3, 8, 13 weeks Doramectin -\> 0, 8 weeks If treatment during PPP -\> larvae never shed in feces
69
Most common lung worm in small ruminants
Muellerius capillaris
70
Muellerius capillaris: where is the adult parasite located?
Goat: subpleural tissue Sheep: nodules
71
Best treatment for M. capillaris
1 week on/1 week off/1 week on with fenbendazole \*Resistant to levamisole
72
Thin ewe syndrome
Ovine progressive pneumonia - Maedi visna
73
Which conditon is related to this image and why?
Ovine progressive pneumonia
Aseptic indurative lymphocytic mastitis
74
Clinical pathology in cases of OPP
* Lymphocytosis
* Hypochromic anemia
* Hypergammaglobulinemia in advance cases
75
Pathophysiology of OPP
Ingestion of milk/colostrum → monocytes or macrophages → spread to tissues
76
Explain the "test and cull" for the control of OPP
if (+) → isolate or cull adult and lamb \< 1 year age
77
This clinical presentation corresponds most likely to which condition?
Ovine Pulmonary Adenocarcinoma
* Frothy fluid in the respiratory tract
* Evident with the wheelbarrow test
78
What is considered pathognomonic for Vena Caval Thrombosis and Metastatic Pneumonia in cattle
* Respiratory signs with anemia
* Widespread wheezes
* Hemoptysis
79
Necropsy finding in vena caval thrombosis
Thrombus between the liver and right atrium at the caudal vena cava
80
Diagnosis of bovine tuberculosis
TB test → injection of M. bovis purified protein derivate
* At ≠ sites → ↑ specificity
Culture is gold standard (8 weeks incubation)
81
Most common bacteria implicated in pleuritis and pleuropneumonia in cattle
* M. haemolytica
* H. somni
82
Tretment for Oestrus ovis infestation
* Ivermectin -\> treat after the first hard freeze
* Oral moxidectin is not effective
83
Most common bacteria in cases of sinusitis in cattle
* Dehorning *→* *T. pyogenes*
* Not dehorning *→* *Pasteurella multocida*
84
Possible initial cause of laryngeal necrobacillosis
Laryngeal contact ulcers
Histophilus somni?
85
Bacteria implicated in laryngeal necrobacillosis
Fusobacterium necrophorum
* Needs portal of entry
86
Texel-cross lamb with prolonged inspiration and a honking cough
Inherited chondrodysplasia causing tracheal collapse
* Autosomal recessive
87
Honker cattle
Tracheal Edema Syndrome of Feedlot Cattle
88
Death cattle, bloody nose, hematuria
C. haemolyticum
89
Most common bacteria in pneumonia due to transportation
Actinobacillus
Pasteurella
Streptococcus
90
Most common age for R. equi pneumonia
3 weeks - 5 months
91
Most common presentatio of R. equi
Subclinical, might recover without therapy
92
Which is the desired immunological response in cases of R. equi pneumonia?
Type 1 response:
This is characterized by the production of antigen-specific _Th1 lymphocytes_, which allow for clearance of intracellular R. equi via the production of IFN-g and the activation of macrophages, and by antigen specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes which recognize and kill R. equi infected cells.
93
Which immunological response is detrimental for foals infected with R. equi?
Th 2 response:
Predicted to develop potentially life-threatening pulmonary lesions
94
Gene associated with virulence in R. equi, and where is it located?
Vap A gene, located in the pathogenicity island (PAI)
95
These genes are necessary for the correct functioning of the main virulence factor of R. equi, so the bacteria can replicate and survive in the macrophages. Y'all know what I'm talking about?
*VirR* and *Orf*
Each of them encondes a regulatory protein
96
Which gene in R. equi encodes a immunodominant, temperature-inducible, surface expressed lipoprotein?
VapA
97
Receptor used by macrophages to engulf opsonized R. equi
Complement receptor 3 = CR3 or Mac-1
98
Which receptor does R. equi use for entry in the macrophage
Mannose receptor in the macrophage that recognized lipoarabinomannan (LAM) in the bacterium
99
Which cell is required for complete pulmonary clearance of R. equi
T lymphocytes (\> CD4+)
100
Why are adult horses more resistent to R. equi pneumonia?
Developement of R. equi-specific CTLs
101
Why are foals more susceptible to R. equi pneumonia?
* Deficient in CTL
* Ag presenting cells have decrease CD1, MHC II expression
* IFN-g deficiency and Th2 bias
102
Diagnosis of R. equi pneumonia
Bacterial culture and PCR for VapA gene from TBA
103
What is the effect of vaccination of mares against R. equi?
Does not increase protection
104
Which infectious agents can cause lung infections in utero?
EVA, EHV-1, 4
105
Diagnosis of P. carinii pneumonia
Trophozoites in histology
Interstitial, miliary pattern
106
How long is the nasal shedding in strangles
2-3 weeks
107
Best way to determine the carrier status in strangles
* Endoscopic examination of the GP
* Culture + PCR of GP lavage
108
Gold standard for diagnosis of strangles
Culture
* Nasopharynx, GP wash\*
* Preferred method on aspirate of masses
109
Which test is more sensitive than culture for diagnosis of strangles?
PCR → SeM protein, the gene for the antiphagocytic M protein
* Guttural pouch sampling is the most reliable
* \> Se than culture, always use in combination
110
Interpretation of a SeM ELISA for strangles where the titer is ≥ 1:3200
High antibody → predispose to develop purpura when vaccinated
* Do NOT vaccinate
111
What is the detection rate for strangles when both culture + PCR are used?
~ 90%
112
How long is the quarantine for strangles?
2-3 weeks
113
Why is mechanical ventilation challenging in cases of ARDS/ALI?
Areas of mismatch with areas of normal lung tissue
Predisposes to ventilator-induced lung injury
114
PaO2/FiO2 ratios to classify ARDS/ALI
\< 300 mmHg ALI (PaO2 \< 63)
\< 200 mmHg ARDS (PaO2 \< 42)
115
Test with highest Se and Sp for diagnosis of respiratory viruses in horses
RT-PCR
116
T/F
For EIV, serum antibody concentrations correlates with protection
True
117
Which lineage of EIV is currently circulating?
H3N8
118
Vaccine recommendation for EIV by OIE
Florida clades 1 and 2
119
How long is the shedding for EIV?
~ 7 days
120
Diseases cause by EHV-1
1. Respiratory
2. Abortion/Neonatal death
3. EHVM
4. Chorioretinopathy --\> shotgun lesions
121
How long is the shedding of EHV-1?
4-7 days
122
What is the purpose of the lymphocyte-associated viremia of EHV-1?
Virus reaches other tissues, targets the endothelial cells and causes **vasculitis**
Viremia can persist for 21 days! FFS!
123
Where are the places for latency of EHV-1?
* Trigeminal ganglion
* Lymphoreticular system
124
Most important cell for immunity against EHV-1?
**CTL**s --\> MHC class I restricted
Mediated by CD8+
125
What is the effect of antibodies against EHV-1?
Decrease virus shedding, but fail in preventing infection, abortion and EHM
126
How does EHV-1 evade the immune system?
* Downregulationof MHC-1
* Alteration of NK cells
* Modulation of cytokine response
127
How long is the isolation for cases of EHV-1?
28 days!
128
Measures to prevent EAV
* Vaccinate colts in the first year and annually thereafter
* Vaccinate mares that will be bred
* Manage carrier stallions separate, or castrate
* MLV
129
Which animals are at higher risk for infection with equine adenovirus
Arabian foals with SCID
Immunocompromised animals
130
Types of equine adenoviruses
* EAdV-1 → respiratory disease, conjunctivitis
* EAdV-2 → diarrhea in foals
131
What stage of D. arnfieldi is in the bronchi?
L5, is retained in non-patent infection
But remember, horse also patent infection
132
Which inflammatory mediators are upregulated in cases of severe equine asthma?
* IL-8
* IL-1b
* TNF-a
133
What kind of immunologic response occurs in severe equine asthma?
Th2 response, IgE mediated
134
It is believed that there is a genetic component in severe equine asthma. Which gene could be implicated?
* IL-4 receptor gene
* IL-4 enhances IL-8
135
Pathophysiology of EIPH
Rupture of alveolar capillaries secondary to increase in intramural pressure (increase in both capillary and alveolar pressure)
136
Does furosemide affect performance in cases of EIPH?
Administration 4 hrs before is associated with improved racing outcomes
137
Is furosemide effective prophylaxis for EIPH?
4 hours before extrenous exercise decreases the severity and incidence of EIPH
* Furosemide decreases pulmonary capillary and transmural pressure
138
Mucus scoring for equine asthma
* Grade 0 = no mucus
* Grade 1 = single to multiple small blobs
* Grade 2 = larger but non confluent blobs
* Grade 3 = confluent or stream forming
* Grade 4 = pool forming
* Grade 5 = profuse amounts
139
For glanders (farcy), why would you do a IDT?
To certify negative horses
Is zoonotic and cases have to be reported to OIE
140
What is necessary in a cytology to diagnose a fungal pneumonia?
Large number of fungi in degenerated neutrophils in a speedily processed sample
141
Which diagnosis with high Se and Sp can be used for Conidiobolomycosis?
Serum antibodies
142
What is your interpretation of high titers for aspergillosis?
Is common from environmental exposure
* Definitive diagnosis is by culture\*, IHC, IF
143
Why antifungals like azoles or amphotericin B are not effective against pneumocystosis?
Pneumocystis carinii lacks ergosterol! FML!
144
If you want to diagnose pneumocystosis, what sample would you submit?
BAL for cytology
* Can NOT be cultured
145
In cases of strangles, how long does the nasal shedding last?
2-3 weeks
146
Best way to increase detection of R. equi
Culture + PCR (90% detection)
147
Purpura hemorrhagica is a type ____ hypersensitivity reaction
III
148
How would you institute ventilation in a case of ALI/ARDS?
Low tidal volumes
149
Would you use bronchodilators to treat a case of ALI/ARDS?
No! It can worsen the V/Q mismatch
150
OIE recommendations for influenza vaccine
Florida clades 1 and 2
151
What is the reason for vaccine failure in EIV?
Antigenic drift
152
What are the principals hallmarks of ALI/ARDS?
1. Increased alveolar-capillary permeability edema\*
2. Infiltration and activation of inflammatory cells
3. Atelectasis
4. Pulmonary hypertension
153
Clinical effects of ALI/ARDS
* Dyspnea
* Profound hypoxemia secondary to V/Q mismatch
* Reduced lung compliance
154
Important diagnostic test in ALI/ARDS for confirming condition and assess progression
Serial measurements of PaO2
155
What is the mainsted treatment for interstitial pneumonia?
Corticosteroids
Early and agressive therapy provides the best long-term outcome
156
Gene implicated in heritability of RAO
IL-4 receptor gene
157
Response that mediates ocurrence of RAO
Th-2 mediated pathway
158
What test should be used to certify a horse negative for Glanders?
IDT
159
Virulence factor for Trueperella pyogenes
Pyolysin
160
Which is an effective way to protect calves against infection with B. trehalosi?
Administration of a multivalent MLV vaccine containing M. haemolytica toxoid
161
Which bronchodilator can be used in a case of RAO? ©
Ipratropium
162
Which disease is difficult to erradicate with vaccination and isolation? ©
Equine Influenza Virus
163
If suspected of M. haemolytica, P. multocida or H. somni, what is the best way to collect a sample that is clinically significant?
Distal to the nasopharynx --\> TTW, BAL
If not possible, at least deep NPS
164
Which is the best drug for treatment and prevention of BRD? ©
Oxytetracycline
165
Best measure for eradication of EAV from herd ©
Manage carrier stallions
Vaccinate mares that are bred to the carrier stallion
166
Mycoplasma other than M. bovis causative of BRD? ©
M. dispar
| (can be normal upper respiratory flora)
167
Best treatment for BRD in dairy cattle ©
Ceftiofur
168
What is known about the use of furosemide for EIPH? ©
Decrease severity and incidence
| (reduces pulmonary vascular pressure)
169
Lung lesions in EIPH ©
Bilateral and more in caudo-dorsal region
Pleural and septal fibrosis and angiogenesis
Venous remodeling
170
Advantages of ultrasouund for R. equi ©
Evaluation of severity of pneumonia and response to therapy
171
Best treatment for dyspnea in alpaca ©
???
172
SaO2 of 90% corresponds to _____ mmHg
60 mmHg
173
Blood gas changes in a V/Q mismatch ©
V/Q = 0 --\> same as venous blood (PO2=40; CO2=45)
V/Q = infinity --\> same as inspired air (PO2=149; CO2=0)
174
Neutrophils in BAL of llama ©
11% --\> higher than horses
175
Status of bronchi in IAD ©
No bronchoconstriction
176
Primary fungi pathogen ©
Coccidioides immitis
177
Action of macrophages in R. equi ©
Activation of IFNg by CD4+
178
Test to diagnose airway responsiveness in cases of IAD ©
Histamine aerosol --\> elevated levels of leukotriene C4
