Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What can be achieved by endoscopy in a respiratory case

A
In horse can visualise nasal passages, guttaral pouch, nasopharynx, soft palate, larynx and trachea. In SA only see trachea, mainstem bronhci and large division of main bronchi. 
Can also:
> tracheal wash
> guided bronchoalveolar lavage
> cytology brushes
> Biopsy discrete lesions
> retrieval of foreign bodies
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2
Q

What are the methods of diagnosis of bacterial respiratory problems in horse

A

> Nasopharyngeal swab - specific organisms not normal to the commensal of pharynx e.g strep equi equi

> Guttural pouch lavage - lavage and reaspirate

> Endoscopically guided tracheal aspirate - Visualise thorasic inlet where fluid fluid accumulates and insert 30 mls of saline. Representative of the whole lung however contaminated by pharyngeal flora.

> Trans-Tracheal aspirate - incision site at lower third of trachea, catheter advanced between cartilaginous rings. This eliminates pharyngeal contamination, also useful in young foals that cant handle large endoscope. However if horse coughs then catheter contaminated and can cause subcutanoes emphysema

> Broncho-alveolar lavage - Tube advanced until wont advance anymore and balloon inflated. 100-200ml of saline used.

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3
Q

Whats the role of anticholinergic and B2 agonists

A

bronchodilators

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4
Q

What does an opoid receptor agonist achieve

A

prevents cough

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5
Q

How do you distinguish between upper and lower airway cough

A

Upper - Harsh, loud and non productive cough ( larynx upwards)

Lower - Soft, muted productive cough

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6
Q

what are differentials for inspiratory and expiratory distress

A

Inspiratory:
> Extra-thoracic non fixed airway obstruction - Laryngeal hemiplasia ( Lack of innervation causes atrophy of the dorsal cricoarytenoid muscle (left) causing the arytenoid cartilage to flap into larynx) or soft palate disorders
> Restrictive diseases - Limit lung expansion e.g p[leural effusion

Expiratory distress:
> Intra-thoracic airway obstruction - Severe equine asthma or tracheal collapse

Inspiratory and expiratory = Intraluminal mass/foreign body

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7
Q

What are the differentials for orthopnea (difficults breathing while recumbant)

A

> Pleural effusion
Diaphragmatic hernia
Congestive heart failure

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8
Q

What does nasal discharge indicate

A

> Can be serous, mucoid, purulent or haemorrhagic
Unilateral discharge tends to originate rostral to the caudal end of the nasal septum
Bilateral tends to be from caudal structures
Foul odour indicates anaerobic infection, necrotizing condition or connection to oral cavity (rotten tooth)

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9
Q

What are differentials for stridor

A

Stridor is intense respirtory sounds heard without a stethoscope.
> Fixed/dynamic obstruction - Laryngeal paralysis, stenotic/paralysed nerves, nasal masses or soft palate elongation

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10
Q

What is primary and secondary atelectasis

A

Primary - Failure of lung to expand at birth
Secondary - Aquired atelectasis. Collapse of all/part of the lung was previously ventilated. Occurs due to compression (air, mass or fluid) or obstruction

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11
Q

What are the 3 types of emphysema

A

Emphysema = Excessive air in the lungs

  1. Alveolar - Permanent abnormal enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, due to obstruction of alveolar wall by neutrophilic enzymes (elastase)
  2. Interstitial - Air forced into septal lymphatic due to forced expiration.
  3. Compensatory - Emphysema adjacent to area of consolidation
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12
Q

Name 3 types of circulatory disorders

A
  1. Hyperaemia - increased inflow of oxygenated blood, normal venous return
  2. Congestion - Normal inflow, Decreased outflow leading to an increase in deoxygenated blood.
  3. Oedema - Pulmonary oedema is flooding of alveoli , mixes with surfactant causing foam which compromises ventilation. Can be caused by:
    > Cardiogenic - pressure overload due to LHS heart failure
    > Neurogenic - Sympathetic stimulation in acute brain damage resulting in increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure
    > Excessive fluid therapy - Damage to endothelium or epithelium, can be due to toxic substance e.g smoke
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13
Q

Describe bronchopneumonia

A

Caused by a bacterial infection causing lesions in the cranio-ventral regions of the lung due to increased deposition of infectious agen under gravity, then spreads lobule to lobule. 3 possible outcomes:

  1. Resolution - Resolves in 7d, back to normal in 3w
  2. Deteriation - Abscess formation (due to pyogenic bacteria), Pleuritis ( in severe fibrinous pneumonia) or death due to hypoxaemia
  3. Persistence - Fibrosis and bronchiectasis ( permanent dilation of bronchi due to irreversible damage to walls)
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14
Q

Describe broncho-interstitial pneumonia

A

Caused by inhaled mycoplasmas and some viruses. Inflammation of bronchioles. Interstitial lymphocytic proliferation results in complete lymphoid follicles around airways

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15
Q

Describe interstitial pneumonia

A

Secondary to haematogenous. Inflammation centred on interstitial septa rather than airways. Diffuse distribution. Can be caused by distemper virus.

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16
Q

What is ‘fog’ fever

A

Also known as acute bovine pulmonary oedema and emphysema. cattle moved to fast growing lush pasture , causing the ingestion of tryptophan. metabolised to 3-methyl indole which is toxic to type 1 pneumocytes causing pulmonary oedema and emphysema

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17
Q

Whats the cause of undifferentiated bacterial pneumonia in foals and yearlings, clinical signs, diagnosis and treatment

A

Caused by:
> Strep.zooepidemicus (most common)
> actinobacillus
> s.aureus

Clinical signs:
> cough
> mild pyrexia
> auscuitable changes

Diagnosis: Mucopurelent exudate in trachea on endoscopy. Tracheal aspirate yields increased neutrophils (degenerate) & bacteria

Treatment: Antibiotics that are effective against strept zooepidemicus. can do culture sensitivity test, dust free environment.

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18
Q

What Infectious agents cause URT and LRT issues in foals and yearlings

A

URT
> EHV 1 & 4
> Equine influenza
> Strept. equi equi

LRT
> EHV 1 & 4
> equine influenza
> rhodoccus equi
> strept. equi equi
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19
Q

Describe the main differences between upper and lower airway disease in horses

A

Upper airway disease:
> most common in young horses 2-3 years ( immunologicaly naive)
> clinical signs include fever, nasal discharge, coughing and enlarged submandibular lymph nodes.

Lower airway disease:
> Common in race horses
> bacterial cause more often
> CS: coughing, poor performance, mucoid tracheal secretions and + or - nasal discharge and fever

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20
Q

Whats the result of equine herpes virus 1 & 4

A

75% of horses thought to have latent infection ( sites of latency include bronchial LN, submandibular LN and trigeminal nerve. EHV -4 mainly respiratory
> First exposed as foals by lactating mare
> Immunity only last 3-5 months, hence a vaccine is useless
> Infection during final trimester of pregnancy causes placental vasculitis (EHV-1)
> Replicate in URT (causing URT signs)and disseminate to LRT

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21
Q

Describe the result of equine influenza and how its diagnosed

A

> Most common cause of URT infection.
Immunity short lived, vaccine can supress clinical signs but still shedding
Short incubation (1-3 days) then spread to URT, causing loss of ciliated cells predisposing to secondary bacterial infection e.g strep zooepidemicus

Diagnosis
> tracheal aspirate yields increased mucous and degenrate neutrophils.
> Neutrophilia indicates secondary bacterial infection
> Lymphocytosis indicates viral infection
> Nasopharyngeal swab (PCR) or paired serology (10d apart)

Treatment - Nsaids, hydration, isolate, limit stress, symptomatic

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22
Q

Describe mild equine asthma

A

Also known as inflammatory airway disease.
> Common in young race horses
> Characterized by excess mucous in airways and possible cough/reduced performance.
> NO increased RR at rest
> Causes include dusts, ammonia and LPS (bacterial infections)
> Diagnosed by increased mucous production and on BAL increased mucous + neutrophils/mast cells or eosinophils

Treatment
> Reduce airway inflammation
> Bonchodilators (clenbutarol)
> Reduce dust

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23
Q

Describe severe equine asthma

A

Also known as Recurrent airway obstruction (RAO)
Due to hypersensititvty of inhaled substances
> Naturally occuring Lower airway disease characterized by periods of reversible airway obstruction
> Neutrophil accumulation, mucous production and bronchospasms.
> Lifelong condition usually effecting over 7 years old
> Results in respiratory distress and increased respiratory effort (double expiratory effort)

Diagnosis by BAL, want to rule out bacterial pneumonia as this is major ddx, increased cellularity, especially non degenerate neutrophils

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24
Q

What is strangles, what are the 3 possible clinical presentations

A

Caused by Streptococcus equi equi. If born from an immune mare will be resistant for 3 months. Mostly effects 1-5 year olds. Transmitted by direct contact of nasal secretions/LN discharge or on fomites (1-3 days). Horses can be asymptomatic chronic carriers (in guttural pouch) for 5-6 months). 3 clinical presentations:

  1. Classic acute - Causes fever, depression, innapetence, lymphadenopathy, abscessation of mandibular, parotid and retropharyngeal LN (rupture in 7-10d), mucoid to purulent nasal discharge and abscess can compress larynx causing dyspnoea.
  2. Atypical - Mild inflammation of the URT causing slight nasal discharge, cough and fever. Dangerous because it present as a typical URT infection and can be treated with antibiotics and clears up. Therefore never diagnosed and horse becomes latenly infection shedding bacteria into environment.
  3. Complication - Internal abscessation - Intermittent colic, pyrexia, anorexia, depression and weight loss.
    Purpura haemorrhagica - Generalised vasculitis caused by type III hypersensitivity. Thrombi of small arteries cause skin and muscle necrosis, ventral limb oedema, and guttural pouch emphysema and chondroids (lumps of pus)
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25
Q

How is strangles diagnosed, treated and how is a outbreak managed

A

Culture & PCR from LN pus or nasopharyngeal swab. 3x swab a week apart.
Treatment - dependent on stage of disease
> Exposed horse - penicillin until isolated
> Early clinical signs - Penicillin, soft food and pyretics
> LN abscess present - Hot water and swab to encourage abscess to burst + antibiotics.
> Abdominal abscess - Long term antibiotics
> Guttural pouch emphysema - Drainage via pharyngeal opening or surgical drainage+ antibiotics
> Purpura haemorrhagica - Penicillin, prednisolone, fluids and any palliative treatment.
> Carriers - Guttural pouch lavage + topical benzypenicillin gelatin - sticks to wallks killing bacteria, repeated in 2 weeks.

  • Conformation of resolution when 3 negative PCR nasopharyngeal swabs 7d apart.
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26
Q

What is Rhodococcus equi, what are the clinical signs, how is it treated and prevented

A

Seasonal challenge in the late spring/summer as theres an increase in aerosol challenge to susceptible foals. Causes bronchopneumonia with wide spread abscess formation.

clinical signs - Anorexia, depression, fever, dyspnoea, tachypnoea and cough.
Can also present with GI signs, an ulcerative enterocolitis, mesenteric lymphadenitis, abscess formation and 2nd peritonitis.

Treated with clorithromycin and rifampin
> If total added diameter <8cm then 75% resolve with no tx

Prevent with increased ventilation, dusty condition, collect manure, isolate sick foals, rotate pasture and can prophylacticly use hyperimmune plasma

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27
Q

Why is equine rhinitis virus maybe not significant

A

Can be isolated in asymptomatic horses as well as those with mild URT/LRT signs. Treat symptomatically

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28
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of equine viral arteritis, clinical signs, and diagnosis

A
Notifiable venereal disease of stallions. Incubation of 3-14 days. 
Replicates in macrophage then spread to LN's causing a leucocyte associated viraemia. 
Clinical signs:
> Fever
> Abortion
> anorexia
> oedema
> Conjunctivitis
> coughing and nasal discharge

Diagnosed by blood sample, semen or nasal swabs
Treated symptomatically

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29
Q

What is EIPH

A

Exercise induced pulmonary haemorrhage.
> haemorrhage originates from pulmonary vessels in the caudodorsal lung lobes. Originates here because there high blood flow and mechanical forces transmitted to lung are greatest here.
> Cardiac output + pulmonary vascular pressure increase 10x during exercise. Failure occurs at 100mmHg but PA pressure reaches 120mmHg during exercise
> Predisposed by age, LRT disease (e.g equine asthma), URT obstruction and cardiac disease

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30
Q

What makes up the kennel cough complex, what are the clinical signs and what is the treatment/prevention

A

Also known as canine infectious disease (CIRD) complex. Mainly due to canine parainfluenza virus and bordetella bronchiseptica. Also canine adenovirus, coronavirus and mycoplasmas can contribute.

Clinical signs: Cough, retching, nasal/occular discharge and sneezing. usually resolve in 1-3 weeks. A secondary bacterial infection can cause bronchopneumonia and systemic disease. If it doesnt resolve in 2 weeks then tracheal-broncheal wash used, PCR to rule out distemper and culture sensitivity with charcaol.

Treatment: Rest, antibiotics, cough suppresant (opoid agonist), mucolytics and bronchodilators

Prevention via live attenuated vaccine (can cause clinical signs) given intranasaly to induce high IgA = stopping at an early stage.

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31
Q

Describe canine distemper virus, its clinical signs and how its diagnosed

A

Shed in in bodly fluids and aerosol.
> Enters respiratory tract spreads to tonsils and LN’s. > Infects macrophages causing a viraemia and systemic dissemination = immmunosuppresion leaving animal prone to secondary bacterial infections.
> 2-3 weeks later will ever mount a sufficient humoral and cellular response or will spread to epithelial cells of repspiratory, GI and CNS and genital tract

Clinical signs - Nasal/ocular discharge, cough, diarrhoea, vomitting, depression and anorexia.

Diagnosis - PCR
*ferrets also susceptible

32
Q

What are the 3 factors contributing to bovine respiratory disease

A

Condition in young calves, once tissue is has pathology will never revert back. Often an underlying viral infection triggered by stress (transport) then 2ry bacterial infection.

  1. Environment - Ensure adequate ventilation, minimize stress, good roof outlet, good stocking density, house in age groups and ensure adequate temperature ( below 7 degrees calf will use energy for warmth not growth)
  2. Host - Adequate colostrum (10% BW in first 4 hours), good nutrition ( 900g growth a day and 700g post weaning)

Pathogens
> Bacterial - pasteurella multicoda, mannheimia haemolytica and mycoplasma
> Viral - Parainfluenza, bovine respiratory syncitial virus, infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (can have latent infection as caused by herpes virus) and BVDV
* treat with oxytetracyclin + NSAIDS

33
Q

What is enzootic pneumonia in cattle

A

Usually effects calves. Decreased feed intake, dull and coughing. If animal temp is >39.5 treat, and if over 25% of calves effected then mass treat to prevent outbreak ( Metaphylaxis)

34
Q

What is a marker vaccine and what vaccine is it used for

A

Vaccine for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (bovine herpes virus-1) . DIVA vaccine meaning it lacks a gE antigen meaning it can be differentiated from truly infected animals by using a conventional test + a marker test.

35
Q

what is calf diptheria

A

Caused by fusobacterium necrophorum. Lesions in the mouth, tongue and larynx. Produces foul smelling necrotic lesion. Caused by food trapped between teeth and buccal mucosa. generally a sign of poor hygiene

Clinical signs:
> excessive salivation
> foul breath
> swollen cheeks

36
Q

What is shipping fever

A

effects weaned calf at about 2 years of age. Triggered by stress (e.g transport, mixing, change in diet and poor air quality).
Presents - pyrexia, depressed appetite, increased RR and cough

Pathogens include
> Manheimia haemolytica, pastuerella multocida. Causes severe bronchopneumonia.

37
Q

What are the possible causes of dyspnoea in dogs

A

> obstructive disease - Either nasal obstruction (rhinitis, neoplasia or polyp), asthma, tracheal collapse, laryngeal paralysis or brachycephalics (elongates soft palate, stenotic nare and laryngeal collapse)

> Loss of thoracic cavity - plueral effusions, pneumothorax, ruptured diaphragm, neoplasia, cardiomegaly or Pericardio-peritoneo diaphragmatic hernia.

> Pulmonary parenchymal disease - compromising of gas exchange. Broncho pneumonia, pulmonary oedema, neoplasia, pulmonary haemorrhage, fibrosis or parasite

> Pulmonary vascular disease - Due to pulmonary hypertension ( increased RV afterload) or pulmonary thromboembolism

> Non respiratory causes - hyperthermia, obesity, excitement, anaemia and acidosis

38
Q

What is feline infectious upper respiratory disease complex

A

Composed of:
> Feline herpes virus - causes respiratory signs. Can also cause abortion, also congenitally effected kittens can have encephalitis.
> Feline calicivirus - causes oral ulceration. Highly likely to mutated causing arthritis and lameness.
> Chlamydiphilia felis - cause occular signs

39
Q

What are ddx for acute cough in dogs

A

> canine infectious tracheobronchitis (kennel cough)
Airway irritation
Pulmonary haemorrhage of oedema
acute pneumonia

40
Q

What are ddx chronic cough in dogs

A
> Chronic bronchits
> parasite
> tracheal collapse
> cardiac disease
> bronchopnuemonia
41
Q

What is chronic bronchitis in dogs and how is it managed

A

Typically effecting small fat breeds, causes a dry hacking cough than is paroxysmal.
Charcaterised by:
> increased mucous
> decrease in efficacy in defence mechanism
> dry hacking cough
> inflammation and possible secondary infection

may see bronchial pattern on xray.
Once you have not going to eleviate cough, can
manage it:
> Bronchodilators - terbutaline/theophyline
> antibacterial
> Antitussive - Butorphanol - supress NON productive cough, dont use if patient has alveolar pattern
> Mucolytics - Bromohexine
> steroids

42
Q

What is feline asthma and what is the therapy and maintenance

A

Most common cause of persistent cough in cats. Due to a airway hypersensitivity causing inflammation, mucous, oedema and bronchoconstriction.

Present with intermittent dyspnoea and coughing, weezing on expiration. Bloods show eosinophilia and xray shows hyper inflated lung and bronchial pattern.

Therapy: 02, rapid acting corticosteroids (methyl prednisolone succinate) and bronchodilators. Managed on nebulised corticosteroids and bronchodilators (tetrabutaline)

43
Q

What is canine and feline lung worm

A

Angiostrongylus vasorum - IH is slug. Causes a chronic cough unresponsive to conventional treatment (opoid agonist, mucolytics, antibacterials, bronchodilators). Causes Coagulopathy = fatal. Treat with fenbendazole

Aelurostrongylus - feline

44
Q

Whats the most common neoplasia of the rhinarium

A

> Squamous cell carcinoma ( especially in white coated animals). Only requires wide local incision
MCT tend to metastasise and chemotherapy is required dependent on histopath grade.

45
Q

Describe brachycephalic airway obstruction and what surgical treatment can be done

A

Primary pathology
> Elongated soft palate in relation to skull size
> Stenotic nare

Secondary pathology
> Longg term increased respiratory effort at sub atomspheric pressures causes eversion of mucosa of the lateral laryngeal ventricles ( constant vibrations makes them oedematous)
> Laryngeal collapse

Surgery
> Rhinoplasty - enlarge nares
> Staphylectomy - posterior soft palate resection
> Resection of everted mucosa of the lateral laryngeal ventricles
> Temporary tracheostomy - Permanent if in laryngeal collapse.

46
Q

Describe laryngeal paralysis

A

Can be congenital (husky) or aquired
> Usually an age related neuropathy. First to occur because the Left recurrent laryngeal nerve is the longest peripheral nerve.
> Presents as excercise intolerance with chronic cough, increased respiratory noise (sounds like sawing wood), dysphagia (difficulty swallowing).
> Can do a laryngoplasty, suturing arytenoid to thyroid.

47
Q

Describe tracheal collapse

A

Weak dorsal ligament created a dynamic obstruction to air flow. Present with a goose honk cough.

> in older dogs can use a intraluminal stent as a palliative treatment. However causes extensive granulation tissue. Increase QoL for 1 year.
In a younger dog will want to place a prosthetic tracheal ring.

48
Q

What lung lobes are most commonly involved in lung lobe torsion

A

Right middle and cranial lobes, they are the smallest

49
Q

Describe the life cycle, Pathogenisis (4stages) of bovine lung worm

A

Dictyocaulus viviparus
LC: Adults lay embryonated eggs in trachea/bronchi, coughed up and swallowed. L1 passed in faeces and mature to L3. L3 ingested and migrate from GIT to lungs. PPP 3.5 weeks

Pathogenisis:

  1. Penetration phase (week 1) - No clinical signs, larvae migrating)
  2. Pre-patent phase (week 1-3) - Development + migration causes bronchiolitis + eosinophilic exudate which blocks passage of air causing distal collapse of alveoli causing tachypnoea and cough
  3. Patent phase ( week 4-8) - Mature worms pass eggs causing bronchitis and consolidation as the eggs are aspirated (parasit pneumonia).
  4. Post patent phase ( week 8-12) - Most worms have been expelled. clinical signs flare up in 25% of cases due to alveolar epitheliasation, interstitial emphysema, secondary infection.
  • causes parasitic granuloma due to massive cellular infultration = grey/green and eoisinophilic plugs in bronchioles.
  • Immunity rapidly builds after infection
50
Q

Describe the diagnosis of bovine lung worm in adults and calfs and describe the control

A

Dictyocaulus viviparus

Diagnosis (calf)
> Seasonal incidence in late summer
> Baeman technique for faecal exam - Larvae have blue tail and intestinal granules whereas GIT larvae have large tail and intestinal cells.

Adult
> No larvae in faeces therefor test for antibodies in bulk milk tank (retrospective diagnosis after anthelmentic treatment)

Control - Huskvac vaccine. Oral vaccine with irradiated L3, given to first season calves at 2 & 6 weeks post turnout. will provide life long immunity providing theres low level challenge. Prevent DISEASE NOT INFECTION.

  • Doramectin (ivermectin) given 0 + 8 weeks post turnout as it has 5 weeks residual activity
  • Never mix vaccinated and non vaccinated animals because the vaccinated animals will provide low levels of L3 which will infect non vaccinated causing amplification of numbers, so that even vaccinated become diseased.
51
Q

Apart from dictyocaulus viviparus what are the other large animal lung worms

A

Dictyocaulus filaria
> Same LC as dictyocaulus vivparus
> Have knob on head

Muellerius
> LC is indirect with mollusc IH - PPP 6-10 weeks
> Causes nodular lesions which contain adults and larvae in lung parenchyma
> Larvae shaped like a ladies shoe

Protostrongylus
> Indirect LC, adult worm located in small bronchioles. PPP 5-6 weeks
> Adult worms block small bronchioles

52
Q

Whats the equine lung worm and hows it diagnosed/controled

A

Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
> Causes raised ares of over inflated pulmonary tissue ( around small bronchus which contain worms and mucopurulent exudate), peribronchial cuffing and
hyperplastic bronchial epithelium

diagnosis
> Donkeys are asymptomatic carriers!
> Baemans faecal exam
> Tracheobronchial wash shows large amounts of eosinophils

Control
> Dont have donkeys with horses on pasture, if u do treat with anthelmentic

53
Q

What is angiostrongylus vasorum, whats the clinical signs, and hows it diagnosed and treated`

A

Canine lung worm with a barber pole appearance. Metastrongyloid with IH life cycle.

Clinical signs

  1. cardio-respiratory - Chronic coughing and excercise intolerance
  2. Coagulopathies - Subcutaneous haematomas, internal haemorrhage. Due to thrombocytopenia and decreased clotting factors
  3. Neurological signs - Behavioral changes, ataxia, loss of vision. Due to CNS haemorrhage.

Diagnosis - Faecal sample for 3 consecutive day. Low numbers released at intermittently therefore need 3.

Treatment - Advocate (moxidectin) monthly
- milbemycin weekly for 4 weeks

54
Q

What respiratory issue causes a bent snout in preweaned pigs

A

Bordetella bronchiseptic infection causes a progressive atropic rhinitis infection due to pasteruella multocida. Causes destruction of turbinates = bet snout

55
Q

What causes enzootic pneumonia in pigs

A

Mycoplasma hypopneumonia.
> 30-80% of pigs at slaughter have lesions
> Commonly seen in weaned pigs, increasing coughing, decreased feed conversion and variance in growth. Spread up to 2 miles by aerosol

56
Q

What is glassers disease

A

Causes a polyserositis, resulting in arthritis, menigitis and peritonitis.

57
Q

What is aujeskys disease

A

A notifiable disease in pigs caused by swine herpes virus type 1. Clinical presentation is age dependant
> <4weeks = neurological signs, 100% mortality
> 4weeks - 5months = Neurological + pneumonia. 15% mortality
> >5months - Abortion, URT cough and possible neurological signs

58
Q

Describe swine influenza virus

A

Causes Pyrexia (causing abortion), lethargy, skin rythema, anorexia, sever cough/sneezing, dyspnoea and conjunctivitis. Interstitial pneumonia

59
Q

Describe porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus (PRRS)

A

High affinity to alveolar macrophages. destroys macrophages and endothelial cells causing immunosuppresion and vasculitis (abortion).
Vaccine available.

60
Q

What characterises sheep pneumonia

A
Most common resp issue in sheep. Predisposed by age, ventilation and stress.
Main infectious agents are:
> Mannheimia haemolytica
> Adenovirus
> Parainfluenza virus 3
> Mycoplasmas
61
Q

What is enzootic pneumonia in sheep

A

Predisposed by parainfluenza virus 3 damage then allowing colonization of M.haemolytica. Commonly effecting young lambs (cause sudden death by septicaemia) and lambing ewes.
Isolation of agents from nasal cavity not diagnostic, PM only way.

Treat with oxytetracyclins and vaccination if theres an out break. combined with clostridial vaccine.

62
Q

Whats the significant ovine respiratory parasite

A

Dictyocaulus filiria
> peak larval contamination in autumn/winter. Lambs up to 1 year affected. Immunity builds up by exposure.
Severe infection with sheep with johnes disease.

63
Q

What is Maedi-visna

A

Slow growin virus effecting sheep. Causes mastitis, severe respiratory distress and emaciation. Slow progression of signs. effects sheep over 3.

64
Q

What is sheep pulmonary adenomatosis

A

progressive disease in sheep caused by a retrovirus. Causes a bronchial-alveolar lung tumour and mass amount of fluid to form. Usually killing effected sheep at 3-4 years (killed dolly the sheep).
Diagnosed by wheelbarrow test, resulting in fluid from nose

65
Q

Whats the most common cause of nasal discharge due to guttural pouch disease

A
Will usually be uni lateral odourless discharge. 
> guttural pouch emphysema most common
> GP catarrah
> GP mycosis or neoplasia
> Strep equi equi
66
Q

Describe dorsal displacement of soft palate

A

Soft palate is buttoned onto the larynx creating an air teat seal, making the horse an obligate nasal breather.

> However, with DDSP free border of the palate which is normally under epiglottis moves dorsaly during exercise causing a dynamic obstruction = mouth breathing.

> Normally caused by neuromuscular dysfunction effecting thyrohyoideus muscle

> Staphylectomy performed - caudal free margin of soft palate is trimmed

67
Q

What do curshmanns spirals indicate

A

Found in sputum and indicate inflammation

68
Q

What is epiglottic entrapment

A

Envelopment of the epiglottis by subepiglottic mucosa and aryepiglottic fold. Causes stridor (expiratory noise) and decreased performance. Division of entrapment tissue is treatment

69
Q

Whats progressive ethmoidal haematoma

A

Progressive non neoplastic mass lesion in ethmoid turbinates causing spontaneous epistaxis in horses
> treated with transendoscopic laser treatment

70
Q

What are the possible signs of guttural pouch mycosis

A

> Epistaxis - Grow adherent to vessels (internal/external carotids)
Dysphagia - Due to damage to cranial nerves IX and X
Nasal discharge
Horners syndrome

71
Q

What is an atheroma

A

Subcutanoeus cyst in the nasal diverticulum. Not obstructive purely cosmetic

72
Q

What is guttural pouch tympany

A

Excessive accumulation of air in the guttural pouch. Non painful swelling at the parotid gland.

73
Q

What is a bronchial lung pattern and when might you see one

A
When the bronchial walls are visible further out in the periphery than usual, creating 'tram lines'. May also see dohnuts, indicating thickened walls. Caused by:
> Chronic bronchitis
> calcification
> pulmonary oedema
> Eosinophilic bronchopnuemopathy
> neoplasia
74
Q

What is an interstitial lung pattern and what are the possible causes

A
hazy increased lung opacity, partially obscuring the margins of the pulmonary vessels. Causes:
> chronic respiratory disease
>  acute viral pnuemonia
> acute pulmonary oedema
> diffuse infiltrative neoplasia
75
Q

What is an alveolar lung pattern and what are the possible causes

A
Opaque lung completely obscures the margins of pulmonary vessels. Only gas visible is the middle of bronchi. Cause:
> Pulmonary oedema
> Haemorrhage
> Aspirated fluid
> Cellular infultrate
76
Q

What is a hypervascular lung pattern and what are possible causes

A

Vessels appear enlarged, usually change in cardiac silhoutte also. Caused by:
> Left sided heart failure
> Iatrogenic fluid overload
> Left to right shunt causing over circulation
> Heart worm infection

77
Q

What is a hypovascular lung pattern and what are the possible causes

A
Pulmonary vasculature appear thread like. Heart and vena cava appear smaller. Causes:
> Right sided heart failure
> Right to left shunt
> addisons
> hypovalaemic shock