Respiratory Infection Flashcards

(34 cards)

1
Q

What is the primary TB infection?

A

Host macrophages engulf organisms in the lungs and carry them to hilar lymph nodes. These can disseminate to leave tubercules (granulomas) around the body.

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2
Q

How can a primary TB infection result?

A

Active TB symptomatic infection
Miliary TB (bloodstream spread)
LTBI

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3
Q

Risk factors for TB?

A
Social deprivation factors - homelessness, IVDU, alcohol
Close contact incl healthcare workers
Ethnic minority groups
Immunocompromised incl HIV
Elderly and very young
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4
Q

Are most symptomatic cases of TB from primary infection or secondary re activation of LTBI?

A

Re activation of LTBI

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5
Q

How does symptomatic TB most often present?

A

Pulmonary TB - cough - productive +/- blood

Lobar collapse, Bronchiectasis, pleural effusion, pneumonia

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6
Q

Second most common TB presentation?

A

GU ‘sterile pyuria’

Kidney lesions, salpingitis, abscesses, infertility, epididymitis

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7
Q

MSK TB presentations?

A

Bone - Potts vertebra (collapse -> gibbus)

Pain, osteomyelitis, arthritis

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8
Q

CNS TB presentations?

A

TB meningitis

Tuberculomas

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9
Q

GI TB presentations?

A

Ileocoecal lesions - pain, bloating, obstruction

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10
Q

Lymphadenopathy in TB?

A

Hilar, para tracheal and superficial Alan’s

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11
Q

Skin presentations of TB?

A

Erythema multiforme, nodosum, induratum

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12
Q

What is the typical CXR finding for a primary TB infection?

A

Central apical portion with left lower lobe infiltrate +/- pleural effusion

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13
Q

CXR findings for reactivated TB?

A

Apical lesions

NO pleural effusion

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14
Q

Microbiological investigation of TB?

A

Sputum samples - 3, at least 1 early morning sample
Bronchoscopy +/- lavage
Biopsy LNs

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15
Q

How long does TB sputum culture take? How long for sensitivities?

A

Culture 4-8 weeks

Sensitivities further 3-4 weeks

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16
Q

Which drug resistance in TB can be detected quicker than the usual culture and sensitivity?

17
Q

What does BCG stand for?

A

Bacillus Calmette-Guerin

18
Q

Screening for TB?

A

Mantoux test for close contacts unless known to be immune or vaccinated, in which case interferon gamma testing

19
Q

Drug management of TB?

A

Pyrazinamide and ethambutol for first 2 months

Rifampicin and isoniazid for first 2 months then a further 4 months

20
Q

How long should Rifampicin and isoniazid be given in acute meningeal TB? What else should be given?

A

12m, alongside steroids (prednisolone)

21
Q

What is DOT and what is it for?

A

Direct observed therapy - to ensure good compliance for TB treatment

22
Q

What side effects do all TB drugs generally have in common?

A

Liver derangement

23
Q

Rifampicin side effects?

A

Orange tears and pee
Liver enzyme derangement and drug interactions - lower active availability of e.g. Warfarin, steroids, oestrogen, phenytoin
Flu like Sx

24
Q

Liver derangement in Rifampicin use - what is okay and what isn’t?

A

Mild rise in AST fine.

Stop if bilirubin rises or major transaminase derangement

25
What alternatives to Rifampicin are second line for TB?
Macrolides and quinolones
26
Side effects of ethambutol?
Visual disturbance | Renal impairment
27
Side effects of isoniazid?
Peripheral neuropathies - comorbid RFs
28
What drug is given to prevent peripheral neuropathy in isoniazid use?
Pyridoxine
29
What is TB and how is it spread?
A chronic granulomatous disease caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria Spread by infected droplets
30
What is the specific pathogen often implicated in pneumonia associated with exposure to sick birds?
Chlamydophila Psittaci
31
What does coxiella burnettii cause?
Q fever
32
3 most important causes of atypical pneumonia?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae Chlamydophila pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila
33
Which common causative agent of a typical pneumonia is often difficult to treat with antibiotics?
Haemophilus influenzae
34
What atypical pneumonia pathogen is implicated in disease with history of water risk-factors incl foreign travel and faulty air con?
Legionella pneumophila