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Cardiopulm Final > Respiratory Meds and VTE > Flashcards

Respiratory Meds and VTE Flashcards

(68 cards)

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1
Q

_____ SNS and/or _____ PSNS is beneficial to maintain normal bronchial lumen air size

A

increase SNS
decrease PSNS

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2
Q

where are beta 2 receptors?

A

in lungs and skeletal muscle

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3
Q

beta 2 receptors are ______ for the SNS and ____ for the PSNS (adrenergic or cholinergic)

A

SNS - adrenergic
PSNS - cholinergic

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4
Q

the SNS ____ (dilates/constricts) at the beta 2 receptos

A

dilates

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5
Q

what are the 3 main causes of abnormal bronchial tone?

A

inflammation
excessive PSNS
reduced SNS

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6
Q

2 main categories of bronchodilators

A

sympathomimetic agents
decongestants

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7
Q

what are the parasympatholytic agents

A

muscarinic antagonists
methylxanthines
corticosteroids

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8
Q

the Vagus nerve carries out its efferent output via wat neurotransmitter?

A

ACH

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9
Q

what is the most common parasympatholytic agent?

A

atropine

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10
Q

bronchodilators are indicated for what respiratory diseases?

A

acute asthma and anaphylaxis

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11
Q

what is the first line of drugs used?

A

sympathomimetic agents

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12
Q

T/F: sympathomimetics are used for upper respiratory disorders.

A

F; lower

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13
Q

sympathomimetics stimulate ___ receptors

A

beta 2

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14
Q

which drug class is a short acting beta2 agonist (SABA)?

A

sympathomimetics

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15
Q

a rescue inhaler is considered a ____ class

A

SABA

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16
Q

side effects of bronchodilators

A

increase HR
increased BP
palpitations
angina
tremors

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17
Q

what is a non-selective (affects all adrenergic receptors) bronchodilator?

A

epinephrine

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18
Q

if a person has a _____% increase in FEV1 after taking a bronchodilator, asthma is diagnosed

A

12-15%

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19
Q

what meds are SABAa?

A

Albuterol
Salbutamol

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20
Q

what meds are LABAs?

A

formoterol
salmeterol

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21
Q

SABAs work for ____ hours

A

4-6

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22
Q

LABAs work for _____ hours

A

10-12

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23
Q

what meds can be given to COPD pt with bronchospasms?

A

selective beta 2 adrenergic agonists (SABA & LABA)

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24
Q

what is the largest concern with using decongestants?

A

blood pressure

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25
decongestants stimulate ___ receptors to ...
alpha-adrenergic shrink mucosal membranes
26
side effects of decongestants
dizziness hypertension nausea nervousness insomnia headaches CV irregularities
27
where are alpha receptors?
gut
28
decongestants cause vaso____ in the abdominal vessels
constriction
29
indications for muscarinic antagonists
- bronchodilation - reduces secretions in mouth and airways - reverse paralysis of respiratory system due to poisoning - used for bradycardia
30
are muscarinic antagonists used for asthma?
no
31
suffix for muscarinic antagonists
-pium
32
side effects of muscarinic antagonists
dry mouth and/or skin headaches tachycardia blurred vision rash decreased GI activity dizziness confusion
33
methylxanthines promote increased ____
cAMP
34
suffix for methylxanthines
-lline
35
methylxanthines are ______ inhibitors
phosphodiesterase
36
indications of methylxanthines
- promote prostaglandin inhibition (decrease inflammation) - enhance catecholamine production - stimulate CNS and skeletal mm
37
how does methylxanthines increase exercise tolerance?
increased contractility of skeletal mm and reduce fatigue of diaphragm
38
cAMP is a precursor for
epinephrine and norepinephrine
39
phosphodiesterase inhibitors are a ______ class of cardiac meds
positive inotrope
40
side effects of methylxanthines
chest pain dizziness fainting fast, slow, or irregular heartbeat increased urine lightheadedness persistent vomiting pounding or rapid pulse seizures tremors
41
which meds are immunosuppressants?
corticosteroids
42
indications for corticosteroids
- limit inflammation - decrease mucus secretions
43
side effects of corticosteroids
all immune cells decreased retain water (Cushing's) myopathy osteoporosis decrease tissue healing hyperglycemia hypokalemia !! thrombus formation !! growth retardation
44
Gold 1 COPD classification
FEV1 = 80%+
45
Gold 2 COPD classification
FEV1 = 50-79%
46
Gold 3 COPD classification
FEV1 = 30-49%
47
Gold 4 COPD classification
FEV1 <30%
48
which test measures dyspnea?
Modified Medical Research Council Dyspnea Scale (mMRC)
49
which test measures COPD symptoms?
COPD Assessment Test (CAT)
50
side effect of respiratory stimulants
respiratory drive to breath decreased due to less stimulation by CO2
51
respiratory depressants indications
hyperventilation cause by: sepsis large infection brain injury
52
what class is morphine?
respiratory depressant
53
dopram indications
respiratory stimulant: stimulates chemoreceptors in carotid arteries and cortical-spinal neurons
54
Is it worse to have a VTE distal or proximal? why?
proximal (popliteal up) larger vessels = larger VTE higher risk of morbidity
55
what is used to assess risk of VTE?
Padua Prediction Score
56
use ______ criteria to decide if treat pt with VTE
Wells
57
what Wells criteria score indicates a high risk of VTE?
greater than 3 (8 is highest)
58
what test assess UE VTE risk?
Constans
59
what Constans score indicates a high risk of UE DVT?
2-3
60
what interventions should PT do to decrease risk of DVT?
1. encourage mobility and PA 2. use mechanical compression 3. consult MD about meds 4. educate on VTE preventions
61
T/F: the Homan's sign is an effective and validated way of testing for DVT
FALSE
62
normal D-dimer level
<500 ng/mL
63
what lab values dictate if it is safe to get pt up after coagulation?
prothrombin time (PT) partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
64
what is used to monitor the effectiveness of Warfarin (anticoagulant) for blood thinning?
International Normalized Ratio (INR)
65
there is an increased risk of clots with a _____ International Normalized Ratio (INR)
lower
66
there is an increased risk of bleeding with a _____ International Normalized Ratio (INR)
higher
67
what is a normal International Normalized Ratio (INR)?
2-3
68
a pt who has had a embolectomy will be under ___ precautions
sternal

Cardiopulm Final (6 decks)

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