Retina 3

Question 1

Uveal effusion syndrome

Answer 1

reduced transsceral aqueous outflow in posterior chamber resulting in effusions causing ERD. Causes include abnormal scleral composition/thickness, scleritis, idiopathic. Hyperopia is associated as is nanophthalmos.

Question 2

If BDUMB (bilateral diffuse uveal melanocytic proliferation) is suspected, what is the most likely underlying cause?

Answer 2

Systemic cancer of some sort (ovaries, uterus, lung, etc)

Question 3

Does MCP (multi-focal choroiditis and panuveitis) affect women or men more?

Answer 3

women

Question 4

Chronic scars in MCP may appear like what other ocular condition?

Answer 4

OHS

Question 5

PIC usually occurs in what type of person?

Answer 5

Young women with myopia

Question 6

Acute idiopathic maculopathy

Answer 6

-sudden central vision loss proceeded by flu like symptoms-ERD-Bull’s eye pattern RPE atrophy-Nearly complete recovery of vision-idiopathic

Question 7

What is the initial management of CMV retinitis?

Answer 7

IV ganciclovir or foscarnet

Question 8

Within 1 year of diagnosis of CMV retinitis, how many patients will have an RD?

Answer 8

50%

Question 9

What is a common complication of immune recovery with CMV retinitis?

Answer 9

uveitis

Question 10

Amphotericin B does not penetrate the vitreous well. What would be a suitable alternative for yeast endophthalmitis?

Answer 10

Fluconazole penetrates well and would work

Question 11

What is the most frequent cause of endogenous endophthalmitis in patients who have had a liver transplant?

Answer 11

Aspergillus

Question 12

Acute onset inflammation contiguous with a previous chorioretinal scar is considered pathognomonic with what?

Answer 12

Toxoplasmosis

Question 13

An alternative to triple therapy for toxoplasmosis is what?

Answer 13

Bactrim

Question 14

What is the underlying etiology of DUSN (diffuse unilateral subacute neuroretinitis)

Answer 14

subretinal nematode

Question 15

What is the most common form of color vision deficit?

Answer 15

Deuteranomalous affecting 5% of males

Question 16

What is the most common form of acquired (thus affecting males and females equally) color deficiency?

Answer 16

tritanomalous (yellow-blue)

Question 17

CSNB

Answer 17

NAME?

Question 18

In Fundus albipunctatus, is there normal recovery of rhodopsin levels?

Answer 18

yes, but it takes hours longer than normal so they are functionally night blind

Question 19

What is a distinguishing ERG finding that differentiates fundus albipunctatus from similar clinical pictures seen with retinitis punctata labescens?

Answer 19

Fundus albipunctatus will recover rhodopsin levels eventually but retinitis punctata albescens will not

Question 20

What type of treatment is reasonable to suggest in a patient with RP in a sectoral fashion?

Answer 20

UV light protection and anti-oxidant vitamin supplementation; not a bad idea for all RP patients really

Question 21

The infantile or early forms of RP is called what?

Answer 21

Leber congenital amaurosis

Question 22

What is key for making a diagnosis of leber congenital amaurosis?

Answer 22

ERG (will be markely abnormal or unrecordable)

Question 23

Does hearing loss occur at birth or progress in patients with Usher syndrome?

Answer 23

At birth

Question 24

Development of bilateal subfoveal choroidal neovascularization evolving to GA at the age of 40 is characteristic of what? TIMP3 is the mutated gene.

Answer 24

Sorsby Macular dystrophy

Question 25

Choroidemia causes atrophy of what part of the eye?

Answer 25

RPE and choriocapillaris

Question 26

What is the proposed treatment for Gyrate atrophy?

Answer 26

Arginine restriction (very difficult) and Vit b6 supplementation

Question 27

Nystagmus and visual acuity 20/100-200 is more characteristic of true albinism or albinoidism?

Answer 27

True albinism, this is because of retinal hypoplasia

Question 28

What two systemic syndromes should be thought of in a child with ocular albinism?

Answer 28

1. Chediak Higashi2. Hermansky-Pudlak

Question 29

Zellweger syndrome is what category of metabolic disease?

Answer 29

Peroxisomal disease

Question 30

What is a stage 1A macular hole? Stage 1B?

Answer 30

Stage 1A is pseudocyst formation with split within the inner retinal layer and 1B is progression to involve the outer retina. Neither are full thickness.

Question 31

What are associated ocular findings in an eye with anterior PFV?

Answer 31

Microophthalmos, elongated ciliary processes, shallow AC

Question 32

Of the 2 main groups of hereditary hyaloideoretinopathies (those with only ocular findings and those with systemic in addition) what are the representative syndromes?

Answer 32

1. Wagner syndrome (only ocular findings of optically empty vitreous2. Stickler Syndrome (has associated systemic findings)

Question 33

What retinal sequelae should warrant consideration for prophylaxis in Stickler syndrome?

Answer 33

RD's, Wagner syndrome does not have increased risk of RD's

Question 34

What is FEVR similar to clinically? What is different in the history from this similar disease?

Answer 34

ROP; normally full term with normal respiratory status

Question 35

Scleroetaria involves rupture of what to layers?

Answer 35

retina and choroid

Question 36

Adult onset foveomacular vitelliform dystrophy is often associated with what genetic mutations?

Answer 36

RDS/Perpherin

Question 37

Was high BMI found to be a risk factor for CRVO or BRVO in their respective major studies?

Answer 37

BRVO; DM was found to be a risk factor for CRVO, no BRVO

Question 38

When should infants meeting criteria for ROP screening (i.e. premature, small birth weight) first be screened?

Answer 38

4-6 weeks from birth or between 31st and 33rd week gestation, whichever is LATEST. Most hospitals have these babies screened before they are discharged.

Question 39

What was the major outcome of the TAP (treatment of age-related macular degneration with photodynamic therapy trial)?

Answer 39

PDT is better than laser for predominately classic subfoveal CNV.

Question 40

What was the major outcome of the VIP (Verteporfin in PTD therapy)?

Answer 40

PDT is recommended for occult (but not classic) CNV with lesion size smaller that 4 MPS DA or baseline VA <20/50

Question 41

The VISION (VEGF inhibition study in ocular vascular neovascularization) was in relation to what anti-VEGF?

Answer 41

Macugen