review Flashcards
(180 cards)
1
Q
Which planes divides the body into medial and lateral segment?
A
Sagittal
2
Q
during loading response phase of gait what can cause knee hyperextension?
A
weak quadriceps
fixed ankle plantar flexion deformity
quadriceps spasticity
3
Q
What is the major limitation of type II B muscle fibers?
A
high fatigability
4
Q
Muscle atrophy is most often associated with which drug classification?
A
Glucocorticoid agents
5
Q
which two bony surfaces comprise the temporomandibular joint?
A
mandibular fossa of the skull; condylar process of the mandible
6
Q
what tendon surrounds the pisiform bone?
A
flexor carpi ulnaris
7
Q
repair of the lateral ankle ligaments is commonly performed secondary to ?
A
complete tear of the anterior talofibular ligament and/or calcaneofibular ligament, or to chronic ankle instability
8
Q
which phase of gait requires the greatest amount of ankle dorsiflexion range of motion?
A
Terminal stance (10 degree)
9
Q
What is festination?
A
forward trunk lean and progressive increase in cadence , often associated with Parkinsonian gait
10
Q
which structure would be necessary to palpate with suspected Colles’ fracture?
A
distal radius
Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement of the fracture segment.
11
Q
what is the common mechanism of injury of Colles’ fracture?
A
fall on an outstretched hand
12
Q
capsular pattern of the cervical spine
A
lateral flexion and rotation equally limited, extension
13
Q
open/closed packed position for cervical spine
A
open - midway between flexion and extension
closed - full extension
14
Q
capsular pattern of the hip
A
flexion, abduction and medial rotation
15
Q
what is force couple
A
two force vectors on opposite sides of an axis that create a collective movement
16
Q
Neer test
A
subacromial impingement
pain occurring at 60-120 degree of shoulder flexion
pain or facial grimace is a positive
17
Q
comminuted fracture
A
fracture that breaks into fragments at the site of injury
18
Q
De Quervain’s disease is a progressive tenosynovitis of which two tendons?
A
abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
19
Q
when assessing a patient’s ability to open their mouth fully, what distance between the top and bottom rows of teeth is considered fuctional?
A
25 millimeters
normal ROM is 35-55 millimeters, but only needs 25-35 millimeters for everyday activities
20
Q
which biological energy system is the primary source of adenosine triphosphate at rest?
A
oxidative system
primary source of ADP at rest and low intensity activity.
uses primary carbohydrates (70%) and fats (30%)
21
Q
elastic shrinker is for?
A
edema control and residual limb shaping
due to the possible stress on the incision site, elastic shrinkers are not recommended until the sutures have been removed from the amputation site
22
Q
excessive space between the acromion and the head of the humerus while at rest may be?
A
instability
23
Q
Ludington’s test
A
positive - rupture of the long head of the biceps if absence of movement in the biceps tendon
patient clasp both hands behind the head with fingers interlocked, patient is then asked to alternately contract and relax the biceps muscles.
24
Q
a child with right torticollis would most likely present with plagiocephaly in the area of the
A
left occipitoparietal bone
due to pressure placed on left occipitoparietal bone during lying supine
25
what is the name of the disk that is located between the C7 and T1 vertebrae
C7 disk
26
tightening of the joint capsule would most likely produce what type of end feel?
abnormal firm end-feel
27
Levator scapulae
origin insertion and action
transverse process of C1-4
superior portion of the medial border of scapula
scapular elevation and downward rotation
28
closed packed position of temporomandibular joint
mouth maximally closed, teeth clenched
29
what is chondromalacia patella
softening of the articular cartilage of the patella.
premature degradation of the patellar cartilage
s&s anterior knee pain, pain with prolonged sitting, swelling, crepitus, and pain when ascending and descending stairs
30
where does the majority of rotation occur in the cervical spine?
atlantoaxial joint (C1-C2)
31
Stages of stroke recovery
Stage 1 - initial flaccidity with no voluntary movement
Stage 2 - emergence of spasticity, hyperreflexia, synergies
Stage 3 - voluntary movement possible, but only in synergies, strong spasticity
Stage 4 - Voluntary control in isolated joint movements emerging, decline of spasticity and synergies
Stage 5 - increasing voluntary control out of synergy, coordination deficits still present
Stage 6 - Control and coordination near normal
32
what structures in contained within the popliteal fossa?
Popliteal artery and vein, tibial and common fibular nerves, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, and termination of the small saphenous vein
33
What mechanism of injury would be most likely to produce a Hill-Sachs lesion?
Anterior glenohumeral dislocation
it is characterized as an impaction fracture of the posterior superior humeral head and is frequently diagnosed in patients who have repeatedly sustained anterior glenohumeral dislocation
34
what is waddling gait
wide base of support and is often described as duck-like with increased lumbar lordosis and a protruding abdomen. The muscles of the pelvic girdle deteriorate, which causes the patient to use circumduction to compensate for gluteal weakness
often observed in patients with muscular dystrophy
35
what mechanism of injury is commonly associated with Bankart lesion?
Anterior shoulder dislocation
avulsion of the labral ligamentous complex from the anteriorinferior aspect of the glenoid
36
immediate and severe swelling following a knee injury would most likely indicate damage to the?
anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
medial inferior genicular artery runs through the ACL as a result tearing ACL often produces hemarthrosis of the knee joint
37
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is most appropriately classified as?
X-linked recessive disorder
38
what is Bouchard's nodes
found at proximal interphalangeal joints and are characteristics of osteoarthritis in the hand
39
the area of a sarcomere where only myosin filaments are present is known as the
H-zone
located in the center of sarcomere and decreases in size during muscle contraction as the action filaments slide over the myosin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere
40
open/close packed position of the facet joints
midway between flexion and extension
extension
41
degree of toe out for an average adult is
7 degree
42
anterior apprehension test for the shoulder places the joint in which position?
abduction and lateral rotation
to test anterior shoulder instability/dislocation
43
which muscle unlocks the locked knee by rotating the tibia medially on the femur
popliteus
it originates on lateral femoral epicondyle and inserts on the posterior surface of the tibia the muscle medially rotates the tibia on the femur if the femur is fixed
44
adolescent presenting with pain over the tibial tubercle most likely has
osgood-schlatter disease
painful bump over the tibial tubercle and pain with athletic activities
45
capsular pattern of radiocarpal joint
flexion and extension equally limited
46
how much extension of the first metatarsophalangeal joint would be necessary for a patient to stand on tiptoe?
55 degree
patient must possess full plantar flexion ROM and minimum of 5 degrees of extension at the first metatarsophalangeal joint
47
what is controlled mobility?
ability to move within a weight bearing position or rotate around a long axis
48
In the FABER the patient does which of the following movments?
Flexion abduction and external rotation
this is test to assess the anterior sacroiliac ligament
49
water of a controlled compression unit can be maintained at what temp?
50-77 degree F
50
what is descriptive research?
it is aimed to systematically describe a particular situation or event
it generally provided using descriptive statistic
51
Gross motor function levels1
Level I - walks without limitation
Level II - walks with limitations
Level III - walks using hand held mobility device
Level IV - self mobility with limitation may use powered mobility
Level V - transported in a manual wheelchair
52
At what age in the months should an infant be able to belly craw?
8-9 month
also cruising
creep at 10-11 months
walk at 12 month
53
when pushing ort pulling an object what position should you be in?
semi-squat
54
what is dehiscence?
separation of a surgical incision or rupture of a wound closure typically in abdominal incision
55
what is convenience sampeling
samples being selected from subjects who are convenient or readily available to the researcher
56
Maximal results for pain reduction with TENS comes with?
appropriate spinal cord level/segment
57
ankle plantar flexion ROM
0-50
58
patient who was recently had a hip replacement should use which grade of stocking to prevent complication from surgery?
Class 1 hosiery compression socks
59
which muscles flexes and adducts the wrist?
Flexor carpi ulnaris
60
what are the way to attain maximal benefits from Dopamine replacement agents that is taken by Parkinson's disease patient?
scheduling therapy one hour after administration of levadopa
understanding the debilitating effects of drug holidays
monitoring the patient's blood pressure frequently
61
Zinc oxide is used for? (also what charge)
iontopheresis treatment for skin ulcers
positive charge
62
if you are working a patient who has a loss of cognitive function that interferes with routine personal, social and occupational activities, this patient suffers from what?
dementia
63
what is restrictive lung dysfunction (RLD)
caused by abnormal lung parenchyma or abnormal pleura
Dyspnea on exertion, a persistent non-productive cough, increased reparatory rate, hypoxemia, decreased vital capacity, abnormal breath sounds, and reduced exercise tolerance
64
what is equinovarus?
damage to common fibular nerve
patient has footdrop accompanied by inversion, foot points down and in
65
what is hypovolemia
loss of bodily fluid
can occur from loss of blood, loss of plasma or loss of water
66
ataxic gate pattern
staggering and unsteadiness
67
What is Allen test
test vascular insufficiency in the wrist and hand
compressing radial and ulnar arteries while patient is holding a fist
positive is delayed or absent flushing of the radial or ulnar half of the hand
68
arthroplasty is a common procedure for
rhematoid arthritis
osteoarthritis
complex fraxtures
69
skeletal muscles are innervated by?
Somatic nervous system
70
perineal membrane in the female connects what to the isciopubic rami?
urethra, vagina, and perineal body
71
Streptococcal group A is transmitted via
droplets
72
Mumps are transmitted via
droplets
73
Varicella is transmitted via
airrborne
74
Shigella is transmitted via
contact
75
what are the potential risk of thermotherapy
skin damage
burns
fainting
bleeding
76
gluteus maximus is innervated by
inferior gluteal
77
Chronic stress increases what and causes what kind of affect to healing?
elevates cortisol and it inhibits healing
78
acute stress increases what and causes what kind of affect to healing?
leucocyte activity (white blood cell) and it enhances healing of inflammation
79
negative reinforcements is
when something uncomfortable is taken away
80
positive reinforcement
administering desirable consequences to individuals who perform a specefic behaviro
81
extinction performance is
removing selected variables that reinforces a specific behavior
82
what is cystic fibrosis
disorder caused by exocrine glands causing excessive mucus production in the bronchial lining
autosomal recessive disorder more prevalent in Caucasian
83
what type of sensation does causalgia have
constant, relentless, burning hyperesthesia and hyperalgesia
type of complex regional pain syndrome
84
stance phase is subdivided into
initial contact, foot flat, midstance, hell off and preswing
85
swing phase is subdivided into
initial swing, mid swing and terminal swing
86
for patients that has peptic ulcer disease you should recognize
heart rate increase or blood pressure decrease may be signs of bleeding, back pain is a sign of perforated ulcer of the posterior wall of stomach and duodenum
monitor signs of bleeding
87
adductor longus innervated by
obturator
88
adductor brevis innervated by
obturator
89
adductor magnus innervated by
obturator
90
obturator externus innervated by
obturator
91
gracilis innervated by
obturator
92
piriformis innervated by
sacral plexus
93
superior gemellis innervated by
sacral plexus
94
inferior gemelli innervated by
sacral plexus
95
obturator internus innervated by
sacral plexus
96
quadratus femoris innervated by
sacral plexus
97
semitendinosus innervated by
sciatic nerve tibial division
98
semimembranosus innervated by
sciatic nerve tibial division
99
biceps femoris long head innervated by
sciatic nerve tibial division
100
biceps femoris shout head innervated by
sciatic nerve common peroneal division
101
peroneus longus innervated by
superficial peroneal nerve
102
peroneus brevis innervated by
superficial peroneal nerve
103
gluteus medius innervated by
superior gluteal nerve
104
gluteus minimus innervated by
superior gluteal nerve
105
tensor fsasciae latae innervated by
superior gluteal nerve
106
soleus innervated by
tibial
107
popliteus innervated by
tibial
108
plantaris innervated by
tibial
109
tibialis posterior innervated by
tibial
110
gastrocenemius innervated by
tibial
111
flexor hallucis longus innervated by
tibial
112
flexor digitorum longus innervated by
tibial
113
deltoid innervated by
axillary
114
teres minor innervated by
axillary
115
rhomboids innervated by
dorsal scapular
116
levator scapula innervated by
dorsal scapular
117
pectoralis major clavicular head innervated by
lateral pecoral
118
serratus anterior innervated by
long thoracic
119
subscapularis innervated by
lower subscapular
120
teres major innervated by
lower subscapular
121
pectoralis maojor sternal head innervated by
medial pectoral
122
pectoralis minor innervated by
medial pectoral
123
coracobrachialis innervated by
musculocutaneus
124
subclavicus innervated by
subclavius
125
supraspinatus innervated by
suprascapular
126
infraspinatus innervated by
suprascapular
127
latissimus dorsi innervated by
thoracodorsal
128
subscapularis innervated by
upper subscapular
129
gluteus maximus innervated by
inferior gluteal nerve
130
psoas major and minor innervated by
lumbar plexus
131
quadratus lumborum innervated by
lumbar plexus
132
vastus lateralis, intermedius , medialis innervated by
femoral
133
rectus femoris innervated by
femoral
134
tibialis anterior innervated by
deep peroneal
135
if you have a common fibular nerve damage what happens?``
footdrop
plantar flexed and iversion
136
patient who has chest wall pain following thoracic surgery should not go though
percussion
it can increase risk of hemorrhage or unstable angina
137
if patient has carpal tunnel syndrome, what are the treatment they can get?
splinting
ergonomic measures
local corticosteroid injections
138
how long should cold pack be cooled between treatment
30 min
139
medigap plans
health insurance sold by private insurance companies to fill the gaps in medicare plan coverage
140
carpal bone medial to lateral (distal first)
Trapezium Trapezoid Capitate Hamate
Scaphoid Lunate Triquetrum Pisofrm
So Long To Pinky Here Comes The Thumb
141
dynamic extension splint
provides appropriate proprioceptive input while providing muscular support
also called outrigger
common for metacarpalphalangeal surgery
142
effect of magnetic field therapy
affect of cell membrane transport
143
Berg Balance Scale test out of how many pt and how many pt for a risk patient
14 task scale from 0-4
total of 56 score less than 45 is risk of falling
144
what is the purpose of arches in foot
absorb shocks, support body weight, and provide leverage when walking there are transverse and longitudinal arch
longitudinal has lateral and medial
145
Medicare Part B covers
services like lab surgeries and doctor visits
supplies wheelchairs and walkers
that is considered medically necessary
also preventive services
146
hot packs need how many layers
6-8
147
isokinetic contractions help determine
performance of muscles
provide specific information about nerves tendon or ligaments
148
what joint is commonly immobilized by devices to reduce pain
subtalor joint
often involve in ankle sprain
149
Ortolani's sign
test that might be done during assessment of an infant for develpmental dysplasia of the hip
150
what irregular heart beat is the most fatal type of arrhythmias?
ventricular fibrillation
151
what are the function of the liver
metabolizing proteins, secreting bile and carbohydrate and lipid metabolism
152
suppurative acute inflammation
copious amounts of pus
153
Acupuncture TENS uses what kind of stimulation
low
154
impairment of the parietal lobe of cerebrum includes
impaired language comprehension, taste, and contralateral sensory deficits
155
the three stage model of motor learning
cognitive, associative and autonomous
156
radial deviation ROM
0-20
157
difference between battery and negligence
battery intentional
negligence unintentional
158
Cranial nerve VII
facial
159
Cranial nerve III
oculomotor
160
Cranial nerve VIII
vestibulocochlear
161
Cranial nerve V
trigeminal
162
Cranial nerve IV
trochlear
163
cranial nerve IX
glossopharyngeal
164
cranial nerve X
vagus
165
cranial nerve XI
accessory - shoulder shrug
166
cranial nerve XII
hypoglossal - tongue
167
ASIA scale
A - complete impairment
B - sensory but no motor function
C - motor incomplete - muscle grade less than 3
D - motor incomplete muscle grade greater than or equal to 3
E - normal
168
keywords for Osteoarthritis
unilateral
bouchard nodes (PIP)
heberdens nodes (DPD)
osteophytes
pain decrease in morning after 30 min
genu varum (outward)
169
cva keywords
Aphasia aproxia language - left side
spatial deficits, lack of attention, emotional - right
170
RA keywords
genu valgum
bilateral
ulnar drift
swan neck deformity
boutonere deformity
pain longer than 30 min in morning
171
difference between autograft and allograft
autograft - permanent skin graft taken from own body
allograft - skin graft from another human
172
primary difference between cardiac and skeletal muscles
contraction of the heart muscle is initiated within the heart muscle
173
what will you see on a positive bursitis indication
heat on palpation at the joint
174
Tinel's sign
indicated by tingling in the thumb index finger middle finger and lateral half of the righ finger distal to contact site at the rest
positive may indicative carpal tunnel syndrome due to median nerve compression
175
ADA parking space should be
96 in wide and 240 in long
176
cymbalta
selective serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
used for generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorder
177
threshold potential
electric voltage level at which cardiac cell become activated and produce an action potential which leads to muscle contraction
178
contrast bath
alternate bathing with hot and warm water
second water should be 50-64F
179
metabolic alkalosis
increased HCO3 and pH and decreased chlorine and potassium
caused by acid loss from vomiting or gastric suctioning excess base intake from absorbable antacids, potassium depletion from diuretics and potassium intake
180
afterload
forces that impede the flow of blood out of the heart
