review Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

4 things for handwashing**:

A

4 things for handwashing**:
1. before initial patient contact
2. Before an aseptic procedure
3. After body fluid exposure risk (after procedure)
4. After patient/patient environment contact
- remember PPE, get risk of gloves after one task, wear barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hepatitis B Virus Diagnostic Testing:**

A

Hepatitis B Virus Diagnostic Testing:**
Serology testing for HBV antigens and HBV antibodies
Diagnostic test uses antigens (from virus) and antibody production (from host response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Treat all patients if they have:

A

Bloodborne pathogens
Infectious/drug resistant organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chain of Transmission:

A

Infectious agents: what’s spreading
Reservoirs: where is it found?
Susceptible hosts: who is susceptible?
Portal of exit: how does it go from person to person?
Portal of entry: how did it get into/on the person?
Modes of transmission: how was it transmitted?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Routes of Transmission:

A

Routes of Transmission:
Respiratory: airborne, droplet
Parenteral (anywhere other than mouth): needle-stick injuries, abrasions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vaccine induced immune response

A
  • 1st/Primary Response: IgM develops relatively quickly, then IgG much later, takes 7-14 das to mount a response
  • 2nd/Secondary/Anamnestic (Memory) Response: (Post vaccine, actual exposure): HUGE and FAST IgG response, smaller IgM; takes 1-2 days after exposure and lasts sort-of forever may need a booster
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

live attenuated vaccine

A

live organism that is significantly weakened
VZV, MMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

inactivated vaccine

A

killed, completely dead
not as immunogenic
HAV, Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

polysaccharide vaccines

A

needs frequent boosters
streptococcus, neisseria, pneumococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

toxoid vaccines

A

strong immune response bc toxins are naturally immunogenic
tetanus, diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

subunit vaccines

A

uses small portions of pathogen put together and presented as an antigen to us
bordetella pertussis, prevnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Recombinant Vector Vaccines (DNA Vectors)

A
  • DNA viral vector with DNA spliced into it
  • viral DNA that produces viral proteins and put into a vector
  • vector enters body; shit loads of viral proteins are made
  • sueper good target practice but also super experimental
    HBV, malaria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how do vaccines work

A
  1. antigen or foreign protein of a pathogen is presented to host
  2. host mounts an antibody/t-cell/both response to protein components of pathogen
  3. viral proteins aren’t great at eliciting strong IR, need proteins carried on adjuvants which potently initiate immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

passive immunization

A

temp protection, given there’s no time to develop antibodies through active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hepatitis

A

general term, clinical presentation “inflammation of liver”
we focus on the viruses
5 types: ABCDE; ABC is focused, D is Africa/Middle East, E is sea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hep A Presentation

A

telltale is jaundice
can be completely asympt, can cause disease, fever, nausea, debilitating vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hep A diagnosis

A
  • ALT liver enzyme means you should get a Hep test
  • Detecting HAV IgM in serum = early antibodies, acute infection
  • Detecting HAV IgG in serum = later antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hep A prevention

A

no vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hep B transmission

A

sexually
parenteral (iv)
perinatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

hep c pathogenesis

A

acute phase
chronic
cirrhosis
liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

HBsAg

A

surface antigen (ur infected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HBsAB

A

surface antibody (immune)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HBcAB (IgM)

A

core antibody early
were infected more recently, still an acute infection, started developing an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HBcAB (IgG)

A

core antibody later
infected a while ago; could be in past or chronic stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
HBeAg
Envelope Antigen Virus actively replicating and you are infectious
26
HBeAB
Envelope antibody body is stopping virus from replicating
27
prevention of HBV
vax antivirals liver transplant - for liver failure
28
bacteremia
presence of bacteria in bloodstream
29
primary bacteremia
ONLY in blood
30
secondary bacteremia
blood AND other sites
31
transient bacteremia
- bacteria enters blood but immune sys can handle it - no symp - not clinically signif
32
intermittent bacteremia
(more common than continuous) bacteria comes from EXTRAvascular source (wound, UTI, GI perforation)
33
continuous bacteremia
bacteria consistently from INTRAvascular source (biofilms from IV line, endocarditis)
34
bacteremia diagnosis
collect blood in culture bottles, DON'T refrigerate, send to lab ASAP rapid cultures help ensure early antibiotic therapy and decrease hospital stay
35
Common causes of issues with blood cultures**
1. inadequate skin preparation; clean top of bottle AND skin to prevent contaminants from skin 2. improper volume of blood taken: collect 8-10 mL per bottle, collect 3-4 bottles (4 if >70 pounds or older than 15) 3. not take from right sites: two sites; site #1 and #2 each 1 anaerobic and 1 aerobic bottle; if doing 3 bottles don't do 2nd anaerobic bottle 4. improper number of bottles 5. improper timing; take before antibiotic initiation, 10-20 min btwn sites 6. issues with pediatric patients; <35 lbs take ped's bottles with 1-3 mL in each bottle
36
likely a blood culture contaminant if
coagulase neg staph, prop acne, gram +'ve bacilli in ONE bottle
37
possible pathogen for blood culture
same organism diff times >1 bottle and >1 set - staph aureus, gram neg bacilli (e. coli), bacillus anthracis, c. diff OR multiple bottles of coagulase negative staph, prop acne, gram positive bacilli
38
epidemic impetigo
- epidermal eruptions of flacid pustules around mouth and nose (highly contagious lesions, rupture and form thick honey coloured crust) - superficial, epidermis - streptococcus pyogenes (group a strep), staphylococcus aureus - treatment: Abx w/o culture if not healing/complicated take culture Risk Factors: day care/school, breaks in skin
39
erysipelas
- infection of deeper skin layers - may b source of bacteremia - causes inflammation - dermis - streptococcus pyogenes (group a strep)
40
cellulitis
- deeper infection - may cause bacteremia - subcutaneous layers of skin - staphylococcus aureus, streptococcus pyogenes, pseudomonas aeruginosa, gram neg bacilli - follows local infection/trauma
41
furuncles
- infected sebaceous gland - always treat staphylococcus aureus - treatment: cloxacillin (unless MRSA)
42
decubitus ulcers
- bed sore colonized with mixed potential pathogens and non pathogens - complete breakdown of the skin therefore deep layers - often skin flora or GI flora organisms - treatment: nursing care
43
types of surgical wounds
clean = no contamination clean contaminated = clean would but in area w bacterial colonization contaminated = wound is close to high prevalence of organisms dirty/infected = wound in site with existing infection
44
bites
- know what kind of bite - complications: cellulitis, abscess, deep tissue infection
45
fasciitis
- rapidly progressing cellulitis with EXTENSIVE NECROSIS of subcut tissue resulting in injection of inner fascia - organisms: toxin producing agents; streptococcus pyogenes - rapid clinical diagnosis with gram stain and culture for confirmation
46
dermatophyte infection
- fungal infection of hair, skin, or nails (ringworm, dandruff, athletes foot) - caused by yeast or dermatophytic fungi or tinea/ringworm - diagnosis: clinical, skin/nail scraping sent for calcofluor stain +/- fungal culture - treatment: topical antifungals
47
scabies
- female microscopic mite that burrows into skin and lays eggs causing inflammatory reaction - diagnosis: clinical; can see the tracks/migratory patterns of mites, immunological reaction to eggs causing inflammation, very easily spread bc patient shed mice
48
scabies
- female microscopic mite that burrows into skin and lays eggs causing inflammatory reaction - diagnosis: clinical; can see the tracks/migratory patterns of mites, immunological reaction to eggs causing inflammation, very easily spread bc patient shed mice
49
lice
head lice
50
crabs
pubic lice
51
herpes simplex virus
- cold sores (HSV 1) - genital (HSV 1 or 2) - organism HSV type 1 and 2 - direct contact transmission; kissing, sex - diagnosis: clinical, also possible genital viral culture - treatment: antiviral drugs
52
varicella zoster virus
chicken pox or shingles - respiratory spread to blood than to skin - healthcare workers test for immunity, live vaccine
53
Conjunctivitis (pink eye)
- infection/inflammation of conjunctiva - organisms: organisms in upper resp tract are most common bacteria: strep pneumo virus: adenovirus neonates: chlamydia trachomatis diagnosis: gram stain and culture treatment: abx if bacterial, supportive care if viral, antivirals if HSV
54
otitis externa
infection of OUTER ear typically caused by environment: swimmers ear, prolonged antibiotic use diagnosis: only do culture and sensitivity if extensive/severe treatment: dry the area, topical Abx after enviro is cleaned out/dried
55
otitis media
infection of INNER ear blocked eustachian tubes therefore no draining of normal secretions and no pressure regulation organisms: often pathogens of URTI; bacteria: streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae viral: RSV, influenza diagnosis: otoscope treatment: Abx
56
pharyngitis
majority caused by viruses viruses: - epstein Barr - adeno - influenza bacteria: - streptococcus pyogenes = STREP THROAT - chlamydia diagnosis: throat swab treatment: penicillin complication: endocarditis
57
tracheobronchitis
croup, laryngitis, bronchitis viruses: RSV, influenza, parainfluenza bacteria: bordetella pertussis (whooping cough)
58
tracheobronchitis: influenza
fall and winter, in the tropics = yr round virulence factors: paralyze cilia, antigenic drift and shift diagnosis: NP swab or wash, virus culture, PCR
59
tracheobronchitis: parainfluenza
croup in children bronchitis in older children/adults clinical unless hospitalized
60
tracheobronchitis: RSV
- bronchiolitis (inflammation of bronchus) fall and winter - diagnoses: NP swab or wash, rapid antigen detection, virus culture, PCR complication: pneumonia
61
whooping cough
bordetella pertussis (gram neg) that infects resp epithelial cells starts w mild URTI: cough leads to uncontrollable coughing followed by a WHOOP and vomiting PCR of NP swab prevention: DTaP vaccine
62
pneumonia
inflammation and infection of lungs acute onset, fever, SOB, productive cough types: community acquired, ventilator associated, hospital acquired
63
community acquired pneumonia
streptococcus pneumoniae (most common), haemophilus influenzae (2nd most common) diagnosis: blood culture, PCR
64
ventilator associated pneumonia
translocated from URT to LRT via tube - pseudomonas aeruginosa, MRSA diagnosis: blood cultures, suctioning
65
tuberculosis
mycobacterium tuberculosis - transmission from airborne droplets from coughing, sneezing, speaking - culture, TB test infection control: neg pressure, private room 6-9 month treatment
66
cystitis
bladder infection
67
pyelonephritis
kidney infection
68
urethritis
urethra inflammation
69
how to UTI's happen
1. organisms from rectum/perineal region translocate to urethra 2. normal flora typically protect against this (lactobacillus) 3. if UTI untreated = urosepsis
70
asymptomatic bacteriuria
NOT AN INFECTION, colonization of bacteria do we treat it? NO if they have a catheter: change catheter and re-assess
71
uncomplicated UTI's
healthy adults non-preg
72
complicated UTI's
structural or functional urinary tract abnormalities preg women catheters
73
diagnosis of UTI's
urine dipstick *if positive and sympt present=UTI, if neg=further testing urine culture and sensitivity - midstream
74
interpreting urine culture results
1 organism growing - that's responsible of colonies of organism 1> # of colonies of organism 2: organism 1 is causing UTI 3 diff bacteria" most likely contaminated if bacteria not growing a lot (<10 colonies): prob not a UTI
75
treatment of UTI's
high dose antibiotics x3 if UNCOMPLICATED frequent urination cranberry juice? DON'T overhydrate
76
Types of vaginitis
bacterial - microscopy candidiasis/yeast infection trichomonas vaginitis