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Review Flashcards

1
Q

What diuretic is used for pseudotumor cerebri?

A

acetazolamide

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2
Q

heart defects w/ Chromosome 22q11 deletions

A

Tetrology of fallot

truncus arteriosus

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3
Q

congenital rubella causes what heart defects?

A

PDA

PA stenosis

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4
Q

Turner’s Syndrome causes what heart defects?

A

infantile coarctation of aorta

bicuspid atresia

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5
Q

boot-shaped heart

A 
tetrology of fallot (infant) 
RV hypertrophy (adult; COPD)
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6
Q

most common congenital cause of early cyanosis

A

tetrology of fallot

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7
Q

equations for Cardiac Output

A 
CO = SV * HR
CO = rate of O2 consumption / arterial O2 - venous O2
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8
Q

where do dorsal columns decussate?

A

medulla

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9
Q

where do lateral corticospinals decussate?

A

medullary pyramids

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10
Q

MAP equations

A 
MAP = CO * TPR
MAP = 2/3 diastolic + 1/3 systolic
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11
Q

derivatives of 3rd aortic arch?

A

common carotid artery

proximal part of internal carotid

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12
Q

derivatives of 4th aortic arch?

A 
L = arch of adult aorta
R = proximal part of R subclavian artery
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13
Q

derivatives of 6th aortic arch?

A

proximal part of pulmonary arteries

ductus arteriosus

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14
Q

what’s the antidote for toxins: t-PA, streptokinase

A

aminocaproic acid

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15
Q

what’s the antidote for toxins: digitalis

A

anti-digoxin Antibody fragments

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16
Q

what ligaments are typically injured during an ankle sprain?

A

anterior talofibular ligament

Always Tears First Ligament

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17
Q

whats the leading cause of knee pain in patients under 45?

A

patellofemoral syndrome

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18
Q

what ligament contains uterine vessels?

A

cardinal ligament

-connects cervix to side wall of pelvis

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19
Q

what does the round ligament connect?

A

uterine fundus to the labia majora

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20
Q

what is associated w/ extrophy of the bladder? what is extrophy of the bladder?

A

epispadias

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21
Q

lymphatic drainage of the ovaries/testes

A

para-aortic lymph nodes

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22
Q

lymphatic drainage of the distal 1/3 of the vagina/vulva/scrotum

A

superficial inguinal nodes

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23
Q

lymphatic drainage of the proximal 2/3 of the vagina/uterus

A

obturator
external iliac
hypogastric nodes

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24
Q

seminoma

testicaular germ cell tumor

A 
malignant
painless
males 15-35yo
"fried-egg" appearance 
increased PLAP = placental alkaline phosphatase
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25
Q 
yolk sac (endodermal sinus) tumor
testicaular germ cell tumor
A

Schiller-Duval bodies –> resemble glomeruli

high AFP

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26
Q

Choriocarcinoma

testicaular germ cell tumor

A

malignant, high hCG
hematogenous spread to the lungs
hCG = LH analog –> gynecomastia

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27
Q

teratoma

testicaular germ cell tumor

A

males = malignant
benign in children
high hCG
AFP in 50% cases

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28
Q

embryonal carcinoma

testicaular germ cell tumor

A

malignant, painful
glandular/papillary morphology
often mixed w/ other types
may have high hCG + high AFP when mixed

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29
Q

leydig cell

non-germ cell testicular tumor

A

Reinke crystals
androgen –> gynecomastia in men, precocious puberty in boys
golden brown color

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30
Q

What bacteria are encapsulated?

A

Even Some Pretty Nasty Killers Have Shiny Bodies

E.Coli
Strep Pnemoniae
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Neisseria Meningitidis
Klebsiella Pneumoniae
Haemophilus Influenzae Type B
Salmonella Typhi
Group B Strep
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31
Q

What disorders result from trinucleotide repeats?

A 
X-Girlfriends First Aid Helped Ace My Test
Fragile X = CGC
Friedreich Ataxia = GAA
Huntington's = CAG 
Myotonic Dystrophy = CTG
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32
Q

What 6 bacteria secrete enterotoxins (exotoxin that causes water and electrolyte imbalances of intestinal epithelium resulting in diarrhea)?

A 
VIbrio Cholerae
ETEC
Staph Aureus
Shigella
Yersenia 
Clostridium Difficile
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33
Q

what are the 3 main causes of bacterial neonatal sepsis?

A

Group B Strep
E.Coli
Listeria Monocytogenes

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34
Q

what are the 4 MC bacterial causes of UTI?

A

E.Coli
Staph Saprophyticus
Klebsiella
Proteus Mirabilis

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35
Q

What are the sulfa-drug allergies?

A

Sulfa Pills Frequently Cause Terrible Acute Symptoms

Sulfasalazine
Probenecid
Furosemide
Celecoxib
Thiazides/TMP-SMX
Acetazolamide
Sulfonylureas
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36
Q

What diseases can cause Bells Palsy?

A 
my Lovely bell Had An STD
Lyme Disease
Herpes Zoster
AIDS
Sarcoidosis
Tumors
Diabetes
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37
Q

what are T-cell markers?

A 
CD3 
TCR 
Helper = CD4 + CD40 ligand (activating B cells)
Cytotoxic = CD8 
CD28 (costim --> binds to B7 on APC)
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38
Q

HLA B27

A 
PAIR
Psoriatic Arthritis 
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Reiter's Syndrome
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39
Q

HLA DR3

A

Graves’s Disease

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

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40
Q

HLA DR4

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

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41
Q

what markers are on dendritic cells?

A

MHC 1

APC = MCHII + B7

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42
Q

what cytokines do Th1 cells secrete?

A

IL-2 + IFNgamma –> kill stuff

IL-10 –> don’t make Th1

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43
Q

what cytokines do Th2 make?

A

IL-4 –> more TH2
IL-5
IL-10 –> don’t make Th1

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44
Q

What are B cell surface markers?

A

CD19, CD20, CD21
Ig
APC = MCHII + B7
CD40 (T cell activate B cell)

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45
Q

NK cell markers?

A

CD56

CD16 (binds Fc of IgG)

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46
Q

Macrophage cell markers?

A

CD14
CD40
APC = MHCII + B7

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47
Q

what protein initiates recombination of V(D)J sequences?

A

RAG-1 and RAG-2

Recombination Activating Gene Complex’s

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48
Q

what bacteria works by inhibiting/disabling Gi?

A

Bordetella Pertussus

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49
Q

what bacteria works by having bacterial adenylate cyclase (no G protein involved)

A

Bacillus Anthracis

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50
Q

what diseases can you gets shots for protective PASSIVE immunity? (4)

A

“To Be Healed Rapidly”

Tetanus toxin
Botulinum toxin
HBV (give active + passive immunity)
Rabies Virus (give active + passive immunity)

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51
Q

Live Viral Vaccines (6)

A 
Varicella = chicken pox 
Small Pox
influenza (intranasal)
Polio (Sabin = oral) 
MMR = measles, mumps, rubella
Yellow Fever
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52
Q

Inactivated/killed vaccines (5)

A 
be CHIPR they're dead so you don't have to be
Cholera
Hepatitis A 
Influenza (intramuscular)
Polio (Salk= injected) 
Rabies
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53
Q

when can you give live vaccines to AIDs patients? What should you give? What do you always give to HIV infants?

A

CD4 > 200
MMR
Varicella = chicken pox
Yellow Fever

rotavirus recommended for all infants w/ HIV

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54
Q

egg-based vaccines

A

influenza vaccine
yellow fever
egg allergy –> do skin test first

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55
Q

what gives rise to the jugular venous a, c, v waves?

A 
a = atrial contraction
c = ventricular contraction
v = atrial filling against closed tricuspid valve
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56
Q

what happens if you have a C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency?

A

hereditary angioedema

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated

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57
Q

What happens if you have a C3 deficiency?

A

lots of sinus and respiratory tract infections
-Strep. Pneumo
-H. Influenza
increased suceptibility to type 3 hypersensitivity rxns

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58
Q

what do you get if you have C5-C9 deficiencies?

A

recurrent NEISSERIA bacteremia infections

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59
Q

what do you get if you are deficient in DAF (CD55) = GPI anchored enzyme

A

complement against your own RBC

paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria (PNH)

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60
Q

Hot T-Bone stEAk

A 
Hot = IL-1 = fever
T = IL-2 --> T cells
Bone = IL-3 --> stimulates BM
E --> IL-4 --> IgE production
A --> IL-5 --> IgA production

note that IL-4 –> stimulates IgE production while IL-5 –> stimulates eosinophils

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61
Q

neutrophil chemotactic agents

A

IL-8 “cleanup on isle 8!”
C5a
Leukotriene B4

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62
Q

what bands do you find actin and myosin? Where do they attach to?

A

An Interesting Zoo
Actin, alone in I-band, attaches to Z-line

Must Have Mammals
Myosin, alone in H-band, attaches to M-line

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63
Q

slow adapting receptors on skin?

A 
superficial = merkel (pressure, position) 
deep = ruffini
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64
Q

fast adapting receptors on skin?

A 
superficial = meissner (light touch) 
deep = Pacinian (vibration, pressure)
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65
Q

what 3 things can stimulate gastrin secretion?

A

phenylalanine
tryptophan
calcium

66
Q

patient has UTI caused by proteus vulgaris. What type of renal stone will she get?

A

Ammonium Magnesium Phosphate stone –> staghorn calculus

67
Q

what structures are retroperitoneal?

A 
A DUCK PEAR
Adrenal glands
Duodenum
Ureters
Colon
Kidneys
Pancreas
Esophagus
Aorta
Rectum
68
Q

In the stomach, what’s released by the:
I cells
S cells
D cells

A

I cells –> CCK
S cells –> secretin
D cells –> somatostatin

69
Q

what are the 4 obligate anaerobic bacteria?

A 
"Nagging Pests Must Breathe"
Nocardia
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
Bacillus
70
Q

Characteristics of Whipple’s Disease

A 
Foamy Whipped cream in a CAN
PAS+ foamy macrophages in intestinal lamina propria
C = cardiac symptoms
A = arthralgias
N = neurologic symptoms
MC in white older men

diarrhea
lymphadenopathy
pathognomic: oculomasticatory myorhythmia

71
Q

common causes of small bowel obstruction?

A 
ABCO
Adhesions
Bulge/hernia
Cancer/tumors 
Other = volvulus, intussusception, Crohn's..
72
Q

Symptoms of Carcinoid Syndrome?

A 
BFDR
Bronchospasm
Flushing
Diarrhea
Right sided heart disease/murmur
73
Q

Necrotizing enterocolitis

A

necrosis intestinal mucosa
usally colon
neonates, “feed too early”
may cause Pneumatosis Intestinalis = air in bowel wall

74
Q

Down Syndrome GI problems

A

Duodenal atresia
Hirschsprung
Annular Pancreas
Celiac

75
Q

mechanism of Reye syndrome?

A

asprin metabolites inhibit mitochondrial enzymes

decreased beta-oxidation

76
Q

triad of Multiple Sclerosis

A

Scanning speech
intention tremor
nystagmus

bowel + bladder incontinence
internuclear opthalmoplegia
optic neuritis

77
Q

what gene mutation causes primary pulmonary HTN?

A

BMPR2 gene

78
Q

what’s the alveolar gas equation? whats a normal A-a gradient?

A

PAO2 = 150 - PaCO2/ 0.8

normal A-a = PA02 - Pa02 = 10-15mmHg

79
Q

presents at birth as a floppy baby

A

werdnig hoffman
LMN lesions only = destruct anterior horns
flaccid paralysis

80
Q

when do you see an S1Q3T3? What does it mean?

A

Pulmonary Embolism (20% of cases)
EKG
Lead 1 –> large S wave
Lead 3 –> large Q + inverted T

81
Q

What things can cause eosinophilia?

A 
DNAAACP
Drugs
Neoplasms
Atopic diseases
Addison's 
Acute interstitial nephritis
Collagen vascular disease
Parasites (Ascaris Lumbriocoides, Strongyloides Stercoralis, hookworms)
82
Q

anthracosis

  • who gets it?
  • where does it hit?
  • increased risks?
A

coal miners
upper lungs
A/W: RA
NOT A/W: smoking or lung CA

83
Q

Silicosis

  • who gets it?
  • where does it hit?
  • increased risks?
A

foundries (metal casting), sandblasting, mines
silica impairs phagolysosome formation by macrophages
upper lobes
increased risk: TB, lung cancer

84
Q

asbestosis

  • who gets it?
  • what does it look like?
  • increased risks?
A

shipbuilding, roofing, plumbing
pathogonomic = “ivory white” calcified pleural plaques
increased risk = bronchogenic CA, mesothelioma

85
Q

berylliosis

  • who gets it?
  • what does it look like?
  • increased risks?
A 
aerospace industry (works for NASA)
noncaseating granulomas in the lung, hilar LNs, and systemic organs
increased risk for lung cancer
86
Q

4 MC locations for lung CA metastasis?

A

brain
bone
adrenals
liver

87
Q

Small Cell CA

  • histo
  • who gets it?
  • where does it grow?
  • associations?
A
  • poorly diff. small cells, from neuroendocrine (Kulchitsky) cells
  • male smokers
  • central
  • Secretes: ADH or ACTH, eaton-lambert syn.
88
Q

squamous cell CA

  • histo
  • who gets it?
  • where does it grow?
  • associations?
A
  • keratin pearls or intercellular bridges
  • Male smokers
  • central
  • PTHrP -> hyperCalcemia
89
Q

adenocarcinoma

  • histo
  • who gets it?
  • where does it grow?
  • associations?
A
  • glands or mucin
  • nonsmokers + females
  • Peripheral
  • activating K-RAS mutation
  • A/W clubbing
90
Q

large cell carcinoma

  • histo
  • who gets it?
  • where does it grow?
  • associations?
A
  • poorly diff. large cells (pleomorphic giant cells)
  • smoking
  • peripheral
91
Q

bronchioalveolar Ca

  • histo
  • who gets it?
  • where does it grow?
  • associations?
A
  • columnar cells grow along preexisting bronchioles and alveoli. From Clara cells.
  • not related to smoking
  • peripheral
  • CXR: ground-glass opacity
92
Q

Carcinoid Tumor

  • histo
  • who gets it?
  • where does it grow?
  • associations?
A
  • neuroendocrine cells, chromogranin +
  • central or peripheral
  • forms polyp-like mass in the bronchus
  • can cause carcinoid syndrome
93
Q

Mesothelioma

  • histo
  • who gets it?
  • where does it grow?
  • associations?
A
  • PSAMMOMA BODIES
  • not related to smoking!!!!
  • peripheral
  • A/W asbestosis
  • causes hemorrhagic pleural effusions and pleural thickening
94
Q

what organism causes lobar pneumonia?

A

S. pneumoniae MC

Klebsiella

95
Q

what organism causes bronchopneumonia?

A

S. pneumoniae
S. aureus
H. influenza
Klebsiella

96
Q

what organism causes interstitial (atypical) pneumonia?

A 
"walking pneumonia"
Viral = influenza, RSV, adenoviruses
Mycoplasma 
Legionella
Chlamydia
97
Q

Cushing reaction triad

A

hypertension
bradycardia
respiratory depression

bc of increased intracranial pressure

98
Q

infarct location = anterior wall

  • what artery?
  • what leads have Q waves?
A

LAD

V1-V4

99
Q

infarct location = anteroseptal wall

  • what artery?
  • what leads have Q waves?
A

LAD

V1-V2

100
Q

infarct location = anterolateral wall

  • what artery?
  • what leads have Q waves?
A

Left Circumflex

V4-V6

101
Q

infarct location = lateral wall

  • what artery?
  • what leads have Q waves?
A

Left Circumflex

I, aVL

102
Q

infarct location = interior wall

  • what artery?
  • what leads have Q waves?
A

Right Coronary Artery

leads II, III, aVF

103
Q

what organisms can cause culture-negative endocarditis?

A 
HACEK
Haemophilus
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
104
Q

ST elevation in all leads

A

pericarditis

105
Q

EKG shows electrical alterans

A

Cardiac Tamponade

106
Q

Odds Ratio

A

AD/ BC

case control

107
Q

Relative Risk

A

A/(A+B) / C/(C+D)

108
Q

Attributable Risk

A

A/(A+B) - C/(C+D)

109
Q

Number Needed to Treat

A 
NNT = 1 / ARR
ARR = absolute risk reduction 
ARR = C/(C+D)   -   A/(A+B)
110
Q

Hawthorn effect

A

patients change their behavior as a result of being watched or included in the study

111
Q

berkson’s bais

A

bias when cases and/or controls selected from hospitals. If hospital based cases/controls is taken into consideration, they will have different rate of exposures than normal population of that area.

112
Q

how do you reduce bias?

A

randomize
double blind
control group

113
Q

what are the stages of grief?

A 
Death Always Brings Great Acceptance
Denial 
Anger 
Bargaining
Grief
Acceptance
114
Q

what substances do you need to make a purine?

A 
Aspartate-N
Glutamine-N
Glycine-C
CO2-C
tetrahydrofolate-C
115
Q

what substances do you need to make pyrimidines?

A

Aspartate
Glutamine
CO2
ATP

116
Q

what bacteria does tetracycline kill?

A 
VACUUM THe BedRoom
Vibrio
Acne
Chlamydia
Ureaplasma Urealyticum
Mycoplasma pneumonae
Tularemia
H.Pylori
Borrelia Burgdorferi
Rickettsiae Rickettsii
117
Q

what bacteria does macrolides kill?

A

PUS
P = pneumoniae = legionella, mycoplasma, chlamydia
U = URI = GAS
S = STD = gonorrhea, chlamydia

118
Q

Name X-linked Recessive Diseases

A

Oblivious Females Will Give Her Boys Her X-Linked Disorders

Ocular albinism
Fabry Disease
Wiskott-Aldrich
G6PD deficiency
Hunter syndrome
Bruton agammaglobulinemia
Hemophilia A and B
X-
Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
119
Q

What are the criteria for Major Depressive DIsorder?

A 
SIG E CAPS
Sleep 
Interest (anhedonia)
Guilt
Energy 
Concentration 
Appetite/weight 
Psychomotor retardation or agitation
Suicidal ideations

need 5/9 for at least 2 weeks with either depressed mood or anhedonia

120
Q

risk factors for suicide completions

A 
Sex (males)
Age (teens and elderly)
Depression
Previous Attempt
Ethanol or drug use
Rational thinking (loss)
Sickness 
Organized plan**
No spouse/social support 
Stated future intent
121
Q

what are the manifestations of CREST scleroderma?

A 
Calcinosis
Raynauds
Esophageal Dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
telangiectasias
122
Q

what diseases have psammoma bodies?

A

P - papillary adenocarcinoma of thyroid
S- serous cystadenoma of the ovary
M - meningioma
M- mesothelioma

123
Q

what diuretics affect calcium levels?

A

loops loose calcium

thiazides retain calcium

124
Q

what shifts K out of cells?

A 
DO Insulin LAB
Digitalis
hyperOsmolarity
Insulin deficiency
Lysis of cells
Acidosis
B-adrenergic antagonist

note: hyperkalemia can be caused by ACE inhibitors and K-sparing diuretics

125
Q

what shifts K into cells?

A

INsulin shifts K INto cells

note: hypokalemia can be caused by loop diuretics, thiazides

126
Q

what can cause a high anion gap?

A 
MUDPILES
Methanol 
Uremia
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Propylene glycol
Iron tablets or INH (isoniazid)
Lactic acidosis (antifreeze, oxalic acid)
Ethylene glycol 
Salicylates (aspirin)
127
Q

what can cause a normal anion gap? Not adding acids but losing bicarb

A 
HARD-ASS
Hyperalimentation
Addison's
Renal tubular acidosis
Diarrhea
Acetazolamide
Spironolactone
Saline infusion
128
Q

what are the co-factors for:
pyruvate dehydrogenase (def –> lactic acidosis)
a-ketoglutarate DH

A 
TLC for Nobody
TTP (active form of thiamine) = Vit B1
Lipoic acid
Coenzyme A = Vit B5
FAD = Vit B2
NAD = Vit B3

note: lipoic acid is a co-factor for branched chain ketoacid DH (def –> maple syrup urine disease).

129
Q

what do see in Kwashiorkor?

A 
Kwashiorkor results from a protein-deficient MEAL
Malnutrition
Edema
Anemia
Liver (fatty)

clinical image = skinny child w/ a huge belly

130
Q

essential AAs

A 
PVT TIM HALL
P - Phenylalanine
V - Valine
T - Threonine
T - Tryptophan
I - Isoleucine
M - Methionine
H - Histidine
A - Arginine
L - Leucine
L - Lysine
131
Q

what does tryptophan give rise to?

A

(B6) Niacin –> NAD

(BH4) Serotonin –> melatonin

132
Q

what does histidine give rise to?

A

(B6) –> histamine

133
Q

what does glycine give rise to?

A

(B6)–> porphyrin –> heme

134
Q

what does arginine give rise to?

A

creatinine
urea
NO

135
Q

what does glutamate give rise to?

A

(B6) –> GABA

Glutathione

136
Q

what does phenylalanine give rise to?

A

tyrosine –> DOPA –> Dopamine —> NE –> Epi

137
Q

what RNA viruses are positive stranded?

A

I went to a RETRO TOGA party, where I drank FLAVored CORONA and ate HIPPY CALIfornia PICkles

retrovirus
togavirus
flavivirus
coronavirus
hepevirus
calicivirus
picornavirus
138
Q

what viruses are naked (no envelopes)?

A

give PAPP smears and CPR to a NAKED HEPpy

DNA
Papillomavirus
Adenovirus
Parvovirus
Polyomavirus
RNA
Calcivirus
Picornavirus
Reovirus
Hepevirus
139
Q

what are the DNA virus families?

A 
HHAPPPPy
Hepadna (circular DNA)
Herpes
Adeno
Pox (non-icosahedral, replicates in cytoplasm)
Parvo (ssDNA)
Papilloma (circular DNA)
Polyoma (circular DNA)
140
Q

more DNA viruses are linear dsDNA, what are the exceptions?

A 
parvovirus = ssDNA
papillomavirus = circular DNA
polyomavirus = circular DNA
hepadnavirus = circular DNA
141
Q

what are the picornaviruses?

A 
PERCH
Poliovirus (enterovirus)
Echovirus  (enterovirus)
Rhinovirus
Coxsackievirus (enterovirus)
HAV
142
Q

what disease cause rash on the palms and soles?

A

“You drive CARS with your palms and soles”

CA- Coxsackievirus A
R- Rickettsia Rickettsii
S- Syphilis (secondary)

143
Q

Causes of DIC?

A 
STOP Making Thrombi
Sepsis
Trauma
OB 
Pancreatitis
Malignancy
Transfusion
144
Q

what infections are A/W birds?

A 
Histoplasma
Cryptococcus
C. Psittaci
West Nile Virus
H5N1 influenza
145
Q

what nematodes can you get from ingestion?

A

EAT
Enterobius
Ascaris
Trichinella

146
Q

What nematodes do you get from the sand/walking?

A

these get into your feet from the SANd
Strongyloides
Ancylostoma
Necator

147
Q

fetal erythropoesis

A 
Young Liver Synthesizes Blood
Yolk Sac (3-8wk)
Liver 
Spleen 
BM (wk28)
148
Q

what can cause an elevated EPO –> PV?

A 
Potentially Really High Hematocrit
Pheochromocytoma
Renal Cell CA
Hepatocellular CA
Hemangioblastoma
149
Q

Classic triad for HUS? Pentad for TTP?

A 
FAT RN
Fever
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Renal Failure
Neurological Symptoms

note: TTP = ADAMTS13 deficiency -> can’t break vWF into monomers

150
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) triad?

A

hemolytic anemia
pancytopenia
venous thrombosis

151
Q

Multiple myeloma findings (4)?

A 
CRAB
hyperCalcemia
Renal insufficiency
Anemia
Bone lytic lesions/Back pain

Multiple Myeloma: Monoclonal M protein spike

152
Q

What are the causes of transitional cell CA?

A 
A/W problems in your Pee SAC
Phenacetin
Smoking
Aniline dyes
Cyclophosphamide
153
Q

What’s the APGAR score based on?

A 
APGAR
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration 
score 4-6 = assist/stimulate
154
Q

rank the speed of conduction of different locations in the heart?

A

Purkinjie
Atria
Ventricles
AV node

155
Q

persistent yolk stalk?

persistent allantosis remnant?

A 
yolk stalk (vitelline duct)--> meconium/meckel's 
yolk sac --> allantois --> urachus --> pee
156
Q

HIV Virus:

  • env
  • gag
  • pol
A 
env = gp120 (attach to CD4) + gp41 (fusion/entry)
gag = p24 = capsid protein
pol = rev trans, asp protease, integrase
157
Q

MEN 1

A

Pituitary
Parathyroid
Pancreas

158
Q

MEN 2A

A

Parathyroid
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary thyroid carcinoma

159
Q

MEN 2B

A

Pheochromocytoma
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Oral/intestinal ganglioneuromatosis (A/W marfinoid habitus)

160
Q

hyperaldosteronism

A

HTN
low K
metabolic alkalosis

161
Q

causes of lipodystrophy

A

decreased leptin

HIV meds = protease inhbitors

DIT (3 decks)

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