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Review Test 1 > Review Test 1 > Flashcards

Review Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q 
A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called:
A. Community 
B. Population
C. Biosystem
D. Ecosystem
E. Family
A

B. Population

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2
Q 
The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is:
A. Chemical energy
B. Light energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Thermal energy
E. ATP
A

B. Light energy

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3
Q 
To understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand the molecular structure of DNA. This is an example of the application of which concept to the study of biology?
A. feedback regulation
B. emergent properties
C. reductionism
D. the cell theory
E. evolution
A

C. reductionism

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4
Q 
Once labor begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and frequency until delivery. The increasing labor contractions of childbirth are an example of which type of regulation?
A. enzymatic catalysis
B. negative feedback
C. feedback inhibition
D. positive feedback
E. a bioinformatic system
A

D. positive feedback

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5
Q 
When the body's blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin and, as a result, the blood glucose level declines. When the blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon and as a result, the blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of the blood glucose level is the result of :
A. negative feedback
B. protein-protein interactions
C. positive feedback 
D. catalytic feedback
E. bioinformatic regulation
A

A. negative feedback

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6
Q 
Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms?
A. genomics
B. evolution
C. informatics
D. schematic biology
E. taxonomy
A

E. taxonomy

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7
Q 
Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?
A. Bacteria and Eukarya
B. Bacteria and Protista
C. Eukarya and Monera
D. Bacteria and Archea
E. Archea and Monera
A

D. Bacteria and Archea

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8
Q

Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
A. near universality of the genetic code
B. structure of the nucleus
C. structure of chloroplasts
D. structure of cilia
E. ubiquitous use of catalysts by living systems

A

A. near universality of the genetic code

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9
Q

What are archea?
A. Single-celled organisms that are killed by the application of antibiotics at certain concentrations
B. Bacteria-like organisms that can live only in extreme salt enviroments
C. Organisms that are adapted to high temperature environments, such as in volcanic springs
D. Prokaryotes characterized as extremophiles that share some bacterial and some eukaryotic traits
E. Primitive protist-like creatures possessing fewer than two chromosomes per cell

A

D. Prokaryotes characterized as extremophiles that share some bacterial and some eukaryotic traits

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10
Q

Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis?
I. It is testable
II. It is falsifiable
III. It produces quantitative data
IV. It provides results that can be replicated.

A. I only 
B. II only
C. III only 
D. I and II
E. III and IV
A

D. I and II

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11
Q

Which of these is an example of inductive reasoning?
A. These organisms live in sunny parts of this area so they are able to photosynthesize.
B. If two species are members of the same genus, they are more alike than each of them could be to a different genus.
C. Hundreds of individuals of a species have been observed and all are photosynthetic; therefore, the species is photosynthetic
D. If horses are always found grazing on grass, they can be only herbivores and not omnivores
E. If protists are all single-celled, then they are incapable of aggregating

A

C. Hundreds of individuals of a species have been observed and all are photosynthetic; therefore, the species is photosynthetic

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12
Q 
All the organisms on your campus make up?
A. a community
B. a population 
C. a taxonomic domain
D. an experimental group
E. an ecosystem
A

A. a community

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13
Q

Which of the following is a correct sequence of levels in life’s hierarchy, proceeding downward from an individual animal?
A. brain, organ system, nerve cell, nervous tissue
B. nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell
C. organism, organ system, tissue, cell, organ
D. organ system, nervous tissue, brain
E. organ system, tissue, molecule, cell

A

B. nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell

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14
Q

Systems biology is mainly an attempt to?
A. simplify complex problems by reducing the system into smaller, less complex units
B. speed up the technological application of scientific knowledge
C. build high-throughput machines for the rapid acquisition of biological data
D. understand the behavior of entire biological systems
E. analyze genomes from different species

A

D. understand the behavior of entire biological systems

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15
Q

Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?
A. theories are hypotheses that have been proved
B. hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power
C. theories are proved true; hypotheses are often falsified
D. hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct answers
E. hypotheses and theories are essentially the same thing

A

B. hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power

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16
Q 
Which of the following would be regarded as compounds?
A. CH4 and O2, but not H2O
B. H2O, O2, and CH4
C. H2O and CH4, but not O2
D. H2O and O2
E. O2 and CH4
A

C. H2O and CH4, but not O2

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17
Q

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+). Thus,

H2CO3 HCO3- + H+

If the pH of the blood drops, one would expect:
A. the concentration of hydroxide ion to increase
B. the concentration of bicarbonate ion to increase
C. the HCO3- to act as a base and remove excess H+ with the formation of H2CO3.
D. the HCO3- to act as an acid and remove H+ with the formation of H2CO3
E. a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration fo HCO3-

A

C. the HCO3- to act as a base and remove excess H+ with the formation of H2CO3.

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18
Q

Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water?
A. they are hydrophilic
B. they exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity
C. they are lighter than water
D. the majority of their bonds are covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages
E. the majority of their bonds are non polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages

A

E. the majority of their bonds are non polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages

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19
Q 
The element present in all organic molecules is?
A. phosphorus
B. hydrogen
C. carbon
D. nitrogen
E. oxygen
A

C. carbon

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20
Q

The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to:
A. the variety of rare elements in organic molecules
B. the chemical versatility of carbon atoms
C. the fact that they can be synthesized only in living organisms
D. their interaction with water
E. their tremendously large sizes

A

B. the chemical versatility of carbon atoms

21
Q 
How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?
A. 8
B. 2 
C. 3
D. 4 
E. 1
A

D. 4

22
Q

A carbon atom is most likely to form what kind of bond(s) with other atoms?
A. ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and hydrogen bonds
B. ionic
C. covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds
D. covalent
E. hydrogen

A

D. covalent

23
Q 
In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by:
A. hydrogen bonds
B. van der Waals interactions
C. ionic bonds
D. non polar covalent bonds
E. polar covalent bonds
A

E. polar covalent bonds

24
Q

Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?
A. evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from overheating
B. lakes don’t freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures
C. water flows upward from the roots to the leaves in plants
D. a water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond
E. organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions

A

A. evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from overheating

or

D. a water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond

25
Q

Liquid water’s high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the:
A. absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form
B. small size of the water molecules
C. higher specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms
D. fact that water is a poor heat conductor

A

A. absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form

26
Q

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?
A. hydrogen bonds
B. ionic bonds
C. both polar and covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds
D. both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds
E. polar covalent bonds

A

A. hydrogen bonds

27
Q

Why does evaporation of water from a surface cause cooling of the surface?
A. water molecules absorb heat from the surface in order to acquire enough energy to evaporate
B. the water molecules within the most heat energy evaporate more readily
C. the expansion of water vapor extracts heat from the surface
D. the breaking of bonds between water molecules absorbs heat
E. the solute molecules left behind absorb heat

A

B. the water molecules within the most heat energy evaporate more readily

28
Q

Why does ice float in liquid water?
A. ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat
B. the crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water
C. the ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking
D. the high surface tension of liquid water keeps the ice on top
E. hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water

A

E. hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water

29
Q 
Which of the following solution would require the greatest amount of base to be added to bring the solution to neutral pH?
A. vinegar at pH 3
B. black coffee at pH 5 
C. household bleach at pH 12
D. gastric juice at pH 2
E. tomato juice at pH 4
A

D. gastric juice at pH 2

30
Q

If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the
A. concentration of H+ has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9
B. concentration of H+ has increased to tenfold (10x) compared to what it was at pH 9
C. concentration of OH- has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9
D. concentration of H+ has increased tenfold (10x) and the concentration of OH- has decreased one-tenth (1/10) what they were at pH 9
E. concentration of OH- has increased tenfold (10x) compared to what it was at pH 9

A

D. concentration of H+ has increased tenfold (10x) and the concentration of OH- has decreased one-tenth (1/10) what they were at pH 9

31
Q

Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?
A. they maintain a relatively constant pH of approximately 7 when either acids or bases are added tot them
B. they are found only in living systems and biological fluids
C. they maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them
D. they maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them
E. they maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them

A

D. they maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them

32
Q

If a solution has a pH of 7, this means that
A. this is a solution of pure water
B. there are no H+ ions in the water
C. the concentration of H+ ions in the water equals the concentration of OH- ions in the water
D. this is a solution of pure water, and the concentration of H+ ions in the water is 10^-7 M.
E. this is a solution of pure water, and the concentration of H+ ions equals the concentration of OH- ions in the water

A

C. the concentration of H+ ions in the water equals the concentration of OH- ions in the water

33
Q

The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are:
A. ionic bonds
B. covalent bonds between atoms within water molecules
C. hydrogen bonds between water molecultes
D. non polar covalent bonds
E. polar covalent bonds

A

C. hydrogen bonds between water molecules

34
Q 
Which of the following is a hydrophobic material?
A. paper
B. sugar
C. table salt
D. pasta
E. wax
A

E. wax

35
Q

Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows interferences about which of the following?
A. the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
B. both the number of protons and the chemical properties of the element
C. the number of protons in the element
D. the chemical properties of the element
E. the number of neutrons in the element

A

A. the number of protons plus neutrons in the element

36
Q

In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same?
A. they have the same # of protons
B. they have the same # of electron shells
C. they have the same # of electrons in their valence shell
D. they have the same # of neutrons
E. they have the same # of electrons

A

C. they have the same # of electrons in their valence shell

37
Q

Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon, and has an atomic mass of 12 daltons. A mole of carbon in naturally occurring coal, however, weighs slightly more than 12 grams. Why?
A. some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton
B. some carbon atoms in nature have undergone radioactive decay
C. some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution
D. some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons
E. the atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons

A

D. some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons

38
Q

Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that :
A. the atom would become positively charged ion, or cation, and become a radioactive isotopes.
B. an electron may move to an electron shell farther away from the nucleus
C. the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion
D. an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus
E. the atom may become a radioactive isotope

A

B. an electron may move to an electron shell farther away from the nucleus

39
Q

Two atoms appear to have the same mass number. these atoms:
A. must have the same number of electrons
B. must have the same number of protons + neutrons
C. must have the same atomic number
D. must have the same atomic number, the same number of protons + neutrons, the same number of electrons, and the same chemical properties
E. must have the same chemical properties

A

B. must have the same number of protons + neutrons

40
Q 
What is the maximum number of electrons in a single 2 p orbital of an atom?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
A

B. 2

41
Q

A covalent chemical bond is one in which:
A. electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged
B. an electron occupies a hybrid orbital located between the nuclei of two atoms
C. outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both atoms
D. outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom
E. protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms

A

C. outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both atoms

42
Q 
What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?
A. a hydrophobic interaction
B. an ionic bond
C. a polar covalent bond
D. a hydrogen bond
E. a non polar covalent bond
A

C. a polar covalent bond

43
Q

What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?
A. covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms
B. covalent bonds are formed between atoms to form molecules; ionic bonds are formed between atoms to form compounds
C. covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms
D. covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms
E. covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of protons between atoms

A

C. covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms

44
Q 
Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another?
A. ionic bond
B. hydrophobic interaction
C. polar covalent bond
D. non polar bond
E. hydrogen bond
A

E. hydrogen bond

45
Q 
What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms that can be covalently bonded in a molecule containing two carbon atoms?
A. 6
B. 8 
C. 2
D. 4
E. 3
A

A. 6

46
Q

Which of the following correctly describes chemical equilibrium?
A. forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the porducts
B. reactants stop only when all reactants have been converted to products
C. there are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactants have stoped
D. concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants
E. forwards and reverse continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products

A

E. forwards and reverse continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products

47
Q

A group of molecular biologists is trying to synthesize a new artificial compound to mimic the effects of a known hormone that influences sexual behavior. They have turned to your for advice. Which of the following compounds is most likely to mimic the effects of the hormone?
A. a compound with teh same # of carbon atoms as the hormone
B. a compound with the same molecular mass (measured in Daltons) as the hormone
C. a compound with the same # of orbital electrons as the hormone
D. a compound with the same # of hydrogen and nitrogen atoms as the hormone
E. a compound with the same three-dimensional shape as part of the hormone

A

E. a compound with the same three-dimensional shape as part of the hormone

48
Q 
Which philosopher was the first to establish a taxonomy of animal forms?
A. Aristotle
B. Plato
C. Hesiod
D. Axl rose
A

A. Aristotle

Review Test 1 (1 decks)

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