revision Flashcards

(112 cards)

1
Q

when does the pack ram air inlet flap open automatically

A

after lift off

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2
Q

what happens when a duct overheat occurs

A

hot air pressure regulating valve and all trim air valves close

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3
Q

redundancy in the operation of the pressurisation outflow valves is provided by

A

two automatic and one manual meaning 3

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4
Q

what happens when the extract pb is selected to override

A

system goes to the closed config, air conditioning is added, blower and extract fan keeps running

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5
Q

the battery is ventilated and cooled by

A

air drawn from a Venturi in the skin of the ac

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6
Q

cost index 999 corresponds to

A

minimum time

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7
Q

on the FCU you have selected a heading prior to TO with hdg/vs mode after getting airborne the lateral FMA will

A

ray trk will be engaged at 30ft

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8
Q

following failure of one FMGC in order to regain the ND you must

A

select the same range and mode as the other nd

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9
Q

incorrect statement for annunciators on the MCDU

A

FAIL amber light indicates the onside FMGC has failed

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10
Q

the APU has been switched off but the avail lights remains illuminated why could this happen

A

the apu bleed air was in use

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11
Q

during apu start the fault light

A

illuminates amber with an exam caution when an apu auto shut down occurs

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12
Q

fuel for apu operation is normally supplied from

A

the left fuel feed line only

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13
Q

at what point does the CVR stop automatically

A

5 mins after the 2nd engine shutdown

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14
Q

what are the emer evac indication in the cabin when evacuation initiated from the cockpit

A

evac lights flash at fwd and aft attendant panels. evac tone sounds

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15
Q

regarding the batteries what’s true

A

during PCP the battery voltage check must be done with the BATT switches off

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16
Q

regarding flight with batt power only which of the following busbars are powered

A

hot bus 1 and 2 ac and dc ess bus

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17
Q

in the event of ac bus 1 and 2 failure in flight, if the RAT fails to auto extend what means are available to deploy the RAT

A

press MAN ON guarded pb on emer elec pwr panel

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18
Q

select correct statement concerning OEBS

A

Red oebs have a significant impact on the safe operation of the ac

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19
Q

Roxy masks automatically drop if the cabin pressure alt exceeds

A

14000ft

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20
Q

how do the crew escape from the cockpit if cockpit door is jammed

A

escape panel can only be removed from the cockpit side by pulling the quick release pins towards the centre of the flap and kicking the panel open

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21
Q

what happens when the extract and blower are selected to override

A

extract fan keeps running
blower fan stops
smoke config
air conditioning air added

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22
Q

the eng1 (2) fire light remains illuminated until

A

the fire is extinguished

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23
Q

what is the function of the gen 1 line pb

A

when selected off gen 1 is removed from all busses but continues to power one fuel pump in each wing

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24
Q

following election of flap 1 what’s true

A

during acceleration following a go around config 1 + f will be result

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25
when will speed brakes retract auto in flight
config full is selected
26
what can be overridden by the side stick
low speed stability
27
in norm law what protections are available
pitch attitude load factor high speed high angle of attach bank angle
28
what causes reversion to mechanical back up what ac pitch and lateral control is available
loss of all ELACs and SECs: use of THR and rudder
29
the side stick priority red arrow will illuminate
in front of the pilot losing authority
30
which flight control computers computes alpha prot, max, VSW based on aerodynamic data and the activation of the protection is computed by which computer
computed by FAC activated by ELAC
31
regarding max bank angles what's true
in high speed protection the max is 40º (full side stick deflection) and 0º (when side stick neutral)
32
the alpha lock function inhibits
slat retraction at low speed
33
which protection is available in alternate law
load factor protection
34
for what reason would you use the emer cancel pb
used to cancel master cautions (aural, lights and ecam procedures)
35
false statement on yaw bar
the yaw bar is displayed only during take off roll
36
what is the function of the system data acquisition concentrators (SDACs)
to generate display of system pages and engine parameters. also to supply info to the FWC for warning messages and alerts
37
the normal fuel feed sequence is
centre tanks, inner tanks to 750kg each tank, then outer tanks via the inner tanks
38
with fuel in the centre tank, auto mode is selected and the slats extended in flight the centre tank pumps will
stop
39
how may a fuel leak be discovered/detected un the flight
by comparing the sum of FOB and fuel used is significantly less than FOB at eng start
40
what precaution should be taken when you apply gravity fuel feeding
avoid negative g factor
41
if both transfuse valves in one side fail
the outer cell quantity is boxed amber on the ecam fuel page display
42
prior to engine start us it possible to pressurise the green system by
using the yellow elec pump and the ptu
43
whilst on the ground the blue elec pump
will run after first eng start
44
the air gap above the fluid in the hydraulic reservoir is pressurised by
no1 engine bleed air or the pneumatic system
45
when is the PTU self tested
during second eng start
46
the window heat computer provides two heating levels for the windshield
lo level on the ground, normal level in flight
47
what happens if wing anti nice is selected on when taxying for take off
the wing anti ice valves open for 30 sec only and on lift off they reopen
48
following landing in heavy rain what is the first actions to protect the avionics vent system from water entry
extract valve to ovrd
49
following the use of oxygen mask how is the boom mic reestablished
by closing the left door of the storage box and then pressing the TEST slide
50
above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen mask auto supply over pressure regardless of the emer pressure selector position
cabin alt exceeds 30000ft
51
after impact during ditching the lowest point of the passenger exits (aft door) remains above the waterline for more than
7 mins
52
the red light on an entry/ service door will flash if
the cabin is still pressurised and both engines are shut down with slides disarmed
53
what actions are required if a windshield crack is detected
diagnosis of the affected ply is required as per qnh procedure before making descent decision
54
which computer is responsible for the controls all datalink comms and auto select the best available communication media (VHR, HF or SATCOM)
ATSU
55
controls of the water and waste systems are located on
forward attendant panel
56
how is a TA intruder (surrounding air traffic) indicated on the nd
amber circle
57
the landing gear indicator panel on the instrument panel is
connected to LGCIU 1
58
after landing a flashing green auto brk in the wheel sd page indicated
auto brake has disengaged
59
the landing gear indicator panel UNLK light will illuminate red if
the gear is not locked in the selected position
60
at 100kts on take off what is the situation regarding nose wheel steering
rudder steering is available hand wheel steering is not
61
LG CTL indication appears in amber on the wheel sd with ECAM caution when
there is a disagreement between LG lever and LG position
62
what is the sequence of events when gravity extension of the gear is performed
safety valve closes then the doors unlock then the gear unlocks
63
which info is used in order to produce the EGPWS display
a FMGS database and FM1 position
64
the compass card on the DDRM1 is supplied from
ADIRU 1 or 3
65
for FM position which of the following statements is incorrect
each FMGC computes a bias vector from its own IRS position to the radio portion or GPIRS position
66
when the ac is on the ground and if one ADIRU is powered by ac batteries what external warnings are activated
an external horn sounds and the ADIRU and AVNCS light comes on amber on the external power panel
67
selection of the NAV key on RMP engages the radio navigation back up mode, this action
removes the NAVAIDS tuning capability from both FMGCsw
68
what is meant by check ATT (amber) on the PFDs
both PFDs show different attitudes: check ISIS in order to identify failed system
69
which of the following correctly completes the statement switching the apu air bleed on will cause
the crossbleed valve to open and the eng bleed valves to close
70
regarding operation with high eng thrust the
HP valve closes and the IP stage supplies bleed air
71
on the eng panel on the centre console the fault light will illuminate
when there is an automatic start abort
72
after eng master level set to off during parking phase the eng does not shut down as expected due to LP fuel valve remained open which procedure will you follow
eng fire pb sw (affected engine) press
73
in the event of a hot start during auto engine start the FADEC will
aborts the start, attempts restart, auto cranks and advices shutdown if unsuccessful
74
LVR ASYM is displayed on FMA if
ATHR active, one THR LVR is in the clb detent and the other one out of the clb detent
75
how to carry out dry cranking
mode sel crank - eng man start pb ơn
76
during a relight of engine in flight
FADEC will open the start valve is ac is outside stabilised wind milling envelope
77
which of the following APU limitations is correct
in emer elec config apu start is limited to 25000ft or below
78
what is the minimum height for the use of autopilot during take off with SRS mode
100ft
79
how many times can you reset a cb
once if authorised by the procedure
80
what is the maximum continuous eng oil temp
140º (155º if for 15mins)
81
what is the max operating speed VMO/MMO
350 /0.82
82
what precautions should you take if LP ground air unit is connected
do not use conditioned air simultaneously from PACKS
83
what is the maximum tyre ground speed
195
84
what is the max permitted wind speed for passenger door operation
65
85
what is the max permitted speed for use of windscreen wipers
230
86
the ram air inlet should only be used if differential pressure is less than
1 PSI
87
what is the max speed for landing gear retraction
220
88
if an inoperative component is not listed specifically in the Mel can the item be deferred for safe operation
no
89
according to the ecam handling procedure what must be carried out from memory, without referring to the ecam or qrh procedure
dont sink warning
90
what are the correct initial actions following a windshear warning on final approach
TOGA thrust - ap if engaged keep on - SRS follow
91
what are the combined initial actions of the crew in event of a rejected take off at >100kts below V1
call stop - select idle thrust - reverse thrust max
92
what is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in the event of unreliable IAS indications just after take off
TOGA 15º
93
which of the following cockpit lights are available when only on batteries
right hand dome light
94
during a TCAS RA climb procedure if descend descend now audio command is triggered twice what could be happening
the intruders trajectory has changed
95
in the event of sudden depressurisation at fl300 due to structural failure what are initial actions
emer descent initiate if ATHR is off thr levers idle
96
during landing with auto brakes selected you realise ac is not slowing down what re correct initial actions
rev max - brake pedals release - asked and nw steering off
97
if dual SDAC fault
some amber cautions are lost but red warnings are available
98
which page on the sd can the crew confirm the ldg elev auto info during cockpit prep SOP
press SD
99
loss of both ecam Du's what is initial actions
rotate the ecam/nd tsfr switch left or right as appropriate
100
an excessive ils deviation is indicated by
loc and gs scale indications flashing continuously
101
weather radar images can be displayed on the ND
in all modes except plan
102
when will the sideslip index change to blue
eng failure at take off or go around
103
if only one ECAM DU is operative how is advisory shown
ADV is displayed on the EWD the associated ECP button flashes
104
how is Econ SPEED RANGE SHOW ON SPEED SCALE
magenta bars on the speed tape +/-20
105
during managed descent pull hdg modes go to
speed / vs / hdg
106
in the event of both FMGCs failing NAV backup tuning
available one either RMP 1 or 2
107
if one ap is engaged
the related fmgc is the master
108
when both CDs are off and AP pb is switched on
the ap engages in VS or FPA depending on FCU selection
109
the SRS mode disengages auto at
acceleration alt
110
each fmgc computes a bias vector from its
MIX IRS and radio or GPIRS position
111
what vertical mode will AP revert to when alt is changed with alt* captured
VS or FPA
112
ac below 200ft RA LAND mode active with AP on under which conditions will auto land warning not flash
one engine fail