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revision 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

on the approach with all exterior lights on which lights will not illuminate until landing gear is extended

A

nose and Turn off

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2
Q

What is the correct indication of oxygen flow during the test sequence?

A

yellow blinker flashes

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3
Q

What is the result of failure of both Lanes of ACSC 1?

A

Pack 1 and Flight Deck Trim Air are inoperative

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4
Q

Which equipment controls the bleed output temperature to 200°C?

A

Fan air valve and a precooler

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5
Q

With the FLOW controller set to LO or NORM, what could cause the actual flow to be HI?

A

The APU supplying bleed air

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6
Q

In flight, if the SKIN AIR temperature is 38°C, in which configuration will the AVIONICS VENT be?

A

INTERMEDIATE

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7
Q

In flight, which valve will not close if the DITCHING switch is pushed?

A

the outflow if it is selected to manual

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8
Q

Regarding the RAM AIR valve, which of the following statements is true?

A

It should not be opened at a pressure differential of > 1.0 psi

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9
Q

If, during the cruise with ATHR engaged, the TLA’s are set to less than the cruise thrust, what will happen?

A

The thrust will be limited by the TLA

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10
Q

What happens if FMGC 1 fails?

A

FMGC 2 can now be controlled by MCDU 1 and 2

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11
Q

The APU has been switched OFF, but the AVAIL light remains illuminated. Why could this happen?

A

The APU bleed air was in use

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12
Q

Immediately after setting the MASTER SW to ON, the START switch is pushed: what happens then?

A

The AIR INTAKE FLAP starts to open and the starter engages when the flap is fully open

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13
Q

Regarding limitations, which of the following statements is true?

A

the APU may be started at any point in the flight envelope

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14
Q

When should the AUDIO SWITCHING switch be moved from the NORM position?

A

After a failure of ACP 1 or 2

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15
Q

All the SEL lights on the RMP’s are extinguished: which actions would cause all three SEL lights to illuminate?

A

Setting RMP 1 to VHF 2, and RMP 2 to VHF 3,

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16
Q

What is the effect of pushing the RESET switch on an ACP?

A

It will extinguish all amber call lights on its associated ACP

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17
Q

What would cause the RAT to auto-extend?

A

Loss of AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when at more than 100 kts IAS

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18
Q

Regarding the SMOKE configuration, which of the following statements is true?

A

gen 1 directly powers 2 fuel booster pumps

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19
Q

Regarding the IDG, which of the following statements is true?

A

The IDG disconnect button should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds

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20
Q

Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is use of the boom mic re-established?

A

By closing the left door of the storage box, and then pressing the TEST slide

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21
Q

What assists the opening of the PASSENGER DOORS?

A

Air pressure powers a damper when the slides are armed

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22
Q

Regarding illuminated lights on an ENG FIRE panel, which of the following statements is true?

A

The DISCH light illuminates when the bottle is depressurized

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23
Q

the ap is disengaged then the left side stick priority buttion is pressed and held in whats true

A

A red light will always illuminate on the glareshield.

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24
Q

the ac is at 5000ft, 250kts straight and level, ap off, hands and feet off: if TOGA is applied at what speed will the ac eventually stabillise

A

Vmo

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25
What happens to the FPV during acceleration in straight and level flight?
The FPV will remain on the horizon, the pitch attitude will decrease
26
Which of the following can be overridden by the sidestick?
low speed stability
27
what is true following selection of flap 1
during acceleration following a go around CONFIG 1 + F will be the result.
28
What happens during a rejected takeoff with ground spoilers ARMED?
Selecting IDLE THRUST at 90 kts will result in ground spoiler deployment.
29
What causes the green sidestick priority lights to flash?
both sidesticks are simultaneously out of the neutral position
30
What does amber on the speed strip represent when CONFIG 1 is selected?
the maximum speed for selecting flap 2
31
the ac is flying with a maximum roll input when it enters overspeed protection: what happens to the bank angle
It goes to 45°: it will go to 0° if the sidestick is released.
32
the ac has achieved and is maintaining a constant high alpha which has caused speedbrsake auto retraction how can speedbrakes be extended again
By reducing the alpha, retracting the speedbrake lever, waiting 10 seconds, then extending the lever.
33
In which laws is LOW SPEED STABILITY available?
only alt law
34
When and why is the Side Stick Order symbol displayed?
Below 30 feet RA: it enables PNF (PM) to monitor PF's inputs.
35
What is the definition of S speed?
the minimum speed for selecting flap 0
36
How is the ECON speed represented during a managed descent?
As = (magenta) with 2 magenta lines showing the permissable speed range
37
What is true during final approach?
The actual speed may be greater than the Vapp: this is due to the MINI G/S function.
38
What causes the MACH display on the Capt's PFD to be inhibited?
selecting the capts efis ctrl panel ILS button on
39
both ecam display units have fialed how can the FLT CTLS sd be displayed
Rotate the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O, then press the FLT CTLS switch on the ECAM control panel.
40
during flight the left inner tank is 300kg the right inner tank is 750kg: OUTR TK FUEL XFRD is displayed in the MEMOS whats true
At least one transfer valve in each wing is open.
41
What does half boxed amber on the fuel on board indication signify?
Not all of the FUEL ON BOARD is useable at the moment.
42
What event causes the centre tank pumps to automatically stop running?
slecting flap 1 when taxying for take off
43
What is true regarding refuelling?
REFUELG displayed on the EWD indicates refuelling panel is open
44
What action causes the BLUE electric pump to start running automatically?
starting the first engine
45
What is true about the RAT?
its output pressure is 2500psi
46
which systems have hydraulic fluid shut-off valves?
GREEN and YELLOW.
47
What happens when a FAULT light is illuminated on the HYD panel?
A FAULT light due to fluid overheat will extinguish only when the fluid cools.
48
What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxying for take-off?
The anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only: on lift off the valves will reopen
49
What happens if a WING or ENG anti-ice valve loses electrical power?
wing valves close - eng valves open
50
What is the source of heat for the WING and ENG anti-ice systems?
wing - pneumatic engine - dedicated bleed from associated engine
51
What is true regarding the AUTOBRAKE system?
If LO is selected, the system will be activated 4 seconds after ground spoiler deployment.
52
What message appears on the MEMO display during push-back?
N/W STRG DISC in amber if at least one engine is running.
53
What does the appearance of amber lines at the REL position on the SD signify?
The anti-skid system has suffered a brake released fault
54
What causes the DECEL light to illuminate?
achievement of 80% of the selcted decleration rate
55
if the capt is holding down the disc button on his steering handwheel which of the following statements is true
Nosewheel steering is not available from Capt's or F/O's rudder pedals.
56
What is true about the coloured arcs above the wheels on the SD?
only one arc will be present it will be either amber or green
57
following an RTO with autobrake max selected when will autobrakes be triggered
After deployment of the ground spoilers.
58
Where can ILS 1 displays be seen if ILS 2 receiver fails?
pfd 1 (capt) and nd 2 (fo)
59
How can VOR 2 be tuned if both FMGC'S fail?
RMP 2 only
60
When should the SBY compass not be checked?
During APU start.
61
if the TERRAIN ON ND pb is switched off what happens if a terrain awareness warning or caution is generated
The system switches on automatically: the terrain display sweeps from the centre outwards.
62
What could a flashing ALIGN light indicate?
The P-POS has not been entered within 10 mins of selection NAV.
63
When is Rad/Alt (RA) information displayed?
When RA is below 2500 ft.
64
during a TCAS RA what colors may be displayed on the Vertical speed scale
Red, Green and Grey.
65
What happens if BMC 1 fails?
There will be no leak detection for the APU and ENG 1.
66
complete the sentence - switching the APU air bleed on will cause
... the crossbleed valve to open and the eng bleed valves to close
67
What is true about FADEC?
during eng start the fadec will be powered by selecting the mode sel to start
68
what is signified by IDLE (green) being displayed between the N1 gauges
Both engines are at IDLE.
69
What does pressing the MAN START switch do during a Manual Start?
It opens the start valve only
70
on the N1 gauge there is a transient N1 (concentric circles) indication: what does it represent?
the difference between the actual thrust and the FADEC commanded thrust
71
on the engine panel what is indicated by an illuminated fault light
an autostart has been aborted
72
regarding ignition which statement is true
both ignitors operate simultaneously on a manual start
73
How is the START VALVE closed during a MANUAL start?
automatically at 50% N2
74
during an AUTOMATIC start what happens following an EGT OVERLIMIT
The FADEC will run an abort sequence.
75
When is the Fuel Used indication reset to zero?
during engine start.
76
What is the maximum allowable N1 with the parking brake set to ON?
75% on both engines.
77
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing?
33 (gusting to 38) knots.
78
What is the maximum permitted wind speed for passenger door operation?
65 knots.
79
What is the maximum permitted speed for selecting the gear down?
250 kts.
80
What is the maximum permitted altitude for using the APU to power one pack?
22,500 feet.
81
What is the maximum permitted runway slope?
plus 2%.
82
regarding engine starter limitations what is true
the maximum time for continuous engagement is 2 mins
83
What is the minimum permitted speed for use of maximum reverse thrust?
70 kts.
84
What is the maximum permitted speed for selecting FLAP FULL?
177 kts.
85
What is the maximum permitted speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
230 kts.
86
What is the limiting groundspeed for the tyres?
195 kts.
87
With the park brake ON, what is the limiting N1?
75% on both engines .
88
in column four of the MEL what does a * indicate?
A placard is required on the Flight Deck.
89
What are the correct initial actions following a 'WINDSHEAR' warning on final approach?
TOGA thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: SRS - follow.
90
What are the correct initial actions of the Captain in the event of a rejected Take Off at 100 kts?
Call 'STOP': REVERSE MAX
91
What is true regarding evacuation of the flight deck?
The sliding windows cannot be opened from the outside.
92
What are the correct initial actions following a GPWS 'PULL UP' warning?
A/P OFF: sidestick fully aft: TOGA THR.
93
What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in the event of unreliable IAS indications just after take off?
THR TOGA: Pitch +15°.
94
What are the correct initial actions on receipt of a TCAS 'CLIMB' message?
A/P OFF: both FD's OFF: V/S to green area on PFD
95
What are the correct initial actions following structural failure to enter an Emergency Descent from FL330?
OXY. MASKS ON: FCU ALT - turn and pull: FCU HDG - turn and pull: FCU SPD - pull.
96
What are the correct initial actions if the aircraft is not slowing down with Autobrake selected?
reverse MAX: brake pedals release: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF
97
If DMC 1 fails, what is the quickest way to display the ELECTRICS SD?
push and release the ECP ELEC push button
98
what is the significance of TO inhibit being displayed in the memos
most warning and caution messages will be suppresed during take off and climb to 1500ft
99
What is the purpose of the RCL button on the ECAM Control panel?
To display non-suppressed and suppressed malfunctions on the E/WD.
100
What happens when an ADVISORY is triggered?
the associated SD is automatically displayed
101
on the ecam control panel what is the main purpose of the ALL button
to provide redundancy in the event if an ECP button failure
102
regarding metric altitudes what is true
the metric alt displayed on the ECAM is driven by the FCU ALT knob
103
if only one ECAM DU is operative how is an advisory brought to the attnetion of the crew
ADV is displayed on the EWD, the associated ECP button flashes
104
during take off roll which page is displayed on the SD
ENG.
105
with the FDs and APs switched off, the ATHR is switched on which of the following statements is correct
The airspeed bug is blue, and defaults to the current airspeed.
106
on the FMAs what is the significance of GA TRK being annunciated
The aircraft will remain on the track existing when TOGA was selected.
107
What happens to the aircraft speed when the APPROACH PHASE has been ACTIVATED in the MCDU?
If the speed is managed (magenta) it will go to the speed associated with the current flap setting.
108
What is the best course of action if during a managed descent in a holding pattern it becomes necessary to increase the rate of descent
Pull the Alt. knob (FCU): then extend speedbrakes if required.
109
What occurs on descending through 400' RA on the approach?
the RA goes amber - large font: LAND is annunciated on the FMAs
110
in straight and level flight with AP ON and ATHR on the speed is selected to 100kts at what speed will the ac fly
VLS
111
at high altitudes if the ac overflys the optimum top of descnet point what is annunciated on the FMA
DECLERATE on the third line
112
if during a managed climb (FMAs read thr clb/clb) the heading knob is pulled what happens
The altitude constraints will be ignored, but not erased from the MCDU.

revision (2 decks)

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