REVISION Flashcards
1
Q
What is the size difference in the two lungs?
A
Right is larger but left is longer
2
Q
Which lung has 3 lobes?
A
Right
3
Q
What are the fissures between the lobes in the lung
A
Horizontal between superior and middle and oblique between middle and inferior on the right and between inferior and superior on the left
4
Q
What cancer does HIV cause?
A
Lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma
5
Q
What cancer does alcohol cause?
A
Heptocellular carcinoma
6
Q
What cancer does H. pylori cause?
A
Stomach
7
Q
What cancer does EBV cause?
A
Burkitt’s lymphoma
8
Q
What disease does EBV cause?
A
Glandular fever
9
Q
What disease does VZV cause?
A
Chickenpox and shingles
10
Q
In what quadrant does one feel pain during gallstones?
A
Right hypochondriac
11
Q
In what quadrant does one feel pain in an appendicitis?
A
Right inguinal/iliac
12
Q
What three planes separate the abdominal regions?
A
Midclavicular vertically, subcostal/transpiloric and transtubercular horizontally
13
Q
What type of joint is interphalangeal?
A
Hinge
14
Q
What type of joint is metacarpal 1 and trapezium?
A
Saddle
15
Q
What type of joint is the metacarpal one and the proximal thumb phalanx?
A
Hinge
16
Q
What type of joint is the sternoclavicular?
A
Saddle
17
Q
What type of joint is distal and proximal radioulnar?
A
Pivot
18
Q
What type of joint is intercarpal/intertarsal?
A
Plane
19
Q
What type of joint is the acromioclavicular?
A
Plane
20
Q
What two substances do basophils mostly produce?
A
Histamine and anticoagulants
21
Q
What are types of autosomal dominant disorders?
A
Marfan syndrome, Huntingdons, Achondroplasia (dwarfism) and Neurofibromatosis
22
Q
What are types of autosomal recessive disorders?
A
Cystic fibrosis, Tay-Sachs, sickle cell anaemia, thalassaemias, haemochromatosis
23
Q
What are types of X linked recessive disorders?
A
Duchenne muscular dystrophy, haemophillia, red-green colour blindness
24
Q
What are types of X linked dominant disorders?
A
vitamin D resistant rickets
25
What spinal nerves are included in the cervical plexus?
C1-5
26
What spinal nerves are included in the brachial plexus?
C5-T1
27
What spinal nerves are included in the lumbar plexus
T12-L4
28
What spinal nerves are included in the sacral plexus
L4-S4
29
Where does the cauda equina begin?
L2
30
What condition is associated with trisomy 21?
Downs syndrome
31
What condition is associated with trisomy 19?
Edwards syndrome
32
What condition is associated with trisomy 13?
Patau syndrome
33
What condition is associated with 45, XO
Turner syndrome
34
What condition is associated with 47, XXY
Klinefelter syndrome
35
What are characteristics of Downs syndrome?
Learning difficulties, distinctive facial appearance, heart abnormalities
36
What are characteristics of Edwards syndrome?
Heart malformations and clenched fists
37
What are characteristics of Patau sydrome?
Midline defects
38
What are characteristics of Turner syndrome
Webbed neck
39
What are characteristics of Klinefelter syndrome
Female shaped hips, breasts, no secondary sexual characteristics
40
How many cranial nerves are there?
12 pairs
41
How many spinal nerves are there and how can they be categorised?
31 pairs - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal
42
How can the vertebrae be categorised?
7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 fused sacral and 4 fused coccygeal
43
What is found on the C6 dermatome?
Thumb
44
What is found on the C7 dermatome?
Middle finger
45
What is found on the C8 dermatome?
Little finger
46
What is found on the T4 dermatome?
Nipples
47
What is found on the T10 dermatome?
Umbilicus
48
What is found on the C5 dermatome?
Clavicles
49
What is found on the T1 dermatome?
Armpit
50
What is found on the S1 dermatome?
Sole of the foot and little toe
51
What is found on the L4 dermatome?
Big toe
52
What is found on the L1 dermatome?
Inguinal region
53
What is found on the S2 dermatome?
Back of the leg
54
What is found on the L5 dermatome?
Middle toes
55
What is found on the L3 dermatome?
Knee
56
What is found on the S3 dermatome?
Buttocks
57
What dermatome is the perineum?
S2,3,4
58
What does the M1 muscarinic receptor do?
excitatory - increases gastric acid secretion
59
What does the M2 muscarinic receptor do?
inhibitory - decreases heart rate and force
60
What does the M3 muscarinic receptor do?
excitatory - increases gut motility, bladder contraction, bronchial constriction and pupil constriction
61
What cells are within the adrenal medulla
Chromaffin cells
62
What neurotransmitter is released at the sympathetic nerve to sweat glands?
Acetylcholine
63
What neurotransmitter is released at ganglions?
Acetylcholine
64
What are the three stop codon?
UAA, UAG and UGA
65
What codon codes for methionine?
AUG
66
What are the ketogenic amino acids?
Leucine and lysine
67
What amino acids are both ketogenic and glucogenic?
Phenylalanine, isoleucine, threonine, tryptophan, tyrosine
68
What are the aromatic amino acids?
Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan
69
What are the positively charged amino acids?
Lysine, histamine and asparagine
70
What are the negatively charged amino acids?
Glutamic acid and aspartic acid
71
What is suxamethonium?
Nicotininc ACh agonist used as a short term neuromuscular block
72
What is hexamethonium?
Nicotinic ACh antagonist used as an antihypertensive
73
What is pancuronium?
Nicotinic ACh antagonist used as a long term neuromuscular block
74
What is bethanechol?
Muscarinic ACh agonist used to increase GI and bladder contractility
75
What is pilocarpine?
Muscarininc ACh agonist used in eyedrops for glaucoma
76
What is atropine?
Muscarinic ACh antagonist used to reduce bronchial secretions and dilation as well as increasing heart rate
77
What is pirenzipine?
Muscarinic ACh antagonist used to reduce gastric acid secretions
78
What is darifenacin?
Muscarinic ACh antagonist used to treat incontinence
79
What does a noradrenaline B1 agonist treat?
Cardiac arrest
80
What does a noradrenaline B2 agonist treat?
Asthma
81
What does a noradrenaline A1 antagonist treat?
Hypertension
82
What does a noradrenaline B1 antagonist treat?
Angina and hypertension
83
What does sulfamethoxozole target?
Conversion of PABA into DHF
84
What does trimethoprim target?
Conversion of DHF into THF
85
What does polymyxin target?
Bacterial cell membranes
86
What do tetracyclines target?
30s ribosome portion
87
What do aminoglycosides target?
30s ribosome portion
88
What are 3 tetracyclines?
tetracyclin, minocycline, doxycycline
89
What are 3 aminoglycosides?
Steptomycin, gentamycin, tobramycin
90
What do macrolides and lincosamides target?
50s ribosome portion
91
What are some examples of macrolides and lincosamides?
Erythromycin, clarithromycin, lincomycin, clindamycin
92
What do beta-lactams target?
Bacterial cell wall
93
What are some beta-lactam examples?
Penicillin, amoxicillin
94
What do glycopeptides target?
Bacterial cell wall
95
What are some glycopeptide examples?
Vancomycin and teicoplanin
96
What does rifampicin target?
Bacterial RNA polymerase
97
What do quinolones target?
DNA Topisomerase and DNA gyrase
98
What are some examples of quinolones?
Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
99
What cytokines controls T cell clonal expansion?
IL-2
100
What cytokines controls Th1 activation?
IL-12 and IL-23
101
What cytokines controls Th2 activation?
IL-4
102
What cytokines controls IgE class switching?
IL-4
103
What antibody forms a pentamer?
IgM
104
What antibody forms a dimer?
IgA
105
What antibody is the first to be produced?
IgM
106
What antibody is second to be made?
IgG and this can cross the placenta
107
What is IgE responsible for?
Parasitic worms and allergic reactions
108
Which antibody is commonly found in the gut and around glands?
IgA
109
Define polymorphic
multiple forms of each HLA gene in a given population – multiple alleles
110
Define polygenic
many different genes that code for each type of MHC – more than 1 type of MHC 1 and MHC 2
111
Which TLR recognises LPS?
4
112
Which TLR recognises flagella?
5
113
Which TLR recognises dsRNA
3
114
Which TLR recognises dsDNA
9
115
Which cytokines are released by Th1 cells?
TNF-a and INF-g
116
Which cytokines are released by Th2 cells?
IL-4 and IL-5
117
Which are inflammatory cytokines?
IL-1, IL6, TNF-a
118
Which cytokines are anti-inflammatories?
IL-10, TGF-b
119
Which antibodies activate complement?
IgG and IgM
120
What enzymes do cytotoxic T cells and NK cells release?
Perforin and granzymes
121
What are Th17 cells
T cells important in response to extracellular bacteria that develop in response to IL-6, IL-21 and TGF-b. They cause the release of IL-17
122
How do iT-reg T cells develop and what do they release?
When exposed to TGF-b and cause more to be made
123
Chemokine important in neutrophil migration?
CXCL8/IL-8
124
Cytokine that increases adhesion of WBCs to membrane
TNF-a
125
Level where the abdominal aorta bifurcates?
L4
126
Level of coeliac artery?
T12
127
Level of superior mesenteric artery?
L1
128
Level of inferior mesenteric artery?
L3
129
Level of the renal arteries?
L1/2
130
Primary cartilaginous joints
Those that ossify with age - ossification centres in long bones
131
Secondary cartilaginous joints
Usually occur along the midline - pubic symphesis, intervertebral discs, manubriosternal joint
132
Sternocostal joints (except the first) are...
Planar
133
Which tarsal articulates with both the tibia and fibula?
Tallis
134
What carpal articulates with the radius?
Scaphoid
135
Which carpal articulates with the ulna?
Lunate
136
Which is the largest tarsal?
Calcaneus
137
Which system has long preganglionic fibres?
Parasympathetic
138
Which system has short preganglionic fibres?
Sympathetic
139
Location of sympathetic nerves?
T1-L2
140
Locations of parasympathetic nerves?
4 cranial and 3 pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-4)
141
4 cranial nerves of the parasympathetic system?
III - occulomotor - from accessory occulomotor nucleus to the eye
VII - facial - from superior salivary nucleus to lacrimal and salivary glands
IX - glossopharangeal - from inferior salivary nucleus and nucleus ambiguus to salivary glands
X - vagus - from nucleus ambiguus and dorsal vagal nucleus to heart, lungs and enteric nervous system
142
Layers of enteric nervous system
Myenteric plexus - between longitudinal and circular smooth muscle - controls motility
Submucosal plexus - between circular smooth muscle and submucosa - controls secretion
143
Parasympathetic --> enteric
Receives preganglionic fibres
144
Sympathetic --> enteric
Receives postganglionic fibres
145
Sympathetic nerves with paravertebral ganglia
T1-T4
146
Sympathetic nerves with prevertebral ganglia
T5-L2
147
Hierachy of intercellular junctions
```
Tight
Adhesin
Desmosome
Gap
Hemidesmosome
```
148
Number of carpals
8
149
Number of tarsals
7
150
Type of epithelium in epidermis
Stratified squamous
151
Type of epithelium in oesophagus
Stratified squamous
152
Type of epithelium in mouth
Stratified squamous
153
Type of epithelium in vagina
Stratified squamous
154
Type of epithelium in alveoli
Simple squamous
155
Type of epithelium in blood vessels
Simple squamous
156
Type of epithelium in body cavity linings
Simple squamous
157
Type of epithelium in mammary glands
Stratified cuboidal
158
Type of epithelium in sweat glands
Stratified cuboidal
159
Type of epithelium in male urethra
Stratified columnar
160
Type of epithelium in pharynx
Stratified columnar
161
Type of epithelium in urinary system
Transitional
162
Type of epithelium on ovary surface
Simple cuboidal
163
Type of epithelium in kidney tubules
Simple cuboidal
164
Type of epithelium in ducts of small glands
Simple cuboidal
165
Type of epithelium in the digestive tracts
Simple columnar - non-ciliated
166
Type of epithelium on fallopian tubes and uterus
Simple columnar - ciliated
167
Type of epithelium in small bronchi
Simple columnar - ciliated
168
Type of epithelium in trachea and upper respiratory tract
Pseudostratified - ciliated
169
Type of epithelium in sperm ducts
Pseudostratified - non-ciliated
170
Type of CT in perichondrium
Dense irregular CT
171
Layers of serosa
Simple squamous epithelium with underlying lamina propria
172
Layers of mucosa
Simple columnar epithelium
Loose CT lamina propria
Muscularis mucosae
Submucosa - loose CT
173
Type of cartilage in trachea and costal cartilage
Hyaline
174
Type of cartilage on articular surfaces of synovial joints
Hyaline
175
Type of cartilage in the outer ear
Elastic cartilage
176
Type of cartilage in the epiglottis
Elastic cartilage
177
Type of cartilage in intervertebral discs
Fibrocartilage
178
Type of CT in lamina propria
Loose
179
Type of CT surrounding capillaries
Loose
180
Type of CT in dermis
Dense irregular
181
Type of CT in joint and organ capsules
Dense irregular
182
Type of CT in tendons and ligaments
Dense regular
183
Type of CT in liver
Reticular
184
Type of CT in spleen
Reticular
185
Type of CT in lymph nodes
Reticular
186
White adipose
Unilocular - around kidneys and in breast
187
Brown adipose
Multilocular - thermoregulation in babies
188
Location of type 1 collagen
Loose and dense CT, bone, dentin, fibrocartilage
189
Location of type 2 collagen
Hyaline and elastic cartilage and vitreous body of the eye
190
Location of type 3 collagen
Reticular CT, blood vessels
191
Location of type 4 collagen
Basement membranes
192
Hypokalemia
Low potassium
193
Hyponatremia
Low sodium
194
Amatidine
Antiviral - inhibits M2 protein so prevents uncoating of virus
195
Rimantidine
Antiviral - inhibits M2 protein so prevents uncoating of virus
196
Ribavirin
Antiviral - guanosine analog so prevents DNA replication
197
Neuraminidase
Antiviral - prevents release of virions out of the host cell and causes the aggregation of virions
198
Action of sympathetic nervous system on bladder
Relaxes it
199
Action of sympathetic nervous system on bronchial dimater
Dilation
200
Action of sympathetic nervous system on lacrimal and salivary sectretions
Decreased
201
Action of sympathetic nervous system on the eyes
Dilated pupils, relaxes ciliary muscles to make the lense thinner (long range vision)
202
Action of sympathetic nervous system on the liver
Stimulates glycogenolysis
203
Action of parasympathetic nervous system on bladder
Contracts it
204
Action of parasympathetic nervous system on bronchial dimater
Constriction
205
Action of parasympathetic nervous system on lacrimal and salivary secretions
Increased
206
Action of parasympathetic nervous system on the eyes
Pupils constrict, ciliary muscles contract to thicken the lense (short range vision)
207
Action of parasympathetic nervous system on the liver
Stimulates bile release
208
Action of parasympathetic nervous system on the penis
Erection
209
Action of sympathetic nervous system on the penis
Ejaculation
210
Outer layer of blood vessels
Tunica extrema/adventitia - connective tissue containing collagen and elastin for protection and strengthening
211
Middle layer of blood vessels
Tunica media - circular smooth muscle and collagen (and elastic fibres in arteries) allowing for vasoconstriction and dilation
212
Inner layer of blood vessels
Tunica intima - basement membrane with simple squamous epithelium on the most inner surface - vasoactive and minimises friction
213
Thickest layer in arteries
Tunica media
214
Thickest layer in veins
Adventitia
215
Elastic layers in arteries
Internal and external elastic lamina
216
Elastic layers in veins
Only internal elastic lamina between the tunica intima and media
217
Types of capillaries
Continuous - most capillaries - minimal diffusion with many tight junctions
Fenestrated - small pores but complete BM - liver, kidneys, gut
Sinusoid - large pores and incomplete BM - bone marrow, spleen, liver
218
Valve between left atrium and ventricle
Mitral/bicuspid
219
Valve between left ventricle and aorta
Aortic
220
Valve between right atrium and ventricle
Tricuspid
221
Valve between right ventricle and pulmonary trunk
Pulmonary
222
Anterior surface of the heart
Right ventricle
223
Right margin of the heart
Right atrium
224
Posterior surface of the heart
Left atrium
225
Apex of the heart
Left ventricle
226
Number of pulmonary arteries
2
227
Number of pulmonary veins
4
228
Innervation of vascular smooth muscle
Sympathetic only
229
What separates the atria and ventricles
Coronary sulcus
230
Which is lateral- carotid or jugular
Jugular veins run lateral to the carotid arteries in the neck
231
Where does the aorta pass through the diaphragm?
T12
232
Are reflexes somatic or autonomic?
Somatic as they involve skeletal muscle
233
Origins of phrenic nerve?
C3,4,5
234
H zone
Just myosin - shortens in contraction
235
Lymphatic system function
Balance excess tissue fluid
Transport fatty acids from the gut
Transport bacteria away from tissues
Transport antigen presenting cells for immune responses
236
What forces fluid out of vessels?
Capillary hydrostatic pressure
237
What pulls fluid back into vessels?
Capillary colloid osmotic (colloid) pressure
238
Lymph from the lower body drains to...
The thoracic duct by the cisterna chyli
239
Lymph from the upper right quadrant drains to...
Right lymphatic trunk which enters the venous system at the right venous angle
240
The thoracic ducts enters the venous system at...
Left venous angle (junction between left jugular and subclavian veins)
241
Radiograph view giving caridac enlargement
AP
242
Most commonly used radiograph view
PA
243
White and dark areas of X rays
Bone = white
| Less dense = dark
244
Use of barium meal/enema
Meal for upper GI
| Enema for lower GI
245
MRI T1 weighting
Fat = white
246
MRI T2 weighting
Water = white
247
MHC class 1
Types - A, B, C
Present on all cells except RBCs
Present endogenous ligands to CD8 cells
248
MHC class 2
Types - DP, DQ, DR
Present on all APCs
Present exogenous ligands to CD4 cells
249
Action of Th1 T cells
Signals for macrophages, NK cells and CD8 cells to kill pathogen infected cells
250
Action fo Th2 T cells
Signals for B cells and plasma cells to make antibodies
