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Flashcards in Revision Deck (102):
1

What nerves supply the external oblique muscles?

Lower intercostal nerves (ventral rami T7-T11) and subcostal nerve

2

What nerves supply the internal oblique muscles?

Lower intercostal nerves (ventral rami T7-T11), subcostal nerve and L1

3

What nerves supply the transverse abdominus muscles?

Lower intercostal nerves, subcostal nerve and L1

4

What nerves supply the rectus abdominus muscles?

Lower intercostal nerves

5

What is the action of the internal and external oblique muscles?

Flex and rotate trunk

6

What is the action of the transverse abdominus muscles?

Compress and support abdominal viscera

7

What is the action of the rectus abdominus muscles?

Flexes trunk and tilts pelvis

8

What is the rectus sheath composed of?

Aponeuroses of transverse abdominus, internal oblique and external oblique

9

Above the level of the arcuate line, which layers of the aponeurosis pass in front of the rectus muscles?

External oblique and half of the internal oblique

10

What is the action of psoas major?

Flexion at hip joint

11

What are the contents of the male inguinal canal?

Spermatic cord
Ilio-inguinal ligament
Blood and lymph

12

What are the contents of the female inguinal canal?

Round ligament of uterus
Ilio-inguinal ligament
Blood and lymph

13

The anterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the aponeurosis of which muscle?

External oblique

14

Abdominal contents pushing through a weak spot in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal is called?

Direct hernia

15

A congenital weakness in the deep inguinal ring which abdominal contents pass through results in?

Indirect hernia

16

Which type of peritoneum is sensitive to pain?

Parietal

17

Name the retroperitoneal organs

Pancreas (except tail)
Kidneys
Ascending colon
Descending colon

18

Name the intraperitoneal organs

Spleen
Stomach
Jejenum
Ileum
Transverse colon
Sigmoid colon

19

At what vertebral level does the celiac trunk emerge from the abdominal aorta?

T12

20

At what vertebral level does the SMA emerge from the abdominal aorta?

L1

21

At what vertebral level do the renal arteries emerge from the abdominal aorta?

L2

22

At what vertebral level does the IMA emerge from the abdominal aorta?

L3

23

At what vertebral level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate to form the 2 common iliac arteries?

L4

24

At what vertebral level do the common iliac arteries bifurcate to form the external and internal iliac arteries?

L5

25

What arteries does the celiac trunk give off?

Common hepatic artery
Left gastric artery
Splenic artery

26

Which part of the gut is supplied by the celiac trunk?

The foregut

27

Which part of the gut is supplied by the SMA?

The midgut

28

Which part of the gut is supplied by the IMA?

Hindgut

29

At what vertebral level does the oesophagus pass through the diaphragm and which other structures pass through with it?

T10

Vagus nerve
Left inferior phrenic vessels

30

What is the function of the pyloric sphincter?

Controls flow of chyme between pylorus of stomach and duodenum

31

Which layer of the stomach forms rugae?

Mucosa

32

Which ligament separates the right and left lobes of the liver?

Falciform ligament

33

The ligamentum teres is the remnant of which embryological structure?

Left fetal umbilical vein

34

The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of which 2 vessels?

Superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein

35

What structures are present at the porta hepatis on the posterior surface of liver?

Hepatic artery
Hepatic portal vein
Common hepatic duct

36

Name the duct that is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct

Common bile duct

37

Where is bile produced?

Liver

38

Where is bile stored?

Gallbladder

39

What is the surface marking of the gallbladder?

9th costal cartilage at the midclavicular line on the right hand side

40

What is the surface marking of the spleen?

Lies obliquely along the axis of the 10th rib

41

Name 2 functions of the spleen

Acts as a filter for blood by removing old or damaged red blood cells
Important role in immune responses

42

During a cholecystectomy, what artery must the surgeon be careful to avoid?

Cystic artery in Calot's triangle

43

What are the teniae coli made up of?

3 bands of longitudinal muscle

44

How are the haustra formed?

Contraction of teniae coli

45

Which artery supplies the superior 1/3 of the rectum?

Superior rectal artery - branch of IMA

46

What artery supplies the middle 1/3 of the rectum?

Middle rectal artery - branch of internal iliac

47

Which artery supplies the inferior 1/3 of the rectum?

Inferior rectal artery - branch of internal iliac

48

What vertebral level do the kidneys lie at?

T12-L3

49

What vertebral level does the hilum of the kidney lie at?

L1 (transpyloric plane)

50

Which vein drains into the left renal vein?

Left gonadal vein

51

Are the ureters retroperitoneal or intraperitoneal?

Retroperitoneal

52

Which type of epithelium lines the ureters?

Stratified transitional epithelium

53

Which type of tissue are the walls of the bladder composed of?

Elastic tissue

54

Which type of epithelium lines the bladder?

Stratified transitional epithelium

55

Which arteries supply the thyroid gland?

Superior thyroid artery (branch of ECA)
Inferior thyroid artery (branch of subclavian)

56

Which arteries mainly supply the parathyroid glands?

Inferior thyroid arteries

57

What do the parathyroid glands release?

PTH

58

What effect does PTH have on plasma calcium levels?

Increases plasma calcium

59

Which surface of the thyroid gland do the parathyroid glands lie on?

Lateral half of posterior surface

60

What substance is produced in the zona reticularis of the suprarenal glands?

Sex hormones e.g. testosterone

61

What substance is produced in the zona fasiculataof the suprarenal glands?

Cortisol

62

What substance is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the suprarenal glands?

Aldosterone

63

What substance is produced in the medulla of the suprarenal glands?

Catecholamines e.g. norepinephrine

64

What is the action of orbicularis oculi?

Closes the eye

65

Which muscle gives motor innervation to orbicularis oculi?

CN VII

66

Which branch of the facial nerve carries taste sensation from the anterior tongue?

Chorda tympani

67

Which branch of the trigeminal nerve provides motor and sensory innervation?

V3

68

Which nerve innervates the parotid salivary gland?

CN IX

69

Which nerve innervates the submandibular salivary gland?

CN VII

70

Which nerve innervates the sublingual salivary gland?

CN VII

71

Which muscle does the parotid duct pierce to enter the oral cavity?

Buccinator muscle

72

Which muscles elevate the hyoid bone?

Myohyoid
Geniohyoid
Digastric
Stylohyoid

73

Which muscles depress the hyoid bone?

Omohyoid
Thyrohyoid
Sternohyoid
Sternothyroid

74

Which muscles act to open the jaw and depress the mandible?

Lateral pterygoid

With help from:
Myohyoid
Geniohyoid
Digastric

75

Which muscles of mastication close the jaw?

Temporalis
Masseter
Medial pterygoid

76

Which of the 2 pterygoid muscles is largest?

Medial

77

What opens into the superior meatus?

Posterior ethmoid air cells

78

What opens into the middle meatus?

Maxillary sinus
Frontal sinus
Anterior and middle ethmoid air cells

79

What opens into the inferior meatus?

Nasolacrimal duct

80

Which nerves carry taste sensation from anterior 1/3 tongue?

Chorda tympani branch of CN VII

81

Which nerves carry general sensory fibres from anterior 1/3 tongue?

CN V3

82

Which nerves carry taste sensation from posterior 1/3 tongue?

CN IX

83

Which nerves carry general sensory fibres from posterior 1/3 tongue?

CN IX

84

What type of epithelium is present on the dorsal surface of the tongue?

Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

85

What are the surface elevations on the dorsal 1/3 of the tongue produced by?

Submucosal lymphoid tissue collections

86

At what age does the anterior fontanelle of the skull fuse?

18-24 months

87

At what age does the posterior fontanelle of the skull close?

2-3 months

88

Which embryological structure forms the lateral ventricles?

Telencephalon

89

Which embryological structure forms the 3rd ventricle?

Mesencephalon

90

Which embryological structure forms the midbrain

Mesencephalon

91

Which embryological structure forms the pons?

Metencephalon

92

Which embryological structure forms the medulla?

Myelencephalon

93

Which part of the neural tube do the optic vesicles grow out from?

Diencephalon

94

What is the function of the cerebellum?

Balance and motor coordination

95

Which fissure splits the cerebellum into a small anterior and a large posterior lobe?

Primary fissure

96

Which type of fibres are carried in the corpus callosum?

Commisural fibres

97

Which type of fibres are carried in the internal capsule?

Projection fibres

98

At what vertebral level does the spinal cord terminate in adults?

L1

99

At what vertebral level would you carry out a lumbar puncture?

L3-L4

100

Which dural venous sinus runs superior to the falx cerebri?

Superior sagittal sinus

101

Which dural venous sinus lies beside the pituitary fossa?

Cavernous sinus

102

Which part of the ethmoid bone does the falx cerebri attach to anteriorly?

Cristi gali