Revision Flashcards

1
Q

what is the difference between mania and hypomania

A

can generally function in hypomania

in mania cant usually function properly, can get psychotic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when does depression become treatment resistant

A

after 2 adequate trails of antidepressants with no response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does ECT work

A

causes release of neurotransmitters - serotonin, dopamine, noradrenaline (why in can improve symptoms of parkinsons)

also causes growth in pathway between amygalada and prefrontal cortex (pathway involved in anxiety)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the drug of choice for generalised anxiety

A

SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is tremor a side effect of lithium

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is formulation

A

how the patient gor ill considering genetics, psychological factors, precipitating factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are predisposing factors

A

genetics, early childhood, medical conditions, FMHx, things that happened in life before the illness started

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are precipitating factors

A

what caused the illness to start (stressor or other events that are related to the current symptoms- trauma, how you coped during change, personality development)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are perpetuating factors

A

any conditions in the patient, family, community or larger system that exacerbate rather than solve the problem (relationship conflict, lack of education, financial stress, lack of employment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what PD is DSH common in

A

emotionally unstable, bordline subtype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a MMSE below what suggests a cognitive problems

A

<24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does MMSE test for

A

cognitive function (confusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what SE should you be cautious of with fluoxetine in young people

A

increased suicidal thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is clozapine and when is it used

A

an atypical antipsychotic- should only be given for treatment resistant schizophrenia after 2 antipsychotics have been tried (haloperidol, Prochlorperazine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the side effets of clozapine

A

Can cause agranulocytosis (lower white blood cells to a level where they cant fight infection), need to be monitored with regular FBCs. Can cause weight gain, diabetes, drowsiness, dizziness, hypersalivation, myocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the opposite of psychomotor retardation

A

psychomotor agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the inheritance of huntingtons

A

autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the psychiatric symptoms of huntingtons disease

A
depression 
compulsions 
suicidality 
aggression 
blunted affect (lack of affect/ no reactivity)
psychosis 
anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the cognitive symptoms of huntingons disease

A

decline in executive function
short and long term memory deficits
dementia- progressive decline in global cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is included in executive function

A

planning, abstract thinking, cognitive flexibility, being able to use rules, initiation of actions, social communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the motor symptoms of huntingtons disease

A
choreiform movements 
rigidity 
writhing movements 
gait disturbance 
problems chewing/ swallowing/ speaking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the genetics of huntingtons

A

CAG repeat encoding polyglutamine
genetic anticipation
toxic effect of glutamine on neuronal cells
40 repeats = 100% penetrance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

is genetic anticipation worse via female or male transmission

A

CAG repeats multiply by more during male transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is dementia

A

progressive decline in global cognitive function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is implicit memory
eg carrying out tasks that are well practised
26
what inheritance of alzheimers
multifactoral
27
what suggests a familial form of dementia
more relatives affected relatives affected at earlier age unusual or atypical features
28
what is the lifetime risk of dementia
10% | 25% if first degree relative affected
29
what percentage of UK population have BPAD
1%
30
what is the inheritance of BPAD
multifactorial | higher in monozygotic twins than in dizygotic
31
what delusions are common in psychotic depression
that you/ your organs are rotten
32
what drug is the primary treatment for schizophrenia
atypical antipsychotics- risperidone
33
when are atypical antipsychotics not used
lack of response, obesity/ FNHx of obesity - causes metabolic syndrome, parkinsons, heart disease
34
what is the primary mechanism of antipsychotics
block dopamine receptors
35
what are the two types of antipsychotic
typical and atypical
36
what symptoms are typical antipsychotics more likely to cause
extrapyramidal
37
what atypical antipsychotics are most likely to cause metabolic syndrome
olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, aripiprazole
38
what atypical antipsychotic should you use if you are worried about metabolic syndrome
aripiprazole
39
what is the treatment for schizophrenia
atypical antipsycotic, try two if first one has no effect | clozapine after trial of first if still no effect
40
what is clozapined used for
3rd line for treatment resistant schizophrenia
41
what do you need to monitor in clozapine
blood tests for agranulocytosis cradiac function bowel paralysis
42
what is the pharmacological treatment for acute agitation in psychosis
benzodiazepine (-epams) | then typical antipsychotic (haloperidol)
43
name two typical antipsychotics
haloperidol | chlorpromazine
44
what are depot antipsychotics
IM injection with extended release- helps in compliance issues
45
what is the treatment or OCD
CBT, exposure therapy, SSRI (setraline), 3rd line= tricylic
46
what is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines
GABA agonist (main inhbitory neurotransmitter)
47
what are the risks of benzos
tolerance and addiction - dont get tolerance for SEs (resp depression, loose gag reflex - aspiration)
48
what are the withdrawal symptoms from benodiazepines
irritability, insomnia, dizziness, panic, nausea, sweating
49
which benzodiazepine has the 'best' half life
lorazepam- 12-20 hours, good for taking once a day
50
what are the treatments for GAD
1st line for GAD= CBT | 2nd= SSRI (sertraline)
51
what is the treatment for panic disorder
exposure therapy
52
what can be done to reduce the risk of dependence of benzodiazepines
foe acute treatment only (1-2 weeks), slowly reduce dose
53
are the negative/ positive symptoms of schizophrenia harder to treat
negative harder
54
do people with psychosis have insight
generally no- can be restricted
55
is hallucinations with insight psychosis
no
56
what can you get command hallucinations in
depressive psychosis (2nd person, in context of mood) mania with psychosis (grandiosity, irritability, flamboyant, elated mood) schizophrenia (ideas of reference, 3rd person hallucinations, can go against mood that day)
57
what conditions do you get visual hallucinations in
organic problems- delirium, injury, intoxication, trauma, autoimmune conditions (very uncommon in schizophrenia)
58
which conditions are tactile hallucinations more common in
organic conditions (injury, infection, trauma, intoxication)
59
give a example of a pseudohallucination
hearing a voice originating from within your own head (a thought)
60
what are the three first rank symptoms of schizophrenia
thought disorder delusions of control/ passivity 3rd person auditory hallucinations
61
what are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
delusions of reference, thought disorders (insertion, broadcasting, withdrawal, echo), delusions that are persistently held, neologisms, misuse of vocabulary
62
what are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia
apathy, blunting of affect, poverty of speech/ thought, catatonia (waxy flexibility, posturing, may echo your speech, may not eat/ speak, can become agitated very quickly)
63
where is brocas area
posterior inferior frontal gyrus
64
where is wernickes area
superior temporal gyrus
65
what is wernickes dysphagia
receptive, fluent aphasia | speech comprehension is poor but actual speech fine, confabulation
66
what type of dysphagia when brocas area damaged
expressive, non fluent dysphagia | understands but cant speak fluently
67
what is brodmanns area 4
primary motor cortex
68
what are the types of memory
short term- recall for seconds/ minutes without rehearsal | long term: episodic (things that happened), facts
69
what part of brain puts memories from short term into long term
hippocampus
70
where are long term memories stores
via permanent changes throughout cortex within individual neurones
71
what is dementia
global decline in cognitive function, progressive, irreversible
72
where is brain does alzheimers affect first
medial temporal lobe - nucleus basalis of meynert
73
what is agnosia
difficulty in comprehending sensory information- (visual agnosia cant recognise objects)
74
what is the most common cause of dementia
alzheimers
75
what is prospagnosia
difficulty in recognising faces
76
what is the pathology of alzheimers
``` amyloid plaques (insoluble folded proteins) formed outwith cells Tau proteins are hyper-phosphorylation and create tangles ```
77
what does the nucleus basalis of meynert do
attention/ arousal
78
what does the medial septal nucleus do
learning and memory
79
what happens to cholinergic projections in dementia
acetylcholine is very important for memory- gets reduces due to other changes in brain
80
what drug is used to treat dementia
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors - boost cholinergic transmission: - slows progression - doesnt affect underlying disease process (reduces uptake of acetylcholine so more in synapse)
81
name three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
donepezil galatamine rivastigmine
82
what is memantine
NMDA receptor agonist | licensed to treat alzheimers
83
what does NMDA respond to
glutamate (excitatory NT)
84
what is seen on imaging in vascular dementia
mild white matter hyperintensities | periventricular then spread through white matter
85
step wise cognitive decline= ?
vascular dementia
86
what is the pathology of lewy body dementia
clumps of alpha synuclein around the brain loss of dopamine producing neurones in the substantia nigra - causes parkinsonism neuronal changes in the nucleus of basalis of meynert
87
what is the treatment for lewy body dementia
cholinesterase inhibitors- rivastigmine
88
what are the features of lewy body dementia
``` visual spatial problems early fluctuating cognition and consciousness visual hallucination autonomic dysfunction - hypotension REM sleep behaviour disorder ```
89
``` name the dementia: 55-65 age of onset loss of neurones gliosis abnormal proteins in neurones atrophy in temporal and frontal lobes ```
frontotemporal
90
what are the symptoms of frontotemporal dementia
``` behavioural and personality changes progressive non fluent aphasia semantic dementia (language) lack of interest in other people disinhibition ```
91
what are the symptoms of wernickes encephalopathy
ophthalmoplegia ataxia confusion ``` visual and hearing impairment reduced conscious level hypothermia lactic acidosis circulatory changes ```
92
what causes wernickes encephalopathy
thiamine deficiency (thiamine needed for glucose metabolism- when deficient get mitochondrial injury and cell death) - alcoholism - malnutrition - hyperemesis graviderum
93
what is used to treat thiamine deficiency
pabrinex
94
atropy of mamillary bodies due to thiamine deficiency= ?
korsakofs syndrome
95
what are features of korsakoffs
anterograde amnesia (cant form new memories) confabulation telescoping of events (think things happened more recently than then actually did)
96
what are the types of alcohol relates brain damage
``` wernickes korsakoffs myelin sheath degredation neuroinflammation fall -/ subdural haematoma ```
97
does the mental state exam include information form a 3rd party
no only from patient themselves | other info recorded in collateral history
98
what is the bets predictor for suicide
hopelessness
99
what conditions can you get loss of interest in food
``` disordered eating (NOT AN or BN) depression ```
100
in younger people what weight meets criteria for ICD-10 for anorexia nervosa
weight to height of less than 85% | adults use BMI
101
what is the difference between a learning difficulty and disability
difficulty= involves only one area of cognition | disability- affects global cognitive function and ability to learn
102
what are the learning disability IQ parameters
``` 70-120 normal 50-69 mild 35-49 moderate 20-34 severe <20 profound ```
103
what are non epileptic attack disorders highly associated with
childhood sexual abuse
104
are patients conscious during non epileptic attack disorders
no, will have amnesia and are not aware what happened
105
how are non epileptic attack disorders differnt from epileptic seziures
NEAD are functional disorders | tend to last longer, remain continent, lack injuries associated with epileptic attacks
106
what is illness belief
functional conditions arise as patients view that a physical illness is more acceptable than a mental illness
107
what does a deficit of vit B1 cause
wernickes encephalopathy
108
what is the difference between lewey body and frontotemporal dementia
lewey body is a type of FTD
109
what causes all FTD, lewey body and alzeheimers
overproduction and tangle of TAU protein which blocks transmiassion in brain FTD and lewey body is in frontotemporal lobes Alzheimers is in hippocampus
110
what happens to cortisol in depression
is raised, loose negative feedback control, will fail to be suppressed by dexamethasone, increased expression in urine
111
what does chronically raised cortisol in depression result in
reduced brain volume
112
what is first line Tx for depression
SSRI
113
what is the first line x for OCD
SSRI | psychotherapy also useful
114
what is mild depression always treated with
CBT alone
115
what is (almost) pathognomonic of schizphrenia
formal thought disorders
116
is paranoid delusions of reference always caused by schizophrenia
no- is a psychotic symptom
117
what is the first line treatment for schizophrenia
atypical antipsychotic - ripseridone (first line for most psychotic disorders) - olanzapine (risk of metabolic syndrome) - clozapine (only for treatment resistant)
118
what is an obsession
a type of thought that is invasive, irrational (patient knows it doesnt make sense but can help thinking about it), is difficult to get rid of, is ego dystonic
119
what is a mental compulsion
a thought which forces a patient to do an act to make it go away
120
how long is a standard course of ECT
6-12 sessions
121
what is mixed affective state
presentation of BPAD- when episodes of mania/ hypomania and depression are not discrete and can mix eg someone with mania/ hypomania develops symptoms of low mood or preoccupation with physical health
122
what are the features of PSTD
flashbacks, avoidance of where it happened, bad dreams, low mood needs to have symptoms for at least 6 months to allow acute stress reaction and adjustment disorders (1-2 weeks) to resolve
123
what is adult with incapacity act good for
emergency detainment- quicker than mental health act, don't need psychiatrist, can treat
124
can you treat under the mental health act
only under short term detention
125
how long does an emergency detention last (MHA)
3 days
126
how long does a short term detention last (MHA)
28 days (four weeks)
127
how long does a compulsive treatment order last
6 months
128
what is the treatment for emotionally unstable personality disorder
DBT | lasts 6-12 months