Revision Questions Flashcards
(43 cards)
What is the definition of a tactical withdrawal at an incident?
Crews removed from a specific danger in a safe, planned manner that does not require an emergency evacuation.
When the decision is made to change to hand-held radio Channel 2 as the command channel, what action must be carried out?
The command unit staff must turn on “talk through” Channel 2 before using.
On what occasions can channel 3 be utilised on hand-held radios?
Used under direction of the lClSector Commander for firefighter communications during specific tasks.
Under what circumstances would a Firefighter Emergency message be sent?
Whenever it is established, or there is strong evidence to suggest, that one or more firefighters or personnel under the control of the LFB are unaccounted for and /or in need of rescue
When can EDBA wearers be re-committed at a fire?
Only in very exceptional circumstances.
Who has authorised access to the Scientific Support Unit other than the Driver/Operator?
The Scientific Advisor and HMEPO.
The implementation of BA Main Control should be considered when which of the following conditions apply?
- More than one Stage One entry control point.
- More than 10 BA wearers are committed.
- Where the lC considers that the number of wearers likely to be committed warrants this level of control.
- When Stage Two entry control has been implemented.
Where the lC considers that the number of wearers likely to be committed warrants this level of control.
What is the purpose of an Operations Commander?
Allow the lC to maintain a workable span of control when the incident develops.
When is the use of mobile phones on the fire ground permissable?
Mobile phones may be used as appropriate by officers with specialist roles.
You are mobilised as Monitoring Officer to a confirmed radiation incident. On arrival you question the lncident Commander in regard to their understanding of the radiation dose constraints for LFB personnel. What are the acceptable dose rates for LFB personel?
AII employees, regardless of sex, are limited to 1OmSv per year, with a single emergency exposure of ‘100mSv.
At a fire where it is confirmed that acetylene cylinders are involved, in when is it permissible to reduce the 200m initial hazard zone?
Once the Cylinder Assessment Process (CAP) has been passed
You are on duty, walking along a public thoroughfare on your own, when your EPD actuates. What should you do?
Withdraw from the area, contact Brigade Control, and send a “Radiation suspected” message
You are mobilised as Monitoring Officer to a 6 pump fire involving a
parked Heavy Goods Vehicle containing a large quantities of fireworks , Which of the following statements is TRUE?
- lnitial crews attacking the fire close to the HCV must be rigged in BA and flash hoods
- Firefighting should be commenced from the front of the vehicle away from the freight compartment of the lorry
- As bulk fireworks do not pose a mass explosion hazard, firefighting can be commenced in relative safety
- Firefighters should not be committed to a vehicle fire involving explosives,unless their presence is essential.
Firefighters should not be committed to a vehicle fire involving explosives, unless their presence is essential
At a confirmed asbestos incident where asbestos fibres are being freely released but no fire is present what PPE should be worn by crews working in the hazard zone?
GTS
You are lncident Commander at a “high profile” confirmed acetylene cylinder incident. There are some members of the public who refuse to leave the hazard zone after every effort has been made to inform them of the risks. What would your actions be in regard to these people?
Detaiis of ihose people who refuse to leave should be passed to the senior Police Officer.
When may a Group Manager carrying out the role of Monitoring
Officer leave an incident?
A. Once a “Fire Surrounded” message has been transmitted
B. Once reliefs have been implemented
C. Once a “Stop” message has been transmitted
D. Once they ensure that the incident management plan is achievable and covers
all foreseeable risks
D. Once they ensure that the incident management plan is achievable and covers
all foreseeable risks
At protracted incidents USAR teams may be expected to work in shifts
of up to 12 hours. With regard to this statement, which of the following is
TRUE?
- Limits of 12hr shifts provide for the working parameters as stated in the Building (Dangerous Structures) Act 1984
- USAR teams are trained for this eventuality and it greatly enhances the continuity rn operations.
- lncidents categorised as USAR are not governed by legislation concerning working hours
- A 12 hr working shift is required due to limits on national USAR trained personnel.
USAR teams are trained for this eventuality and it greatly enhances the continuity rn operations.
Who is responsible for carryingout a Performance Review of Operations (PRO) ?
The incident commander or the base Station Manager at a make up.
Under what circumstances may a BA wearer work alone, remote from other firefighters?
When working at the head of an aerial appliance e.g. using a TL as a Water Tower
ln regard to cylinder incidents, which of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. Heated acetylene cylinders must be cooled in situ for a minimum of t hour.
B. Heated acetylene cylinders must undergo the Cylinder Assessment Process within the first hour of cooling.
C. All cylinders have the potential to explode during the cooling process.
D. All cylinders can be considered safe after initial cooling in the first hour.
A. Heated acetylene cylinders must be cooled in situ for a minimum of t hour.
You are the lncident Commander at a protracted 8 pump fire. Approximately how often should update messages be sent to Brigade Control?
Every 60 minutes
Once the process has started, who has authority to downgrade a ‘Distress to Wearer’?
Duty SAI
You are the Monitoring Officer at a water related incident. ln regard to the wearing of helmets inside the restricted zone, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Helmets must be worn by all staff at all times
B. Helmets may only be removed for cooling down purposes in a safe area
C. Helmets should be removed unless there is a risk of suffering head injury
D. Helmets must always be removed to prevent a neck injury in the event of accidental immersion
C. Helmets should be removed unless there is a risk of suffering head injury
You are called as Monitoring Officer to a flat fire on the 1Oth floor of a residential building. Where would you expect the incident Commander to have established the Bridgehead?
ln an area of safety two floors below the fire floor, unless pre-planning demands otherwise.