Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Specialty Medicine > Rheum/Ortho > Flashcards

Rheum/Ortho Flashcards

(102 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

A strain is damage to what structure?

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A sprain is damage to what structure?

A

ligamentous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Is the Bear Hug the most sensitive of specific for subscapularis?

A

sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes Mallet Finger? Tx?

A

extensor tendon injury at DIP

splint for six weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What causes Jersey Finger?

A

FDP tendon injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes Volar Plate Injury? Tx?

A

forceful hyperextension

splint at 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What structure is damaged during Skiers Thumb?

A

Ulnar collateral ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does Snapping Hip Syndrome cause pain?

A

posterior to trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What muscle can hypertrophy during Patello-Femoral Syndrome? Atrophy?

A

hypertrophy = vastus lateralis

atrophy = vastus medialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two locations of woven bone in children?

A

fetal skeleton and growth plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which two genes for Osteogenesis Imperfecta are inherited as Autosomal Dominant?

A

alpha-one

alpha-two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta is lethal?

A

type two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What tooth component is absent during Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of bone for osteoporosis?

A

trabecular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

There are fewer types of what structure during osteoporosis?

A

spicules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What Acid-Base abnormality is present during Renal Osteodystrophy?

A

metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which two metals deposit during Renal Osteodystrophy?

A

iron and aluminum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which type osteoclast is present during Pagets Disease?

A

very large osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What specific part of the bone can bleed during Scurvy?

A

subperiosteal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the three progressions of Callus Formation?

A

Pro-Callus

fibrocartilaginous callus

osseus callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which type of abscess for Osteomyelitis? What may persist?

A

Brodie Abscess

viable organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is sequestrum?

A

residual necrotic bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aspirin relieves the pain of what type of bone tumor?

A

osteoid osteoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Does aspirin relieve the pain of osteoblastoma?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
20% of Osteosarcoma have mets go where?
lungs
26
What type of cell must be found for diagnosis for Osteosarcoma?
osteoid
27
Where do Chondromas arise on the bone?
Metaphysis
28
What is the disease for multiple Chondromas?
Ollier's Disease
29
What age does a chondroma affect? Where?
20-40 hands and feet
30
What are the two locations of a chondrosarcoma?
pelvis axial skeleton
31
Homer Wright Rosettes are indicative of what bone tumor?
Ewing
32
What chromosome is the EWS gene on?
2
33
What CD molecule could a Ewing Sarcoma carry?
CD99
34
What kind of bone is present during Fibrous Dysplasia?
Woven
35
What is another name for Giant Cell Tumor of Bone?
Osteoclastoma
36
What are movable joints called?
Diarthrosis
37
Which joint does Rheumatoid Arthritis not affect?
DIP
38
What changes faster, CRP or ESR?
CRP
39
Do RF levels correlate with disease activity?
no
40
Should RF be used as a screen?
no
41
Do anti-dsDNA levels fluctuate with disease activity of lupus?
yes
42
Anti-ribonucleoproteins correspond to what disease?
mixed connective tissue
43
What is the autoantibody during Diffuse Systemic Sclerosis?
anti-SCL-70 Topoisomerase one
44
Hyperuricemia is diagnosed above how many milligrams in the blood?
seven
45
Does Psoriatic arthritis affect the DIP or PIP?
DIP
46
What structure undergoes hyperplasia during Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?
synovial joint
47
How many joints does Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis need to affect?
five
48
A child with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis that has a positive ANA requires what exam?
ophthalmology
49
Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis needs to be diagnosed before what age?
sixteen
50
How long does Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis need to last?
more than six weeks
51
Which drug is used to treat Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?
NSAIDs
52
What structure does Enthesitis type of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis affect?
attachment of a muscle or ligament to bone
53
Neonatal Lupus requires what device?
pacemaker
54
What can HSP cause in the GI tract?
intusussecption
55
What is the treatment for HSP?
steroids
56
Avoid what two types of agents for HUS?
anti-motility anti-biotics
57
How much Vitamin D per day?
800-1,000 units
58
What does Denosumab bind?
RANK-L
59
What is the PTH analogue?
Teriparatide
60
Accordind to ROnkar, how many joints need to be affected for Rheumatoid arthritis?
at least three
61
According to ROnkar, DMARDs are usually used in comobination with what other drug?
methotrexate
62
What process occurs during Fibromyalgia?
central sensitization
63
What event can precede the pain of fibromyalia?
sleep disorder
64
According to Ronkar, narcotics for fibromyalgia?
no
65
According to Ronkar, NSAIDs for fibromyalgia?
no
66
According to Ronkar, steroids for fibromyalgia?
no
67
Does Polymyalgia Rheumatica respond quickly or slowly to steroids?
quickly
68
ANA positive indicates what type of JIA? What percent?
oligo 80%
69
Which parts of the bone do vessels and nerves arise from?
periosteum
70
Callus formation follows what structure of bone?
periosteum
71
According to Benzoni, what fluid may prevent healing?
synovial
72
According to Benzoni, what is the treatment for a broken scapula?
sling
73
Check for what if pt had seizure?
posterior shoulder dislocation
74
Does a wrist dislocation occur more often on a flexed or extended wrist?
flexed
75
Where do hip bursitis refer pain?
lateral hip
76
Which interleukin is involved in PDB?
IL-6
77
What is the rim of reactive bone around a Brodie abscess called?
Involucrum
78
Where does a chondrosarcoma arise on a bone?
metaphysis
79
According to Metts, is an RF test needed for JIA?
no
80
Anybody with what type of fracture has a diagnosis of osteoporosis?
fragility
81
Do sites change or stay the same for PDB?
stay same
82
What percent of kids get Uveitis during JIA? What type of arthritis?
uveitis = 40% Oligoarthritis
83
Get a patients uric acid level below what value?
six
84
Which two populations is a T-score not used?
men women less than 50
85
All men over what age should get a bone scan?
70
86
Men and women between what age range should get a bone scan if risk factors are present?
50-70
87
What virus for PDB?
paramyxovirus
88
Which sex is affected by an osteoid osteoma?
male
89
Where do osteoblastomas arise?
vertebrae
90
What differentiates PNET from Ewing?
PNET is differentiated
91
Is Ewing differentiated or undifferentiated?
undifferentiated
92
Which tumor is described as Chinese Characters?
fibrous dysplasia
93
How many mg's of calcium per day?
1,200 mg
94
Are trabeculae laid down with or against bone stress?
with
95
What is another name for trabecular bone?
Lamellar
96
Does Type One Osteogenesis Imperfecta have deformities?
no
97
What two sites do osteomas occur?
skull and face
98
Are osteomas malignant?
no
99
What is the histology of osteoblastoma versus an osteoid osteoma?
identical
100
Codmans triangle is indicative of what bone tumor?
osteosarcoma
101
Lifting of Periosteum is indicative of what bone tumor?
osteosarcoma
102
What type of mutation for fibrous dysplasia?
somatic

Specialty Medicine (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions