RHEUM Pharmacology Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

MOA: binds CD80 and CD86 and prevents T-cell co-stimulatory signal engaging with CD28.

A

Abatacept

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2
Q

MOA: Binds TNF-alpha; blocks its interaction with p55 and p75 surface receptors

A

Adalimumab

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3
Q

MOA: Competitively inhibits IL-1 alpha and IL-1beta binding to IL-1R1.

A

Certolizumab pegol

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4
Q

MOA: neutralizes membrane associated and solubule human TNF-alpha

A

Etancerept

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5
Q

MOA: Endogenous p75 acts as TNF antagonist but does NOT affect TNF alpha production or serum levels (just binds it up)

A

Etancercept

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6
Q

MOA: binds to and neutralizes both soluble and membrane TNF-alpha

A

Golimumab

Infliximab

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7
Q

MOA: Fab domain binds CD20 and Fc domain and recruits immune effector function to mediate B-cell lysis

A

Rituximab

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8
Q

MOA: binds both soluble (serum and synovial fluid) and membrane bound IL-6 receptors and inhibits signaling

A

Tocilizumab

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9
Q

MOA: Inhibition of AICAR transformylase →AICA riboside accumulation (inhibits adenosine deaminase)→ increase in adenosine concentration→ inhibition of lymphocyte proliferation; suppression of IL-1, TNF, INF-gamma, histamine release from basophils, chemotaxis of neutrophils; increases IL-4

A

Methotrexate

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10
Q

MOA: Active form (mesalamine) is anti-inflammatory (inhibits prostaglandin and leukotriene prodution.

A

Sulfasalazine

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11
Q

MOA: A77 1726 inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenaase (DHODH) which is located in cell mitochondria and catalyzes key step in de novo pyrimidine synthesis. T-and B-lymphocytes cell cycle progression is arrested and their interactions are interrupted; Ig production is suppressed; CYTOSTATIC

A

Leflunomide

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12
Q

MOA: Increases intracellular vacuole pH and alters processes like digestion of antigenic proteins (so no peptide-MHC protein complexes can be formed to stimulate CD4+ T cells—immune response is down-regulated.)

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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13
Q

Side effect:

  • Immunosuppression
  • Pulmonary Toxicity
  • Cat. X Teratogen
  • NO Breastfeeding
  • Avoid w/vaccination
  • Malig. lymphoma
  • GI toxicity
  • Dermatologic RXN
A

Methotrexate

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14
Q

Side effect:

  • Hematotoxic
  • NOT for people with hypersensitivity to sulfa drugs
  • Increased drug levels in slow acetylators
A

Sulfasalazine

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15
Q

Side effect:

  • Immunosuppression (not for patients with immunodeficiency, bone marrow dysplasia, or uncontrolled infection).
  • Cat. X Teratogen
A

Leflunomide

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16
Q

Side effect:

  • Corneal opacities, kerato/retinopathy
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Blood dyscrasias
  • CNS toxicity (ex. ototoxicity, seizure)
A

Hydroxychloroquine

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17
Q

Monitoring tests for Methotrexate.

A

1) CBC with diff.
2) LFTs
3) Serum Creat/ BUN
4) Serum uric acid

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18
Q

Monitoring tests for sulfasalazine.

A

1) CBC with diff.
2) LFTs
3) Serum Creat/ BUN
4) Urinalysis

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19
Q

Monitoring tests for Leflunomide.

A

1) CBC with diff.
2) LFTs
3) Pregnancy test
4) Serum electrolytes (drug increases uric acid in urine/ lowers blood levels)

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20
Q

Monitoring tests for Hydroxychloroqine

A

1) CBCs

2) Opthalmalogic exam.

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21
Q

Major adverse effects for “biological drugs” used to treat RA.

A
  • Immunosuppression (especially with upper respiratory infections, watch out)
  • Malignancy
  • CHF or hypotension
  • Blood dyscrasias
  • Lupus-like syndrome
  • SJS/TEN
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22
Q

Which biological drug for RA requires that you use reliable contraception while you take the therapy and for 4-6 months after?

A

Rituximab

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23
Q

Which biological IV solution contains maltose (may complicate blood glucose tests)?

A

Abatecept IV

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24
Q

What NSAID is available formulated with misoprostol (PGE1 inhibitor) to reduce the risk of duodenal ulcers.

A

Diclofenac

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25
Which NSAID also has a rectal preparation available?
Indomethacin
26
Whaich NSAID also has a parenteral preparation available?
Ketorolac
27
Which NSAID is COX-2 selective?
Celecoxib
28
Depolarizing agents.
Curiums and Curoniums (steroids) and D-Tubocurarine
29
Non-depolarizing agent.
Succinylcholine
30
Reversal agents.
"stigmines" Edrophonium Sugammedex
31
Do depolarizing or non-depolarizing have longer half lives?
non-depolarizing have longer half lives
32
AE: Non-depolarizing drug that causes seizures by liver metabolism building up laudanosine.
Atracurium
33
AE: Neuromuscular Blocking Agents that block Cardiac M receptor.
pancuronium | rocuronium
34
AE: Neuromuscular Blocking agents that block cause histamine release.
Tubocurarine | Atracurium
35
AE: Neuromuscular blocking agents that block Nictotinic N ganglia.
Tubocurarine
36
AE: malignant hyperthermia (high temp, muscle pain, brown urine), hyperkalemia, stimulation of Nicotinic N, histamine release, and stimulation of cardiac M receptors (decrease HR).
Succinylcholine
37
Drug given to treat malignant hyperthermia.
Dantrolene
38
MOA: Drugs that blocks acetylcholinesterase to reverse neuromuscular block.
Neostigmine, Edrophonium, Pyridostigmine
39
What are AchE inhibitors given to reverse neuromuscular block given with?
Antimuscarinic agents (to prevent the negative effects of AchE inhibitors like bradycardia, bronchospasm, GI peristalsis, increased bladder tone)
40
MOA: pore structure into which the steroidal NMB inserts, preventing the blocker from being capable of accessing the binding site on the Ach nicotinic receptor (reverse any depth of NM blockade)
Sugammadex
41
MOA: inhibit the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine | fibromyalgia drug
Duloxetine and Milnacipran
42
MOA: inhibit presynaptic alpha-2-delta subunits of L-type calcium channels→inbitis excitatory transmission by glutamate (alleviates neuropathic pain, anxiety and pain) (fibromyalgia drug)
Pregabalin
43
Off label drugs for fibromyalgia.
amitriptyline (tricyclic antidepressant) fluoxetine (SSRI) cyclobenzaprine (muscle relaxer)
44
MOA: Central (CNS) action in reticular activating system and spinal cord leading to sedation and altered perception of pain. It is believed (but not proven) that generalized sedation is the basis for the muscle relaxation. NO DIRECT EFFECT on neuronal conduction, neuromuscular transmission or muscle excitability.
Carisoprodol
45
MOA: tricyclic antidepressant-like drug for muscle spasm that has central action; possibly at the level of the brain stem.
cyclobenzaprine
46
MOA: No direct effect on muscle or excitation-contraction coupling. Effects thought to be due to generalized sedative action. Pain relief due to altered pain perception.
Methocarbamol
47
MOA: agonist on pre-synaptic α-2 receptor agonist leading to decreased activation of polysynaptic spinal cord motor neurons with concomitant reduction in muscle tone but NOT muscle strength. VERY WEAK anti-hypertensive.
Tizanidine
48
MOA: acts as GABAB agonist at multiple levels in spinal cord, producing either inhibitory signals or hyperpolarizing and thereby reducing the excitatory (aspartate and glutamate) polysynaptic pathways. Pain relief in spinal cord from inhibition of substance P action.
Baclofen
49
MOA: decreases muscle contraction by directly interfering (ryanodine receptor) with calcium ion release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum within skeletal muscle cells. Effectively it "uncouples" the excitation-contraction process
Dantrolene
50
List the skeletal muscle relaxers.
Carisoprodol Cyclobenzaprine Methocarbamol Tizanidine
51
List the drugs to treat spasticity.
Botulinum Toxin Tizanidine Baclofen Dantrolene
52
AE: BBW for suicidal ideation; mild increases in HR/BP; hyponatremia secondary to SIADH
SSRIs: Duloxetine, Milnacipran
53
Which SSRI does NOT have CYP metabolism.
Milnacipran
54
AE: Rebound symptom worsening upon withdrawal; worsening depression and suicidal thoughts should be monitored; Dizziness, sedation, blurred vision and xerostomia
Pregabalin
55
AE: Drowziness and dizziness are most common, together with other CNS manifestations like agitation, insomnia, vertigo, ataxia; systemic effects of sedation include asthenia, temporary vision loss, mydriasis, orthostatic hypotension. Additive sedation if combined with other sedative agents.
Carisoprodol
56
AE: GI problems are major: paralytic ileus; Anticholinergic effects (drowsiness, dizziness, fatigue, N/V, constipation, etc.); additive depression with depressant drugs/alcohol; increase QT interval
Cyclobenzaprine
57
AE: Increased depression with drugs/alcohol; drowsiness, dizziness, lightheadedness, blurred vision, N/V, HA and irritability.
Methocarbamol
58
AE: hepatocellular toxicity; rebound hypertonicity, tachycardia and hypertension (need to taper down, especially after high drug doses); additive depression with CNS depressents; additive hypotension; asthenia, xerostomia, dizziness, sedation, hypotension.
Tizanidine
59
AE: BBW for “rebound” neural activity (seizures, confusion, hallucinations, psychiatric disturbances (especially in those with preexisting CNS conditions!)) and increased spasticity (perhaps advancing to rhabdomyolysis, multisystem failure and death); additive CNS depression; additive hypotension with MAOIs and antihypertensives; increase blood glucose; drowsiness, etc.
Baclofen
60
AE: floppy baby syndrome; muscle weakness leading to drooling, dysarthria, enuresis, myalgias and backache; additive CNS depression; if combined with CCB→ Vfib and CV collapse
Dantrolene
61
Fibromyalgia drug that must be monitored for serum creatinine.
Pregabalin
62
Muscle relaxer that has to be monitored for serum creatinine/BUN.
Carisoprodol
63
Spasticity drugs that must be monitored for LFTs.
Tizanidine | Dantrolene
64
MOA: Irreversible acetylation of COX-1 in platelets.
Aspirin
65
MOA: Produces analgesia and anti-pyretic actions in the CNS by inhibiting COX1 and COX2
Acetaminophen
66
AE: - Greater GI toxicity than NSAID - Hepatotoxicity - Renal toxicity (rare) - Salicylate poisoning (respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation)→ CV collapse
Aspirin
67
AE: | -Acute hepatic failure (metabolic production of highly reactive adducts)
Acetaminophen
68
``` Drug that you need to monitor: LFTs Serum creatinine/BUN Serum Salicylate concentration Stool Guaiac ```
Aspirin
69
MOA: reversible, alosteric competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase (converts xanthine to hypoxanthine which is converted to uric acid) AND also metabolized (oxidation by XO) to oxypurinol which is a non-competitive inhibitor of XO (when molecule is formed, it binds irreversibly to enzyme and kills it).
Allopurinol
70
MOA: direct inhibitor of both the oxidized and reduced forms of xanthine oxidase and the enzyme-inhibitor complex is highly stable
Febuxostat
71
MOA: small molecule that is secreted into the tubular fluid by an organic acid transporter; uric acid is secreted into the tubular fluid by a uric acid transporter (NOT affected by drug)—drug competes with uric acid for reabsorption at the brush border transporter (decreasing the amount of uric acid that is reabsorbed/increases uric acid excretion in the urine).
Probenecid
72
MOA: This drug works by depolimerizaiton of microtubules of migrating cells so that the cells (PMN/WBC) coming toward the gout cannot move—this prevents the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines and STOPS the gout attack and can be used to prevent recurrence of gouty arthritis.
Colchicine
73
MOA: COX inhibitor that inhibits leukocyte motility (blocks ability of immune response to attack uric acid crystals→ reduces pain associated with inflammatory response)
Indomethacin
74
MOA: rapidly lowers serum levels of uric acid and reduces urinary excretion of uric acid; increases serum levels of allantoin and urinary excretion of allantoin (5 times more soluble than uric acid)
Pegloticase
75
AE: increase incidence of active gout (crystals may dissolve and cause flare-ups—so give NSAID); hypersensitivity reactions (dermatitis, exfoliative dermatitis); effects on liver function (need LFTs every 6 weeks at start)
Allopurinol
76
AE: transaminase elevations >3 times the upper limit
Febuxostat
77
AE: patient needs to drink a lot of water to prevent kidney stones as the uric acid crystals in joints break down
Probenecid
78
AE: GI disturbances (acute—sign you have given too much) and blood dyscrasias (chronic)
Colchicine
79
AE: occur in 50% of patients: GI (N/V, ulcers); CNS (severe frontal HA); Hematopoietic disorders
Indomethacin
80
AE: VERY EXPENSIVE; patients need to be prophylactically (with colcicine) protected because crystals can break down in joints and cause gout flares; not for patients with antibodies against the PEG moitey
Pegloticase
81
Gout drug with longest half life.
Pegloticase
82
Gout drug that will antagonize furosemide and HCTZ (diuretics).
Indomethacin
83
Gout drug that's action is inhibited by Salicylates/NSAIDs→ switch to tylenol
Probenecid
84
Drug with DDIs with: 6-mercaptopurine used for blood cancers (reduce dose to 25%); ampicillin/related antibiotics are contraindicated (because will lead to skin problems)!
Allopurinol
85
What drug do you use in patients who cannot tolerate allopurinol or have renal dysfunciton?
Febuxostat