RHEUMATIC CONDITIONS

Question 1

What sensations are affected in the sensory assessment of a pt with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

Answer 1

Light touch, vibration and proprioception

Question 2

What sensations are affected in the sensory assessment of a pt with Diabetes Mellitus?

Answer 2

Light touch, pain and proprioception

Question 3

What rheumatic condition causes a decrease in chest expansion due to a possible fibrosis affectation of the lungs?

Answer 3

Scleroderma

Question 4

What rheumatic condition causes heliotrope rash and gottron papules?

Answer 4

Dermatomyositis

Question 5

What rheumatic condition is urine analysis lab test useful for?

Answer 5

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Question 6

True or False. Decreased distal limb reflexes is seen in SLE and DM.

Answer 6

True

Question 7

What is the triad of Reactive Arthritis or Reiter’s syndrome?

Answer 7

Conjunctivitis, Urethritis, Arthritis

Question 8

What rheumatic condition is a contraindication for cryotherapy?

Answer 8

Scleroderma

Question 9

What is first class medication for neuropathic pain?

Answer 9

Tricyclic antidepressants

Question 10

When is carb intake done for an exercise?

Answer 10

Carb intake before an exercise is needed

Question 11

How many hours should an exercise be done after insulin administration to avoid enhancing insulin circulation?

Answer 11

1 hour

Question 12

What could occur during exercise up to 24 hours after exercise when carb intake is not done on a diabetic pt.? (hyperglycemia/ hypoglycemia)?

Answer 12

Hypoglycemia

Question 13

Appropriate or Inappropriate. Do not schedule an exercise at peak of insulin.

Answer 13

Appropriate

Question 14

What is the normal range of blood glucose levels (FBS Test)?

Answer 14

<100 mg/dL

Question 15

Give the parameters for Conventional (high-rate) TENS.

___ pps, ___ us, sensation to be felt: ____, ___ mins, rationale: ____

Answer 15

Conventional TENS: 100-150pps, 50-80us, to produce tingling, 20 mins, to reduce pain

Question 16

What modality is Psoriatic Arthritis a contraindication of?

Answer 16

Ultrasound: contraindicated on areas with Psoriatic Arthritis as it can increase risk of infection

Question 17

True or False. Pt’s with arthritic conditions have increased risk of falls

Answer 17

True

Question 18

What gait pattern should be used for a pt. with a neuropathic ulcer on the forefoot?

Answer 18

3 point gait pattern

Question 19

What gait pattern should be used for a pt. with a neuropathic ulcer on the heel?

Answer 19

3-1 point gait pattern/ Modified 3 point gait pattern

Question 20

What is the blood glucose level for a pt. to be diagnosed with Diabetes (FBS Test)?

Answer 20

> 126 mg/dL

Question 21

True or False. The higher the ABI value the more severe arterial disease.

Answer 21

False. The lower the ABI value the more severe arterial disease.

Question 22

What is the N value of ABI?

Answer 22

1.19-0.95

Question 23

What type of wound closure is when the wound is left open to heal on its own?

Answer 23

Secondary Intention

Question 24

What type of wound closure is when the wound is allowed to heal by secondary intention and then is closed by primary intention as the final treatment?

Answer 24

Tertiary Intention

Question 25

What arterial disease is seen in young men who smoke?

Answer 25

Thromboangitis Obliterans (Buerger’s disease)

Question 26

What is the vasomotor disease of small arteries and arterioles?

Answer 26

Raynaud’s Disease

Question 27

What arterial disease is a peripheral manifestation of atherosclerosis?

Answer 27

Arteriosclerosis Obliterans (ASO)

Question 28

True or False. Edema is seen in both arterial and venous insufficiency.

Answer 28

False. Edema is seen only in VENOUS insufficiency

Question 29

Venous insufficiency or arterial insufficiency. What has decreased pulses, pallor on leg elevation, and rubor when dependent?

Answer 29

Arterial insufficiency

Question 30

Upon performance of trendelenburg test, the distention of the veins within 5 secs after the tourniquet was removed indicates what?

Answer 30

Incompetence of superficial veins

Question 31

What type of wound closure is usually done on infected wounds?

Answer 31

Tertiary intention

Question 32

Which electrode is ideal for infected wounds (+) or (-) ?

Answer 32

Negative (-)

Question 33

What do you call a color green wound drainage?

Answer 33

Infected pus

Question 34

How many seconds indicates arterial insufficiency when performing venous filling test?

Answer 34

20 seconds of filling time

Question 35

An ABI result of 0.63 may be indicative of ?

Answer 35

Moderate arterial disease

Question 36

How long can the superficial dermis tolerate ischemia before breakdown occurs?

Answer 36

2-8 hours

Question 37

How long can the deeper muscle, connective and fat tissues tolerate ischemia before breakdown occurs?

Answer 37

2 hours or less

Question 38

True or False. Body temperature and humidity can cause pressure ulcer

Answer 38

True

Question 39

What is the first clinical sign of pressure injury?

Answer 39

Blanchable erythema with increased skin temperature

Question 40

In performing Buerger's Test how long will the pt's leg be elevated to 45 deg?

Answer 40

3 mins

Question 41

What makes the Homan's test (+) and what does it indicate?

Answer 41

(+) Pain in the calf indicates DVT

Question 42

What NPUAP stage is granulation tissue and epibole often present?

Answer 42

Stage 3 Pressure Injury: Full-thickness skin loss

Question 43

Appropriate or Inappropriate. Whirlpool indicated for clean wounds

Answer 43

Inappropriate.

Question 44

What ulcer is contraindicated for Whirlpool?

Answer 44

Venous ulcers

Question 45

What intervention is used to speed healing by rapid removal of contaminants?

Answer 45

Pulsatile lavage with suction

Question 46

True or False. Ordinary bath soaps are useful to promote wound healing

Answer 46

False. It is very cytotoxic to the cells

Question 47

What type of debridement is more effective for small areas of necrosis?

Answer 47

Enzymatic debrdement

Question 48

What two interventions are both non-selective debridement and cleansing?

Answer 48

Whirlpool and Pulsatile lavage with suction

Question 49

How many days are the newly hatched larvae placed on the wound before removal?

Answer 49

2-5 days before removal

Question 50

In autolytic debridement, how long should moisture retentive dressings be held in contact with the wound bed?

Answer 50

3-7 days

Question 51

What is a contraindication to antiseptics agents?

Answer 51

Non-infected wounds

Question 52

What is the purpose of oxydizing agents like hydrogen peroxide solution?

Answer 52

Removal of loose debris

Question 53

What 2 topic agents are used to treat thermal wounds like burns?

Answer 53

Silvadene/ Silver sulfadiazine | Sulfamylon/ mafenide acetate

Question 54

What antibacterial agent is used for Staphylococcus A.?

Answer 54

Bactroban/ mupirocin ointment

Question 55

What are the 4 different types of topical agents>

Answer 55

Antiseptics, antibacterials, analgesics and growth factors

Question 56

What term refers to promotes tissue healing primarily by ionic effects, attracting or repelling charged entities?

Answer 56

Galvanotaxis

Question 57

What do you call the use of an electrical current to promote transdermal drug penetration?

Answer 57

Iontophoresis

Question 58

Give the parameters for ES for tissue healing (Inflammatory phase/infected). Waveform: ___, Polarity: ___, ___ pps, ___us, Sensation to be felt: ___, Treatment time: ___

Answer 58

Waveform: HVPC, Polarity: Negative, 60-125 pps, 40-100us, Sensation to be felt: to produce comfortable tingling, Treatment time: 45-60 mins

Question 59

How long is PSWD usually applied for?

Answer 59

30-60 mins, 1x or 2x/daily

Question 60

What is the shortest wavelength used in the therapy?

Answer 60

UVC

Question 61

How many inches away is the lamp from the area of the decubitus ulcer?

Answer 61

2 ~ 4 in. away from the area of the decubitus ulcer

Question 62

What rheumatic condition is contraindicated to the use of UVR?

Answer 62

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

Question 63

What orthosis is the gold standard of care for neuropathic ulcers?

Answer 63

Total contact casting (TCC)

Question 64

What ABI value is a contraindication to TCC?

Answer 64

ABI <0.45

Question 65

What orthosis is as effective as TCC for wounds at toes or metatarsal heads?

Answer 65

DH walker

Question 66

What orthosis is good for forefoot ulcers?

Answer 66

Forefoot relief shoe (forefoot is hanging in space)

Question 67

What orthosis is effective in healing digital plant ulcers?

Answer 67

Healing shoe

Question 68

Give the parameters for Thermal US on superficial tissues.

Answer 68

100% duty cycle x 3MHz x 0.5-1.0W/cm2 x 5 mins c mild comfortable warmth to promote tissue extensibility

Question 69

What shoe wear is used to remove pressure off the metatarsal head?

Answer 69

Rocker bottom

Question 70

What type of lymphedema is caused by dissection of the lymphatic system?

Answer 70

Secondary lymphedema

Question 71

During this phase of wound healing, epithelial cells migrate beneath the scab to bridge the wound.

Answer 71

Migratory phase

Question 72

True or False. The zone of coagulation is the area of necrosis

Answer 72

True

Question 73

True or False. Apocrine sweat glands start to persist at birth.

Answer 73

False. Apocrine sweat glands start to persist at puberty.

Question 74

This epidermal layers marks the transition between the deeper, metabolically active strata and the dead cells of the more superficial strata

Answer 74

Stratum granulosum

Question 75

What intervention mistakes may lead to heterotrophic ossification?

Answer 75

Overstretching

Question 76

What i the timeframe for maturation phase of wound healing?

Answer 76

Day 9 to 2 years after hte injury

Question 77

True or False. A limited cutaneous type of scleroderma usually presents with a long hx of Raynaud's disease.

Answer 77

True

Question 78

A pt diagnosed with Rheumatic conditions presents with joint pain and inflammation on B wrists, hands and knees. What is the most appropriate AD to reduce joint loading?

Answer 78

Platform crutch

Question 79

True or False. The ideal healing time for neuropathic ulcer is 12-20 wks.

Answer 79

True

Question 80

Good prognosticating factors include a duration of __months and wound area of __sq. cm

Answer 80

Duration of <2 months and Wound area of <2 sq. cm

Question 81

The means of transmission for pt's with Leprosy is through ____.

Answer 81

Droplet

Question 82

What is the most common cause of burn injury in the pediatric age?

Answer 82

Scald burn

Question 83

True or False. Pencil in cup deformity is associated with PsA

Answer 83

True

Question 84

This type of dermatitis affects skin that gets wet frequently and presents as small, itchy humps on the sides of the fingers or toes and progresses to a rash.

Answer 84

Dyshidrotic

Question 85

True or False. SLE in pt's over 40 tend to have a more active disease course.

Answer 85

False. SLE is more active in pt's <40 and during first years after dx

Question 86

True or False. The erythema migrans associated with Lyme Disease may have delayed onset of 7 days after bite from an infected tick.

Answer 86

True

Question 87

Is Reactive Arthritis have a clinical presentation of asymmetrical or symmetrical arthritis?

Answer 87

Asymmetrical arthritis begins in knee and ankle

Question 88

What modality is contraindicated for Progressive systemic sclerosis?

Answer 88

Cryotherapy

Question 89

True or False. PsA combined features of RA and Spondyloarthropathy.

Answer 89

True

Question 90

What medications have shown to reduce radiographic progression among pt's with PsA?

Answer 90

TNF inhibitor

Question 91

True or False. If healing of wound occurs between 14 and 21 days, compression is strongly recommended.

Answer 91

True

Question 92

What joint is commonly affected in arthritis associate with Lyme disease?

Answer 92

Knee

Question 93

True or False. At least 5 points in CASPAr criteria to confirm Psoriatic Arthritis.

Answer 93

False. At least 3 points to confirm PsA

Question 94

In the early phase of burn, what type of ROM is preferred?

Answer 94

AROM

Question 95

What type of stretch is considered the safest and yield most changes in soft tissue an scar?

Answer 95

Low-load, long-duration stretch

Question 96

Skin grafting and compression is mandatory in burn pt's with healing time of __days.

Answer 96

Healing time is longer > 21 days

Question 97

Under what phase of burn care is wound debridement/wound care?

Answer 97

Wound Excision Phase

Question 98

What is the most commonly used topical agent for burn and is also effective against pseudomonas infections?

Answer 98

Silver Sulfadiazine

Question 99

What is the common positional deformity of the ankle?

Answer 99

Ankle Plantarflexion

Question 100

What depth of burn has broken blisters?

Answer 100

Deep-partial thickness burn

Question 101

What is the proper sequence of doffing of protective garment?

Answer 101

Gown > Gloves > Mask > Cap (Remember gown first then distal to proximal)

Question 102

What is the proper sequence of donning of protective garment?

Answer 102

Cap > Mask > Gown > Gloves (Remember proximal to distal)