Rheumatology Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

What is the diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

> ACR 1987 requires 4 of the following for 6 weeks or more:

  • Morning stiffness > 1 hour
  • Symmetrical joint involvement
  • Involvement of small joints of hands
  • Arthritis affecting 3 or more joints
  • Positive rheumatoid factor
  • Rheumatoid nodules
  • Radiographic evidence
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2
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

What are the poor prognostic markers in rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Positive RF
  • Positive Anti-CCP
  • Early radiographic evidence of erosive disease
  • Impaired functional status
  • Persistently active synovitis
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3
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis

What are the systemic manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

> Mnemonic 6A’s:

  • Anterior uveitis
  • Atlanto-axial subluxation
  • Apical lung fibrosis
  • Aortic regurgitation, Mitral valve prolapse, Atrioventricular conduction defects
  • Amyloidosis (kidneys)
  • (Autoimmune bowel disease - UC)
  • Achilles tendonitis, Plantar fasciitis
  • (Arthritis)
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4
Q

Psoriatic Arthropathy

What are the indications for TNF-a inhibitor therapy in rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, crohn’s disease?

A
>Rheumatoid Arthritis:
-Not responding to Methotrexate & one other DMARD
>Psoriatic Arthritis
-Not responding to two or more DMARDs
>Ankylosing Spondylitis
-Not responding to two or more NSAIDs
>Crohn's Disease:
-Fistulating disease
-Refractory to immune modulators
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5
Q

Psoriatic Arthropathy

What are the contraindications to TNF-a inhibitor therapy?

A

> Contraindications to TNF-a inhibitor therapy:

  • Pregnancy, Breast feeding
  • Active bacterial infection, Septic arthritis in previous 12 months
  • Active tuberculosis (requires 2 months of anti-tuberculous prior to TNF-a inhibitor therapy)
  • Latent tuberculosis (give isoniazid for 6 months alongside TNF-a inhibitor therapy)
  • Demyelinating disease
  • Congestive cardiac failure
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6
Q

Psoriatic Arthropathy

What are the side effects of TNF-a inhibitor therapy?

A

> Side Effects of TNF-a inhibitor therapy:

  • Serious infection e.g. tuberculosis
  • Haematological abnormalities (anaemia, leukopaenia, thrombocytopaenia)
  • Haematological malignancy
  • Worsening heart failure
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7
Q

Marfan’s Syndrome

What are the causes of high-arched palate?

A
  • Marfan’s syndrome
  • Turner syndrome
  • Friedrich’s ataxia
  • Tuberous sclerosis
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8
Q

Marfan’s Syndrome

What are the causes of lens dislocation?

A
  • Marfan’s syndrome (up & out)
  • Homocystinuria (down & in)
  • Ehler Danlos syndrome
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9
Q

Osteomalacia and Rickets

What is the difference between Osteoporosis and Osteomalacia?

A

> Osteomalacia:

  • Decreased mineralization
  • Calcium, Phosphate or Vitamin D deficiency
  • Symptoms of proximal myopathy & bone pain
  • Can be associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism
  • Treated with calcium, phosphate, vitamin D replacement

Vitamin D deficiency causes secondary hyperparathyroidism and exacerbates osteopenia/osteoporosis. Raised PTH levels induce phosphaturia/hypophosphataemia causing defect in mineralisation of osteoid (osteomalacia). Unlike osteoporosis, osteomalacia causes non-specific bone pain, severe proximal myopathy, impaired balance and raised alkaline phosphatase. (ref: Hall)

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10
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

What is the molecular defect in osteogenesis imperfecta?

What are the clinical findings?

A
  • Symptoms of brittle bones, blue sclerae, deafness
  • Due to defects in type I collagen synthesis
  • Treat with calcium & vitamin D supplementation, bisphosphonates
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11
Q

Polydactyly

What is the classification of Polydactyly?
What are the causes of Polydactyly?

A
>Classification
-Post-axial: ulnar side of hand
-Pre-axial: radial side of hand
-Central: on middle three fingers
>Causes:
-Bardet-Biedl syndrome
-Holt-Oram syndrome
-Carpenter syndrome
-Patau syndrome
-Familial (AD inheritance)
>Assoc. features include cognitive & cardiac deficits
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12
Q

Scleroderma

What is the diagnostic criteria for scleroderma?

A

> ARA Diagnostic Criteria requires 1 Major or 2 Minor criteria:

  • Major criteria include sclerosis of skin affecting arms, face, neck
  • Minor criteria include sclerodactyly, finger pulp atrophy, bilateral pulmonary fibrosis.
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13
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

What is the diagnostic criteria?

A

> ACR 1997: 4 of 11 = lupus (or Nephritis+ANA/dsDNA)

  • “DUMP CARS HIA”
  • Discoid rash
  • Ulcers, Oral ulcers
  • Malar rash
  • Photosensitivity
  • CNS, Neurologic disease a. Seizures OR b. Psychosis
  • Arthritis - symmetrical, polyarticular; unlike RA - non-erosive; reducible; sometimes asymm.; and pain is out of proportion to swelling
  • Renal, Kidney disease a. > 0.5g/day protein OR b. ≥ 3+ dipstick protein OR c. Cellular casts
  • Serositis
  • Haematological disorders a. Haemolytic anaemia OR b. Leukopenia OR c. Lymphopenia OR d. Thrombocytopenia
  • Immunologic abnormalities (a) Anti-­‐dsDNA (b) Anti-­‐Sm (c) Antiphospholipid
  • ANA is positive
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14
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

What are the causes of drug-induced lupus?

How can you differentiate drug-induced lupus from SLE?

A

> Causes of Drug-Induced Lupus:
-Procainamide (most common), Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Methyldopa, Quinidine, Phenytoin, Chlorpromazine, Carbamazepine, Sulphonamides, Tetracycline.

> Differentiating Drug-inducted Lupus from SLE:
-Drug-Induced Lupus has M:F ratio of 1:1, Less Renal/CNS involvement & More Lung involvement, Anti-histone antibodies, Resolution within days-weeks of drug discontinuation

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15
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

What is the WHO classification of lupus nephritis?

A

> Mnemonic: No Man Feared Diabetes Mellitus

  • Class I: Normal
  • Class II: Mesangial
  • Class III: Focal Proliferative
  • Class IV: Diffuse Proliferative
  • Class V: Membranous
  • Class VI: Sclerosing
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16
Q

What are side effects of methotrexate?

A
  • hepatic toxicity
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • haematological: low WCC, thrombocytopenia
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17
Q

Side effects of cyclosporin?

A
  • renal impairment

- HTN

18
Q

What are side effects and precautions when using Biologics?

A
  • infection
  • TB reactivation
  • Allergic reaction
  • no live vaccines
  • CI in active HepB and C
  • increase skin cancer
  • not good in pregnancy
19
Q

What is the differential for deforming symmetrical arthropathy?

A
  • RA
  • psoriatic arthritis
  • SLE (jaccoud arthropathy)
  • tophaceous gout
  • other seronegative arthropathy
  • very severe OA
20
Q

What are the XR changes of RA?

A
  • soft tissue swelling
  • symmetrical joint space narrowing
  • marginal joint erosions
  • juxta-articular joint osteoporosis
21
Q

Investigations for RA?

A
  • RF, anti-CCP
  • ESR/CRP
  • Hb re: anaemia chronic disease
  • XR
22
Q

Management of RA?

A
Non pharm: Physio, splints, OT
Pharm:
- NSAID
- DMARD: MTX, leflunomide, hydroxychloroquine, cyclo, azathio
- Biologics: TNF, non TNF
Surgical: joint replacement
23
Q

What is on the SLE criteria list?

A
MD SOAP BRAIN
Malar rash
Discoid rash
Serositis
Oral ulcers
Arthritis
Photosensitive rash
Blood abnormal: haemolytic anaem, leukopenia
Renal disorder: proteinuria, GN
ANA
Immunologic disorder: dsDNA, anti-Sm, antiphospholipid 
Neuro disorder: psychosis or seizure
4 or more = dx of SLE
24
Q

What are the investigations for SLE?

A
  • ANA, dsDNA, anti-Sm, anti-ro (congenital CHBlock)
  • anti U1RNP if MCTD suspected rather than pure SLE
  • ESR, C3/C4, CH50
  • FBC: hb, low WCC, low play
  • UA: proteinuria, blood
  • renal biopsy
  • APS: anti cardiolipin, B2 glycoprotein, lupus anticoagulant
  • MRI and LP if CNS lupus
25
Treatment of SLE?
- NSAID - hydroxychloroquine: monitor eyes - Ca blockers for raynaud - pred for active disease - anti coagulation if thrombosis/APS - OP prevention (pred) - AZA, cyclophosphamide, or MTX
26
What are features of Wegeners and Ix?
- lung and kidney involvement - SOB, cough/haemoptysis, nasal congestion - crackles throughout lungs - c-ANCA - urine: casts, dysmorphic red cells
27
What are features and Ix for Churg-Strauss?
Churg "Struassthma-panca" (EGPA) - asthma, allergic rhinitis, eczema, peripheral neuropathy - p-ANCA - biopsy
28
What investigations for scleroderma?
- ESR - folate, B12 - malabsorption - anti centromere (CREST) - anti scl70 (diffuse scleroderma) - gastroscopy, esophageal manometry - ILD: PFT, hrCT, 6min walk test - TTE: pulm HTN
29
What is the treatment for scleroderma?
- avoid smoking - PPI - Ca blocker for Raynaud - Abx for gut bacterial overgrowth - PAH Rx: endothelin receptor antagonists, PDE inhibitors - pred for pericarditis or early ILD - cyclophosphamide for ILD - ACEi for renal protection - myeloablative autologous stem cell transplant
30
Clinical features of Dermatomyositis?
- Grottron papules - shawl sign - heliotrope rash - arthritis - proximal weakness
31
What is MTCD?
Overlap features of SLE, scleroderma, polymyositis
32
What antibodies for Dermatomyositis/polymyositis?
Anti jo1 Anti mi2 Anti U1RNP Anti synthetase
33
1) Pattern of weakness in Dermatomyositis and polymyositis? | 2) Pattern in inclusion body myosotis?
1) proximal | 2) proximal lower limb and distal upper limb
34
What are the hand XR features of gout?
- tophi - punched out erosions - intraosseous lytic lesions
35
What are XR hand features of psoriatic arthritis?
- pencil in cup deformity | - distal erosive change with bone proliferation
36
What are extra articular features of RA?
- Raynaud - dry eyes, scleritis - neck pain: C1-2 subluxation - pulmonary fibrosis - pericarditis, IHD - peripheral neuropathy - anaemia - Vasculitis: ulcers, mononeuritis multiplex
37
What is Felty Syndrome?
RA + neutropenia + splenomegaly
38
What are the main causes of death in SLE?
- infection - renal failure - lymphoma - MI
39
What to test for for anti phospholipid syndrome?
- anti cardiolipin - lupus anticoagulant - b2 glycoprotein Dx: - Clinical: > 1 VTE or recurrent miscarriage or low platelets - Lab: antiphospholipid antibodies
40
SLE lupus nephritis treatments
- Class 1/2/6 - no immunosuppression - Class 3/4/(+/- 5) - immunosuppression - Adjuncts - ACEi if ptn>0.5g/d, BP<130/80, statins for LDL<2.6, PLEX if TMA