RNA Viruses Flashcards by Jordan Haga

Where does the reverse transcriptase (RT) required for copying cDNA from viral RNA come from?
A. It is de novo synthesized in the infected cell mitochondria
B. RT is found on the surface of the infected cell
C. Since viruses use cellular mechanisms for replication, the source of RT is the host cell
D. The RT is virion-associated

D. The RT is virion-associated

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Where in the infected cell does RT of the retroviral RNA take place?

Cytoplasm

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What is a provirus?
A. Any type of DNA incorporated into the cell
B. The genetic material of a virus as incorporated into, and able to replicate with the genome of a host cell
C. RNA derived from a bacterial virus
D. Another name for prions

B. The genetic material of a virus as incorporated into, and able to replicate with the genome of a host cell

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Where in the host genome does the retroviral dsDNA intergrate?
A. There is no site specificity for viral dsDNA intergration
B. Only at sites where proto-ocogenes are located
C. Integration takes place only between exons
D. At sites where introns are situated

A. There is no site specificity for viral dsDNA intergration

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Lentiviruses are referred to as “slow viruses”. Why?

Because of their prolonged incubation period

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What does the pol gene of retroviruses encode?

Reverse transcriptase & integrase

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FIV can infect:
A. CD4+ T lymphocytes
B. Platelets
C. Microglial cells
D. All of the above

A. CD4+ T lymphocytes

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At later stages of FIV infection, CD4+/CD25+ Tcells become activated leading to increased production of:
A. IL-2 & proliferation of Tcells
B. IL-10 & increased immunosupression
C. IL-12 & recovery from infection
D. IL-17 & increased bacterial clearance

B. IL-10 & increased immunosupression

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During infection of cats with FeLV, the regressor cats:
A. succumb to disease within the first week of infection
B. Become aggressive after infection
C. mount an immune response incapable of eliminating the virus
D. Mount an immune response capable of eliminating the virus

D. Mount an immune response capable of eliminating the virus

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FeLV has tropism to cells of the immune system such as Tcells. T/F?

True

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During which virus infection can lymphoma and leukemia develop?
A. Influenza A
B. NDV
C. Swine poxvirus
D. FeLV

D. FeLV

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What outcomes of retrovirus infection do you know?
A. Cellular transformation
B. Chronic infection
C. Latent infection
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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Acute transformation by retroviruses is mediated by oncogenes. T/F?

True

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Paramyxoviruses can replicate in enucleated cells or cells treated with actinomycin D. T/F?

True

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Which of the following replication strategies fit the paramyxovirus?
A. Cytoplasmic uncoating, nuclear synthesis of mRNA, and cRNA(+) and vRNA(-), cytoplasmic translation of proteins, virion assembly and budding
B. Nuclear uncoating, cytoplasmic synthesis of mRNA and RNA(+), translation of non-structural proteins, assembly of virions
C. Cytoplasmic uncoating, cytoplasmic synthesis of both mRNA and +RNA, cytoplasmic translation of structural proteins from mRNA, cytoplasmic synthesis vRNA(-) from +RNA, virion assembly and budding
D. Cytoplasmic uncoating and reverse transcription, nuclear dsDNA integration in host genome and transcription, cytoplasmic protein translation, virion assembly and budding

C. Cytoplasmic uncoating, cytoplasmic synthesis of both mRNA and +RNA, cytoplasmic translation of structural proteins from mRNA, cytoplasmic synthesis vRNA(-) from +RNA, virion assembly and budding

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How many types of glycoprotein spikes are there on the surface envelope of Paramyxoviridae?

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According to the FAO and OIE, Rinderpest has been eradicated. T/F?

True

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Giant, multinucleated cells that develop during paramyxovirus replication are also known as a what?

Syncytia

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AVPM-1 is a member of what sub-family of paramyxoviruses viruses?
A. Filovirinae
B. Paramyxovirinae
C. Retrovirinae
D. Orthomyxovirinae

B. Paramyxovirinae

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Nipah virus naturally infects fruit bats and humans, swine are NOT susceptible. T/F?

False

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To which family of viruses do the Paramyxovirinae and Pneumovirinae belong?

Paramyxoviridae

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Members of the Paramyxoviridae do not require nuclear function to replicate. T/F?

True

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Syncytium is formed in cell culture following infection with Paramyxovirus. Syncytium is:
A. Formation of large, multinucleated cells in culture
B. Formation of synclines in infected cells
C. Formation of synchrotrons in cells infected with APMV-1
D. Formation of syncopates in cell culture

A. Formation of large, multinucleated cells in culture

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What receptor should be expressed on a cell for the canine distemper virus to infect that cell? 
A. CCR5
B. CD150
C. CXCR4
D. CD4

B. CD150

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Canine distemper in dogs is now a rare disease in North America. Why?

Systematic vaccination of dogs

You are called on to a puppy that has been bitten by a raccoon. The client managed to capture the raccoon. Upon visual examination of the raccoon you notice neurological signs similar to canine distemper. Is there anything you could do to prevent canine distemper in the non-vaccinated puppy? What other suspicion could arise regarding the state of the raccoon?

Yes, administer hyperimmune serum against canine distemper virus; it could be infected with the rabies virus

``` Conditions such as seizures, paraparesis or tetraparesis can be observed in canine distemper of dogs when the disease progresses to: A. Reproductive stage B. CNS stage C. Respiratory stage D. Gastrointestinal stage ```

B. CNS stage

Samples from chicken suspected of velogenic NDV infection should be sent to: A. A reference lab B. Nearest diagnostic lab asap C. any lab that can process the samples D. the best diagnostic lab in the country

A. A reference lab

How many genera are found in the Orthomyxoviridae family of viruses?

Which of the following sentences best describes the type and configuration of the nucleic acid in orthomyxovirus?

6-8 segments of linear, negative sense, single stranded RNA

When influenza viruses re-assort their gene segments, it is said that they undergo an:

Antigenic shift

``` Retrovirus, orthomyxovirus and paramyxovirus have a lipid envelope and so are sensitive to: A. Lipid solvents B. Acidic pH C. Heat (e.g. 56C/30 min.) D. All of the above ```

D. All of the above

Uncoating of the orthomyxovirus envelope takes place in the:

Cytoplasm

``` Which of the following names of an influenza virus is correct according to the naming scheme of influenza viruses? A. Swine/A/Iowa/15/’30 (H1N1) B. A/Iowa/swine/15/30 (H1N1) C.A/swine/Iowa/15/1930 (H1N1) D. A/swine/Iowa/15/30 ```

C.A/swine/Iowa/15/1930 (H1N1)

Which of the following statements best describes transmission of Influenza viruses? A. In poultry-ingestion & inhalation B. In mammals-aerosol, droplets, & fomites C. In aquatic birds- fecal-oral transmission is common D. A, B, & C

D. A, B, & C

``` What type of horses are at risk of contracting equine influenza? A. Race horses B. Show horses C. Breeding stock horses D. All of the above ```

D. All of the above

Equine influenza is primarily a disease of the:

Respiratory tract

Pigs possess both human (SAα2,6Gal) and avian (SAα2,3Gal) receptors and that is why they can be infected with human and avian influenza viruses. T/F?

True

What is the simplest way to detect orthomyxovirus in allantoic fluids and what feature of the virus is utilized in the method?

Hemagglutination test, because the virus expresses hemagglutinin on the virion surface

What feasible therapeutic options are available for treatment of swine influenza in swine?

None exist

Which of the following virus families has a herringbone shaped nucleocapsid?

Paramyxoviridae

What diagnostic course would you take to assess herd immunity to equine influenza?

Retrospective serology, to measure the level of antibodies against equine influenza virus

``` Influenza, in whatever animal species the disease occurs, it is manifested as a disease of the: A. Respiratory tract B. Reproductive tract C. Immune system D. Liver ```

A. Respiratory tract

In the replication cycle of Flaviviruses, once proteins (both non-structural and structural) are translated where do they go?

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

``` Which of the following are the maintenance hosts of the West Nile virus? A. Horses B. Birds & mosquitoes C. Humans D. Mosquitoes & horses ```

B. Birds & mosquitoes

You think you have recognized WNV infection in a horse on the 4th day of infection, however, you still have doubts. What sample and which rapid diagnostic test would you prescribe to confirm presence of the virus?

Blood, RT-PCR

Ticks can transmit WNV virus. T/F?

True

``` Infection of BVDV in cattle can result in: A. None of the above B. Bovine diarrhea only C. Bovine diarrhea & Mucosal disease D. Mucosal disease only ```

C. Bovine diarrhea & Mucosal disease

Bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) belongs to the genus:

Pestivirus

What is the consequence of infection of cattle with a non-cytopathic BVDV strain?

Persistant infection with sporadic mucosal disease

At what stage of gestation can infection with BVDV in cows terminate the pregnancy, cause embryonic death or if the pregnancy is carried to term, persistently infected calves can be born?

1st trimester

If a cow is infected with a non-cytopathic strain of BVDV it will develop a persistent infection. What is the outcome of co-infection of such an animal with a cytopathic BVDV strain?

Mucosal disease

``` What form of BVD disease is characterized by severe erosion or ulcerative stomatitis? A. Acute viral diarrhea B. Mucosal disease C. All forms of BVD D. Subacute viral dirrhea ```

B. Mucosal disease

Persistent or prenatal infection with BVDV in cattle can lead to genetic disorders of foetuses. T/F?

True

You are an international veterinary consultant. What advice would you give to a developing country on the control of BVDV?

Identify infected animals, eliminate & vaccinate new animals in the her

Classical swine fever is also referred to as:

Hog cholera

``` Hog cholera is typically a disease of: A. Cattle B. Horses C. Dogs D. Pigs ```

D. Pigs

Where in North America is classical swine fever enzootic? A. Canada B. Mexico C. USA D. Currently, classical swine fever is not found in North America

D. Currently, classical swine fever is not found in North America

High fever and abdominal hyperaemia are characteristic of classical swine fever. T/F?

True

The Arteriviridae family belongs to the Order?

Nidovirles

In which cells do the arteriviruses initially replicate?

Macrophages

During Equine arteritis virus infection arteries are damaged by virus replication and inflammatory cytokines. T/F?

True

Where in the body does oedema develop during equine arteritis infection?

Over the eyes & abdomen

The best way to prevent transmission of equine arterivirus is: A. Recognize & separate infected horses B. No effort required, the infection is self-limiting C. Prevention is unachievable D. Kill infected horses

A. Recognize & separate infected horses

During infection with PRRSV fetuses are killed by hypoxia due to arteritis that develops in the umbilical vessels. T/F?

True

If you decide to prescribe immunohistochemistry as a test for the detection of PRRSV in mummified fetuses, which samples should you provide? A. Heparin blood collected from the mummified fetuses B. Vulva discharge C. Swabs of fresh nasal discharge D. Tissue collected from the mummified foetus

D. Tissue collected from the mummified foetus

``` During PRRSV infection, what post-mortem samples would you collect for testing immediately after abortion? A. Lung B. Spleen C. Lymph nodes and tonsils D. All options are valid ```

D. All options are valid

Regarding PRRSV control, the aim is to stabilize the heard by assuring immunity, particularly in breeding stock. Which of the following approaches would help in achieving this aim? A. Start the breeding with animals of the same age B. No vaccination of naive animals C. Recognition and elimination of problem animals D. Early vaccination of breeding stock

D. Early vaccination of breeding stock

If a new breeding boar is to be introduced into the herd, how long would you recommend that it be quarantined? A. At least 8-13 wks B. If the boar looks healthy there is no need to quarantine C. 5 wks D. 15 days

A. At least 8-13 wks

``` Orthobunyavirus, Nairovirus, Phlebovirus are examples of arthropod-borne viruses. This means that they are: A. Ominvorous viruses B. Arboviruses C. Herbivorous viruses D. Carnivorous viruses ```

B. Arboviruses

In which cellular compartment are Bunyavirus particles assembled and glycosylated?

Endoplasmic reticulum & Golgi network

Which of the following Bunyaviruses can cause arthrogryposis and hydranencephaly? A. Crimean Congo hemorrhagic & Nairobi sheep disease viruses B. Akabane virus & Cahe Valley virus C. Sin Nombre virus D. Puumala & Seoul viruses

B. Akabane virus & Cahe Valley virus

Arthrogryposis and hydranencephaly observed during Bunyavirus infection is most common in:

Cattle & sheep

Which animals are highly susceptible to the Akabane virus?

Cows & ewes

Which arthropod transmits the Rift Valley Fever virus?

The mosquito

In which geographical region is Rift Valley Fever virus enzootic?

Eastern & Southern Africa

``` Outbreaks of the Rift Valley Fever usually occur after: A. Drought B. Heavy snow C. Gusty winds D. Abnormal heavy rainfall ```

D. Abnormal heavy rainfall

``` Borna Disease is mostly detected in: A. Africa B. USA C. Iceland D. Central Europe ```

D. Central Europe

The fatal form of Borna Disease is:

The neurological disease

“Dribbling and champing of jaws” is a clinical sign of Borna Disease. T/F?

True

Eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies in neurons called “Joest-Degen” bodies are pathognomonic for Borna Disease Virus infection. T/F?

True

``` Ante-mortem diagnosis of Borna Disease is difficult mainly because of similarities in neurological manifestation. Which of the following diseases can be considered as differentials? A. EHV-1 infection B. West Nile C. All above options are valid D. Rabies ```

C. All above options are valid

What disease does the avian bornavirus cause?

Proventricular dilation disease

During infection with the avian bornavirus, proventricular dilation is a direct result of:

Progressive neurological dysfunction

``` Although Astroviruses are known to cause diarrhoea in many species, however, a fatal diarrheic disease can be observed only in: A. Birds B. Cattle C. Humans D. Pigs ```

A. Birds

``` Astroviruses have a linear, positive sense, single-stranded RNA, and the RNA is: A. Semi-infectious B. Infectious C. Non-infectious D. Quiescent ```

B. Infectious

The term prion means:

Infectious protein or rogue protein

What classification system is used for prions?

There is no classification system for prions yet

``` What is the abnormal form of the prion protein? A. PrPc B. PrPs C. PrPsc D. PrP ```

C. PrPsc

Prion proteins are mostly expressed in:

Neurons & lymphoreticular cells

Why are prions difficult to eliminate?

They are resistant to chemical & physical conditions

How do prions replicate?

The PrPsc catalyses the conversion of PrPc into PrPsc

``` Scrapie is a prion disease mainly found in: A. Cattle B. Sheep C. Pigs D. Camels ```

B. Sheep

In animals infected with the scrapie prion, histopathological lesions are characterized by wide spread inflammatory reaction in the brain. T/F?

False

Why has prion infection in cattle been termed “mad cow disease”?

Abnormal posture & progressive apprehensive behavior of the affected animal

``` Although the transmission of prions is not fully known, what is the accepted mode of transmission currently? A. Thrips B. Mosquitoes C. Oral route D. Ticks ```

C. Oral route

Histopathological examination of a brain from a cow suspected to have died from Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy would show: A. Vestibular neuronitis B. Lymphocytes infiltration around neurons C. Astrocytic hypoplasia D. Neuronal vacuolation & degeneration

D. Neuronal vacuolation & degeneration

RNA Viruses Flashcards

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