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PANCE > Rosh Review highlights > Flashcards

Rosh Review highlights Flashcards

1
Q

Nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus can be caused by the medication?

A

Lithium

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2
Q

Myxedema is a life threatening condition of _______

with a classic presentation of these 3 s/sx?

A

Hypothyroidism

Hypotension, hypothermia, and bradycardia

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3
Q

Medication most appropriate to treat Myofascial pain syndrome

A

Cyclobenzaprine

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4
Q

Medication most appropriate indicated for fibromyalgia

A

Pregabalin

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5
Q

Tinea corporis is also known as ?

A

Ring worm

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6
Q

Opiate withdrawal symptoms may be achieved with what medication?

A

Clonidine and antiemetics

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7
Q

What class drug is the most frequent cause of poisoning leading to a variety of anticholinergic symptoms?

A

TCA (Amitriptyline)

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8
Q

Cholinergic Toxicity acronym for symptoms

A

SLUDGE

Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI cramps, emesis

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9
Q

Urge incontinence is classified as urinary urgency with inability to delay urination.

If behavioral approaches are not helpful, what is the next anticholinergic therapy ?

A

Oxybutinin or Tolterodine

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10
Q

A patient with salicylate toxicity from aspirin will present with what symptoms? what is the treatment?

A

Fever, tachypnea, diaphoresis, tinnitus and vertigo.

Tx- Sodium Bicarb (traps S-Acid in urine)

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11
Q

Meniere’s disease tetrad of symptoms?

A

Vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.

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12
Q

What is the treatment for peritonsillar abscess?

A

ABX (Augmentin + Septra) and Needle Aspiration or I and D

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13
Q

which antibiotic is most appropriate fir otitis media on a child that has a history of rash with amoxicillin?

A

Cefdinir

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14
Q

Most common type of prostate cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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15
Q

Oral Leukoplakia is associated with_____

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia is associated with_____

A

Oral Leukoplakia- 50%–> dysplasia of malignancy 2t Tobacco.

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia (tongue)- EBV or HIV

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16
Q

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa is susceptible to what cephalosporin?

A

Cefepime

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17
Q

Maintenance treatment of COPD patient group C (FEV<45%)?

A

Tiotropium (Lon acting anticholinergic)

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18
Q

Most common cardiac rhythm abnormality in Anorexia Nervosa?

A

Bradycardia

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19
Q

A patient US shows an empty gestational sac, and no fetal pole. HcG is at 1,000. What is the next treatment?

A

Repeat HcG after 48-72 hours

HcG < 1500 without IUP require conservative management.

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20
Q

Diabetic agent with increased risk of MI?

A

Thiozilidinediones (Rosiglitazone)

“Increases insulin sensitivity in fat and muscles”

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21
Q

medication that is indicated in patients with an acute coronary syndrome or hx of MI for anticoagulation therpay?

A

Ticagrelor (Not for Stroke)

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22
Q

medication considered in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation at low risk for stroke?

A

Aspirin

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23
Q

Common oral anticoagulant that specifically inhibits factor Xa, resulting in predictable anticoagulation

therefore requires no routine monitoring?

A

Apixaban

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24
Q

Cluster B patients are distinguished by what characteristics?

A

Dramatic, emotional, self destructive, and erratic

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25
Q

Cluster A patients are distinguished by what characteristics?

A

odd and eccentric

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26
Q

Cluster C patients are distinguished by what characteristics?

A

anxious and fearful

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27
Q

Nephrotic syndrome associated with Hodgkin’s and NHL?

A

Minimal change Nephrotic Syndrome

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28
Q

MC is associated with Good Pasture syndrome?

A

Rapid Progressive Glomerulonephritis

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29
Q

which medication is used in the long-term treatment of schistosomes infection?

A

Praziquantel

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30
Q

Which virus is Roseola Infantum associated with?

A

HHSV 6

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31
Q

Roseola Infantum is characterized by ?

A

High fever lasting 3-4 days that effervesces with the appearance of a rash.

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32
Q

Diabetes medication that cause hypoglycemia, pancreatitis, and is contraindicated in gastroparesis?

A

Glucagon Like Peptide 1 (GLP-1)

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33
Q

classic signs of malignant hyperthermia include muscle rigidity 2T increased Ca2+ accumulation (Succinylcholine) what is the treatment?

A

Dantrolene

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34
Q

A poorly HTN controlled patient with a throbbing headache and vision changes should not be treated with?

A

Triptan or Ergotamine (Adrenergic agonists)

includes ACS, PAD, cerebrovascular, or angina

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35
Q

Most common malignancy in men age 15-35?

A

Testicular cancer

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36
Q

MC pathogen in cat or dog bite?

A

Pasteurella Multocida

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37
Q

Pathogen responsible for cat scratch fever?

A

Bartonella Henselae

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38
Q

Other than aspirin, what medication should be avoided in children recovering from flu or chicken pox?

A

Bismuth subsalicylate

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39
Q

a rash that includes oral mucosa, lips, conjunctivae and genitals. Cause by ______ and ________

A

Sulfonamides, allopurinol and Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Steven-Johnson syndrome

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40
Q

Abruptio Placentae risk factors include?

A

HTN, trauma, and cocaine use

painful vaginal bleeding

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41
Q

Gold standard testing for herpes virus?

A

Viral culture and PCR

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42
Q

A patient with chronic ethanol usage should be admitted if presents the following what 3 symptoms?

A

Fever, tachycardia, and hyperextension.

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43
Q

carcinoid tumors triad?

A

diarrhea, rash, and flushing

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44
Q

MC use post partum depression medication with fewest side effects? (undetectable in infant serum)

A

Sertraline

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45
Q

Lead poisoning >____ requires chelation. Lead poison oral and IV treatment include ?

A

Chelation= >45

Succimer PO (IV EDTA)

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46
Q

Dupuytren contracture is associated with what disease?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

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47
Q

Treatment for acetaminophen toxicity

A

N-Acetylcysteine

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48
Q

hypertension treatment for cocaine toxicity

A

Benzodiazepines and Phentolamine

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49
Q

Alpha Thalassemia is more common in what race?

A

SE Asian descent

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50
Q

Thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, rash, and arthralgias/myalgias think?

A

Rocky mountain Spotted fever

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51
Q

Antibiotics preferred to treat Bordetella Pertussis?

A

Macrolides

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52
Q

St John’s Wort is notoriously known for decreasing effects of ______ medication, causing_____?

A

Warfarin’ Ischemic Strokes

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53
Q

Rabies exposure requires Immunoglobulin treatment and ___ doses of inactivated rabies vaccine over ___

A

4 doses of vaccine over 14 days

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54
Q

Antidote for methanol?

A

Fomepizole

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55
Q

Oil of wintergreen contains what?

A

5G of salicylates

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56
Q

Antibiotics for AOM can be deferred if child is?

A

> /= 2 yoa or has mild-moderate symptoms

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57
Q

Gottron’s papules (knuckle violaceous papules, proximal muscle weakness, periorbital heliotrope rash

Think what disorder?

A

Polymyositis Dermatomyositis

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58
Q

MC pathogen of AOM in children?

A

H. Influenza

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59
Q

Staccato cough, afebrile, and hyperinflated or expanded lungs in a neonate 19 weeks or less think?

A

Chlamydial pneumoniae

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60
Q

Physical complaints from various organ systems that cause impairment.

Symptoms change, disorder is persistent.

A

Somatic Symptom Disorder

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61
Q

Purposely feigning illness using deception to attain goals.

A

Factitious Disorder

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62
Q

hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperpigmentation, abdominal pain w NV think what disorder?

A

Adrenal Insufficiency (Addison’s)

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63
Q

DTaP is given_____ age_____

TDaP is given______ age____

Both vaccines are acellular.

A

Before the age of 7

After the age of 7 (D comes before T)

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64
Q

2T sun exposure pearly papule lesion with rolled borders and telangiectasias?

MC type of skin cancer and Dx with shave biopsy

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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65
Q

Lesion is also 2T sun exposure presents as a non-healing indurated and ulcerated papule

“Central erosion or ulceration”

A

Squamous cell Carcinoma

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66
Q

Hyperextendable joints, long protruding ears, long face, prominent jaw, micro penis and large testicles

A

Fragile X syndrome

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67
Q

Why is peptic ulcer disease a RF for Nephrolithiasis ?

A

Increased use of acid antacids

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68
Q

Anterior uveitis, IBD, restrictive pulmonary disease, and back pain you think what?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis (HLA-B27)

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69
Q

Benign murmur low and short tone that reduces in intensity with inspiration, sitting or standing?

A

Still’s Murmur (Venous Hum increases with maneuvers)

70
Q
  • Anemia - Fever -Thrombocytopenia -Renal failure

- Neurologic findings

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

71
Q

How many weeks in between should there be for live vaccines?

A

4 weeks

72
Q

Hyperpigmentation, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia think what disorder?

A

Primary Adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s Disease)

73
Q

When testing for acromegaly, what blood test should you order?

A

Insulin Like Growth Hormone (IGH-1) “Not HG”

74
Q

Treatment for Histoplasmosis?

A

Itraconazole (Amphotericin B)

75
Q

succinylcholine is contraindicated in spinal cord injuries within 3-6months why?

A

Sux causes hyperkalemia as Spinal cord injuries–> denervation syndromes (same with MS and ALS)

76
Q

Diaphoresis, lacrimation, and piloerection are symptoms of withdrawal to what substance?

A

Opioids

77
Q

How many café Au let spots are required for Neurofibromatosis 1

A

6

78
Q

Delayed tendon reflex relaxation is associated with what disorder?

A

Hypothyroidism

79
Q

True or false Carpal Tunnel is a common complication of what disorder ?

A

Hypothyroidism

80
Q

TIA risk anticoagulant recommendations?

A

Low or moderate risk TIA = Aspirin alone

High Risk TIA= Aspirin plus clopidogrel

81
Q

Abnormal facies, cleft palate, hypercalcemia, and seizures (Jitteriness) think of what newborn genetic disorder?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome (Chromosome 22 deletion)

82
Q

What is the treatment for Dry socket?

A

Iodoform gauze saturated with Eugenol (Oil of cloves).

83
Q

What is the MC incontinence in elderly?

A

Urge (Detrusor overactivity Tx= anticholinergics)

84
Q

MC manifestation of abusive head trauma in infants?

A

Retinal hemorrhage

85
Q

WBC counts >100K, Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphate, and Philadelphia chromosome thin what D/O?

A

Chronic myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

86
Q

Pancytopenia, gingival hyperplasia, WBC > 100K, and Auer rods?

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)

87
Q

MC childhood malignancy (Esp. Down syndrome), CNS Sx (fever MC), hepatosplenomegaly, LAD think ?

A

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)

88
Q

MC leukemia in adults, B Cell Clonal Malignancy, “Smudge Cell” think ?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

89
Q

What differentiates foot and mouth disease versus Herpangina ?

A

Herpangina- Lesions @ palate, uvula, tonsils

F and M disease- lesions@ tongue, anterior oral cavity, and hands and feet.

90
Q

Bulimia Nervosa SSRI of choice for treatment?

A

Fluoxetine

91
Q

Girl with normal development of breasts but no menstruation or has no axillary or pubic hair think ?

A

Complete Androgen insensitivity syndrome?

92
Q

Which IV sedative –> metabolic acidosis with high doses and prolonged use?

A

Propofol

93
Q

What is the alternate treatment for Pasteurella Multocida for PNC allergy ?

A

Cefuroxime and Clindamycin

94
Q

When you see Wickham’s Striae yo think what D/O?

A

Lichen Planus (Pruritic, Polygonal, purple, papule)

95
Q

Treatment of OCD in children or adolescents?

A

Sertraline or Fluoxetine

96
Q

Contraindication of Methotrexate in ectopic pregnancy?

A

Renal Insufficiency

97
Q

Tick borne illness with skin ulcers and LAD

A

Tularemia (Streptomycin)

98
Q

Which of the following causes secondary osteoporosis in women?

A

Corticosteroid use

99
Q

what is the step process in treatment of pheochromocytoma?

A

Alpha Blockade prior to Beta blockade

Phentolamine followed by Labetalol

100
Q

Cholesterol medication that can exacerbate Gout

A

Niacin

101
Q

Decreased PTH, hypocalcemia, and hyperphosphatemia you think?

A

Hypoparathyroidism 2T Parathyroid removal/ radiation

102
Q

N acetylcysteine is administered within_____ of Tylenol ingestion for reduced risk of hepatotoxicity.

A

8 hours (If over 8 hours–> loading dose of 140 mg kg needed)

103
Q

which serum biomarker would be elevated in a patient with epithelial ovarian carcinoma?

A

Cancer Antigen 125

104
Q

Neonatal bacterial conjunctivitis prevention and treatment?

A

Gonorrhea= Topical Erythromycin

Chlamydia= Oral Erythromycin

105
Q

Etomidate a non barbiturate used in rapid sequence intubation is known for what common side effect?

A

Myoclonic Jerks

106
Q

Hyperkalemia can cause

A

Wide QRS, Prolonged PRI, Peaked T waves

107
Q

Hyper magnesia can cause

A

hyporeflexia, prolonged PR and QT interval, and wide QRS

108
Q

Chvostek sign can be seen in what biochemical lab abnormality ?

A

Calcium (Hypocalcemia)

109
Q

Chlordiazepoxide is what kind of medication and when is it used?

A

Benzodiazepine often used as anti-seizure medication

110
Q

Can phenytoin be used for anti-seizure medication?

A

No, it does not treat alcohol withdrawal syndrome seizures.

111
Q

Most common medications for ADHD

A

Methylphenidate and Atomoxetine (Non-stimulant)

112
Q

xanthomas on the extensors and abdominal pain that radiates to back think hyper_____ –> __________

A

Hyper triglyceride levels: –> Pancreatitis

113
Q

Retinopathy is caused by DM or HTN, what is MC to be seen under fundoscopic exam if Retinopathy is present?

A

Micro aneurysms or hypervascularization

114
Q

1st Metatarsal fractures with _____ or more displacement require?

A

1mm or more: Immediate Ortho referral

115
Q

Biggest difference between erysipelas and Cellulitis?

A

Cellulitis has poorly demarcated borders.

Erysipelas has clear demarcated borders and lymphatic streaking is present (Lymphatic involvement).

116
Q

Pyelonephritis in a pregnant patient (in/out patient)?

A

1st- Cipro or Septra inpatient (outpatient= cipro)

2nd- Ampicillin/Gentamycin or 3rd Generation cephalosporin

117
Q

In an AIDS patient pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine medication is the treatment of choice for what?

A

Toxoplasma Gondii

118
Q

Pathognomonic finding for Cerebral toxoplasmosis Gondii?

A

Multiple ring enhancing lesions on CT

119
Q

Which is the most concerning in malignant melanoma ABCDEs?

A

Border irregularity of lesion

120
Q

Major cause of perinatal infections to include sepsis and meningitis?

A

Group B Strep (Strep Agalactiae).

121
Q

NSAID contraindicated in Gastric Bypass patients due to black box warning?

A

Meloxicam

122
Q

Most appropriate initial pharmacologic agent to treat prostate cancer?

A

Leuprolide

123
Q

Drugs that are used for iron chelation in overdose cases?

A

Deferoxamine- Parenteral only

Deferasirox- Preferred 2T ease of use (PO)

124
Q

Study of choice to diagnose epiglottitis ?

A

Indirect Laryngoscopy (Nasopharyngeal scope)

125
Q

Clozapine 2nd Generation anti-psychotic requires monitoring of _______ due to causing ______.

A

WBC/ Absolute Neutrophil count: Severe nuetropenia

126
Q

A 5 year old patient presents wit positive Rapid strep but has anaphylaxis with PCNs what is the TOC?

“Cefdinir is a great alternate for non-immediate hypersensitivity but not for anaphylaxis”

A

Clindamycin

127
Q

Which can be a potential benign cause of hiccups ?

A

Hyponatremia

128
Q

Treatment of leiomyoma for patients that wish to retain fertility?

A

Myomectomy

129
Q

Frequent ear infections and persistent ear drainage despite appropriate antibiotic use think?

A

Cholesteatoma

130
Q

MCC of cholesteatoma?

A

Prolonged Eustachian Tube Dysfunction

131
Q

Symptoms of Lidocaine overdose include?

A

Metallic taste, tremor, and bradycardia

132
Q

Uncomplicated treatment of UTI for pregnant patient?

A

Amoxicillin - cephalexin- Nitrofurantoin

133
Q

Complicated/Pylonephritis treatment of UTI for pregnant patient?

A

3rd Generation cephalosporin or Amp/Gentamycin

134
Q

Treatment of Malaria Falciparum?

A

Chloroquine

Complicated Quinidine + Doxycycline

135
Q

Anemia of chronic disease treatment in CKD due to decreased erythropoietin?

A

Darbepoetin

136
Q

Medications that cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

CCBs, cyclosporin, and phenytoin

137
Q

Difference between Bacterial tracheitis and Croup?

A

Bacterial tracheitis are toxic appearing, respiratory failure, and mucopurulent secretion

(+) pseudo membrane @ epiglottis

138
Q

Multiple central joint pain that improves with exercise in a young <30 yo adult think of what disorder?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis (Rheumatoid A. = peripheral joints)

139
Q

Thrombosis, splenomegaly and proliferation of all 3 myeloid cell lines thin what?

A

Polycythemia Vera

140
Q

Serum Ferritin levels of < ___ mcg/L is diagnostic.

A

15 mcg/L

141
Q

Hypokalemia is also associated with what other electrolyte disorder?

A

Hypomagnesemia

142
Q

Shistocytes on blood smear you think what disorder?

A

Thombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

143
Q

Child that has thrombocytopenia post viral illness think?

A

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

144
Q

Myxedema Coma is associated with?

A

Severe Hypothyroidism (Hyponatremia MC)

145
Q

What thyroid drug blocks release of stored thyroid hormone?

A

Iodine

146
Q

Methimazole and PTU MOA?

A

Block Thyroid hormone synthesis

147
Q

In differentiating BB or CCB overdose what differences do you see?

A

BBs –> AMS and hypoglycemia

CCBs –> Hyperglycemia

148
Q

Fetal Heart Rate Mnemonic

A

Variable- Cord Compression
Early- Head compression
Accelerations- OK
Late- Placental insufficiency (VEAL CHOP)

149
Q

Antiarrhythmic that leads to Torsades de pointes

A

Procainamide

150
Q

Prolonged bleeding time with normal INR, PT, and PTT?

A

Von Willebrand disease

151
Q

Multiple spontaneous abortions think what?

A

Antiphospholipid Ab Syndrome

152
Q

MC Pneumonia treatment for children < 5?

A

High dose amoxicillin

153
Q

Where should the umbilical crod be cut after delivery?

A

3 cm from the Umbilicus

154
Q

Treatment of vertigo with stress reduction, low salt diet, no tobacco or alcohol and physiotherapy mainly ____

A

Vestibular rehabilitation (Meniere’s)

155
Q

MC cardiac rhythm abnormality in Anorexia Nervosa

A

Bradycardia

156
Q

A cherry red spot on fundoscopic exam what test is appropriate?

A

ECG

157
Q

MC location for oral cancer

A

Tongue

158
Q

Visual evoked potential testing is the study of choice for what disorder?

A

Optic neuritis

159
Q

drug that induces Pseudotumor cebri?

A

Doxycycline (Tetracyclines)

160
Q

Aortic enteric fistula is most common at?

A

Duodenum

161
Q

Akathisia is defined as ?

A

Restlessness

162
Q

Droplet precautions are for ?

A

Influenza and other mild virus.

163
Q

Airborne precautions are for

A

TB, Measles, varicella,

164
Q

Parkinsonian features with dementia think/

A

Lewy Bodies dementi

165
Q

Flu vaccine may begin at what age?

A

2 months

166
Q

Abdominal complication common with Nenoch-Schonlein Purpura?

A

Intussusception

167
Q

Highest greatest effect against high triglycerides

A

Fibrate Gemfibrozil (Niacin if fibrate CI)

168
Q

Bacterial Peritonitis treatment abx of choice?

A

3rd Generation Cephalosporin

169
Q

Suggestion of congestive Heart failure?

A

3rd HS S3 Gallop

170
Q

MCC of infectious lymphadenitis?

A

Staph Aureus

Henselae (Cervical or Axillae Lymphadenitis)

171
Q

When in doubt, which is the best Anticoagulant ?

A

Dabigatran

PANCE (13 decks)

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