Routes and FPL Flashcards

1
Q

What must Porter Airlines comply with when operating in airspace?

A

The rules and limits defined in Canadian regulations and orders, or more restrictive rules of the operating country

Special Authorizations are outlined in the Company AOC.

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2
Q

What are the two types of diversionary routes authorized?

A
  • A diversionary track assigned by ATC with radar surveillance
  • A temporary diversion due to weather after ATC concurrence
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3
Q

What is assessed as part of the Airport Authorization Process?

A

Aircraft performance

Flight crew may use MCDU or Aerodata analysis for performance assessment.

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4
Q

Who initiates the airport authorization process?

A

The VP, Flight Operations

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5
Q

What is included in the feasibility study of the airport authorization process?

A

Results communicated to VP, Flight Operations with potential operating restrictions or unique training requirements

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6
Q

List the departments included in the airport authorization process.

A
  • Flight Operations
  • Flight Technical
  • SOCC
  • Airport Operations
  • In-Flight Services
  • Technical Operations
  • Security
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7
Q

What operational factors must be considered before operating into a new airport?

A
  • Minimum safe altitudes
  • Runway suitability
  • Aircraft performance
  • Navigation aids and lighting
  • Low visibility operations
  • Weather patterns
  • Emergency services
  • Fuel burn calculations
  • Contracted service providers
  • Air traffic services
  • One engine inoperative procedures
  • Depressurization over critical areas
  • Suitable alternates
  • Pilot training requirements
  • Airfield Categorization
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8
Q

What is the minimum altitude requirement found in?

A

CAR 602.124

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9
Q

What knowledge must a Captain demonstrate before being assigned to a flight?

A

Knowledge of the route and aerodrome into which the flight will operate

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10
Q

What is the airfield categorization based on?

A

Operating complexity and special considerations

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11
Q

What are the characteristics of a Category A airfield?

A
  • Approved instrument approach procedure
  • At least one runway with no performance-limited procedures
  • Night operations capable
  • No special crew training required
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12
Q

What must pilots complete before operating to Category B airfields?

A

Special qualification requirements that are site-specific

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13
Q

What training must pilots complete before operating to Category C airfields?

A

Airfield-specific simulator training

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14
Q

What must a Captain do before conducting a flight?

A

Make an individual analysis of the meteorological conditions, route, and terminal facilities

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15
Q

What does SOCC provide before a flight?

A

Up-to-date meteorological and other information

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16
Q

Who normally files flight plans?

A

SOCC on behalf of the Captain

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17
Q

What happens in the event of a planned flight planning service interruption?

A

SOCC will initiate the scheduled maintenance process

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18
Q

What are the requirements for operating an aeroplane in night VFR flight?

A
  • Within 25 nautical miles of the departure aerodrome
  • IFR flight with visual contact established
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19
Q

What conditions must be met for no alternate aerodrome IFR flight?

A
  • Takeoff aerodrome within North America, Bermuda, or Caribbean Islands
  • Destination aerodromes within Canada, Continental USA, or Puerto Rico
  • Visibility and weather requirements for one hour before and after ETA
  • Equipped with two separate runways and standby power supply
  • Suitable approach aids for each runway
  • Fuel requirements as per Section 3.23
  • Additional fuel for international flights or Northern Domestic Airspace
20
Q

What types of approaches are classified as precision approaches?

A

ILS approaches

Company pilots are trained to fly Category I and II approaches.

21
Q

What is an Approach Procedure with Vertical Guidance (APV)?

A

RNAV approaches with a vertical component designed for straight-in minima to a Decision Altitude (DA)

22
Q

What is a non-precision approach?

A

An approach with no provided vertical component designed as a step-down procedure to an MDA

23
Q

What must pilots do when flying non-precision approaches?

A

Fly as SCDA approaches whenever possible

24
Q

What must pilots ensure when conducting RNP AR Approach operations?

A
  • Maintain lateral navigation if approach is discontinued
  • Discontinue approach if service degradation is indicated
  • Advise ATC if unable to perform RNP AR Approach
  • Ensure required navigation performance is charted
  • Crosscheck approach waypoints and altitudes
25
What is the validity period for a Category C airfield qualification?
12 months
26
What must pilots not exceed during approach operations?
Maximum airspeeds as appropriate
27
Where are RNP AR Approach operations approved?
Canada only
28
What is required before conducting a PRM approach?
Review and brief the PRM Approach 'Attention All Users' information chart
29
What must the descent altitude not be below during a descending breakout?
Minimum radar vectoring altitude
30
What should flight crews do in the event of a TCAS RA during a PRM approach?
Comply with vertical TCAS guidance and follow lateral heading information from PRM final controller
31
What must pilots do if not approved for PRM and the approach in use is a PRM approach?
Advise ATC at least 200 miles from destination or at top of descent
32
What procedures must pilots use for Category II approaches?
Company Pilot Monitored Approach (PMA) procedures
33
What is prohibited at Porter Airlines regarding Category II approaches?
Manually flown Cat II approaches
34
List the tolerances for Category II approaches.
* Indicated airspeed satisfactory for normal flare and landing * Deviation from localizer does not exceed 1 dot * Deviation from glide slope does not exceed 1 dot * No unusual turbulence or excessive attitude changes after FAF * Aircraft is in trim for normal approach and landing
35
What are the wind limitations for CAT II approaches?
* Crosswind: 15 Knots * Tailwind: 10 Knots * Headwind: 25 Knots
36
When should a go-around be initiated during a Category II approach?
When required visual reference is not established at DH
37
What is the No Fault Go-Around Policy?
Pilots should perform a go-around if stable approach criteria are not met
38
What is required if an aircraft cannot meet RVSM airspace requirements?
Notify ATC immediately
39
What are the RVSM contingency procedures for in-flight contingencies?
* Enroute diversion across prevailing traffic flow * Pressurization failure * Loss of required navigation capability * Engine failure
40
What should pilots do during RVSM weather deviations?
* Keep ATC advised of intentions * Alert nearby aircraft * Watch for conflicting traffic * Turn on all exterior lights
41
Define Performance-Based Navigation (PBN).
Aircraft RNAV and RNP system performance requirements defined by the accuracy and functionality needed for operations
42
What is the difference between RNAV and RNP?
* RNAV: Operation on any desired flight path within coverage of NAVAIDs * RNP: On-board performance monitoring and alerting required for safety
43
What must pilots do if there is a loss of RNAV/RNP capabilities?
Advise ATC along with a proposed course of action
44
What is a Radius-to-Fix (RF) Leg?
A turn segment with a constant radius between two fixes
45
What is prohibited while flying an RF leg?
Flying with the flight directors in standby mode
46
What must be adhered to when flying RF legs?
All published speed constraints