Routes Of Drug Administration Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

What is Non-proprietary name?

A

approved name (post-phase III trial), official name (listed in pharmacopeia), or generic name (off-patent) such as acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

……. Is an approved name (post-
phase III trial), official name (listed in
pharmacopeia), or generic name (off-patent) such as acetaminophen

A

Non-proprietary name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Proprietary (trade) name?

A

the brand name or registered trademark (e.g. panadol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

………. is the brand name or registered trademark (e.g. panadol)

A

Proprietary (trade) name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

About phases of clinical trial, What is Pre-clinical?

A

testing a drug in a controlled environment (lab) on animal or human cells before human testing to discern the pharmacokinetic and toxicological profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

About phases of clinical trial, ……….. is testing a drug in a controlled environment (lab) on animal or human cells before human testing to discern the pharmacokinetic and toxicological profile

A

Pre-clinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

About the Phases of Clinical Drug Testing, what happens in Phase I?

A

first administration to healthy human volunteers, following animal studies; to determine pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

About the Phases of Clinical Drug Testing, “first administration to healthy human volunteers, following animal studies; to determine pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics” happens in what phase?

A

Phase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

About the Phases of Clinical Drug Testing, what is phase 2?

A

first administration to patients, to
determine initial safety and efficacy, dose range, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

About the Phases of Clinical Drug Testing, “first administration to patients, to
determine initial safety and efficacy, dose range, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics” occurs in what phase?

A

Phase 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

About the Phases of Clinical Drug Testing, what happens in Phase III?

A

large sample sizes, often double-
blinded RCT; comparative (new drug vs. placebo or standard of care) to establish safety and efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

About the Phases of Clinical Drug Testing, “large sample sizes, often double-blinded RCT; comparative (new drug vs. placebo or standard of care) to establish safety and efficacy” happens a in what phase?

A

large sample sizes, often double-
blinded RCT; comparative (new drug vs. placebo or standard of care) to establish safety and efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

About the Phases of Clinical Drug Testing, what happens in Phase IV?

A

post marketing surveillance, wide
distribution; to determine effects of long-term use, rare ADRs, ideal dosing, and effects in real-world practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

About the Phases of Clinical Drug Testing, “post marketing surveillance, wide
distribution; to determine effects of long-term use, rare ADRs, ideal dosing, and effects in real-world practice” happens in what phase?

A

Phase IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the advantages of oral flu of administration?

A

Convenient, easy to administer, Large surface area for absorption, Inexpensive relative to parenteral administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the disadvantages of oral route of administration?

A

Incomplete absorption, hepatic first-pass effect, potential GI irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the advantages of buccal/sublingual route of administration?

A

Rapid onset of action, No hepatic first-pass effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the disadvantages of buccal/sublingual route of administration?

A

Must be lipid-soluble, non-irritating, Short duration of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the rectal (PR) route of drug administration?

A

The drug is placed in the rectum, e.g., suppositories or bisacodyl laxatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the advantages of rectal administration?

A

Almost no hepatic first-pass effect; useful in NPO (nil per oral), vomiting, or unconscious patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the disadvantages of rectal administration?

A

Inconvenient, may cause irritation at the site, and has erratic absorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the intravenous or intra-arterial route of drug administration?

A

Drugs are administered directly into the vein or artery, e.g., furosemide, morphine, dopamine, IV fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the advantages of IV/intra-arterial administration?

A

No first-pass effect, allows slow infusion or rapid onset, and is easy to titrate the dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the disadvantages of IV/intra-arterial administration?

A

Hard to reverse, risk of infection, bleeding, vascular injury, extravasation, and it’s expensive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What types of drugs can be given intramuscularly (IM)?
Soluble substances, mild irritants, suspensions (e.g., multivitamins, streptomycin).
26
What are the advantages of IM administration?
Oil-based drugs offer depot storage (slow release). Aqueous drugs have a rapid onset of action.
27
What is a major disadvantage of IM administration?
Pain or hematoma at the injection site.
28
What are the advantages of subcutaneous route of drug administration?
Non-irritating drugs, small volumes, constant even absorption, alternative to IV e.g. insulin
29
What are the disadvantages of subcutaneous route of drug administration?
Pain at site of injection, smaller volumes than IM, tissue damage from multiple injections
30
Describe intradermal route of administration?
Given into the layers of the skin e.g. B.C.G. vaccine
31
What are the advantages of intrathecal route of administration?
Direct into CSF (sub-arachnoid space), bypass BBB and blood-CSF barrier e.g spinal anaesthesia
32
What are the disadvantages of intrathecal route of administration?
Risk of infection
33
What are the advantages of topical route of administration?
Easy to administer, localized (limited systemic absorption)
34
What are the disadvantages of topical route of administration?
Effects are mainly limited to site of application
35
What are the advantages of inhalation route of administration?
Immediate action in lungs, rapid delivery to blood, no hepatic first-pass effect
36
What are the disadvantages of inhalation route of administration?
Must be gas, vapour, or aerosol
37
What are the advantages of transdermal route of administration?
Drug absorption through intact skin, no hepatic first-pass effect,
38
What are the disadvantages of transdermal route of administration?
Irritation at site of application, delayed onset of action, hydrophilic drugs not easily absorbed
39
Describe Intraperitonial route of administration?
Injections given into the abdominal cavity e.g. infant saline, glucose
40
Describe Intra-articular route of administration?
Injected directly into a joint e.g. hydrocortisone Local effect and risk of infection
41
Define pharmacokinetics?
Defined as the relationship between drug administration time-course/rate of absorption and distribution, concentration changes in the body compartments, and the drug’s removal from the body
42
…….. It deals with absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs in the body?
Pharmacokinetics
43
Most drugs are absorbed into the systemic circulation via?
Passive transport e.g. simple diffusion or filtration
44
List the factors affecting drug absorption and bioavailability?
1. Physio-chemical properties of drugs 2. Nature of the dosage form 3. Physiological factors 4. Pharmacogenetic factors 5. Disease states
45
…… measures a drug’s solubility in oil/lipid (cell membrane) relative to water (extracellular fluid)
P (o/w) lipophilicity
46
A large P (o/w) means?
That a drug is highly soluble in lipid and will cross cell membranes easily e.g. anesthetics
47
Drugs are usually weak acids (e.g. ASA) or weak bases (e.g. ketoconazole) and thus exist in …….. and …… forms
ionized non-ionized
48
Unionized component is predominantly lipid soluble and cross cell membranes (absorbed) rapidly and ionized is often water soluble and is absorbed poorly True or false?
True
49
Ratio of ionized to non-ionized forms of drugs is determined by ………. and ……..?
body compartment pH drug pKa (HH equation)
50
What is bioavailability?
proportion of dose that reaches systemic circulation in an unchanged state following non-vascular administration
51
………. is a protein found in various parts of the body that acts as a multidrug efflux pump involved in transport of drugs out of cells
Pgp
52
What is Pgp?
is a protein found in various parts of the body that acts as a multidrug efflux pump involved in transport of drugs out of cells
53
Examples of drugs that inhibit Pgp function include?
Macrolide antibiotics
54
Drugs distribute through various body fluid compartments such as?
I. Plasma II. interstitial fluid compartment III. trans-cellular compartment
55
Factors determining the rate of distribution of drugs are?
1. Protein binding of drugs 2. Plasma concentration of drugs 3. Clearance 4. Physiological barriers to distribution 5. Affinity of drugs to certain organs
56
Low protein bound drug examples include?
Thiopental sodium
57
High protein bound drug examples include?
Phenylbutazone
58
What happens to drug plasma concentration after IV administration?
Falls sharply
59
What happens to drug plasma concentration after oral administration?
Rises and falls gradually
60
What happens to drug plasma concentration after sublingual administration?
Rise sharply and falls gradually
61
Specialized barriers in the body that prevent uniform distribution of drugs in all tissues include?
BBB Placental barrier
62
About BBB, ……. easily crosses but not ….?
Thiopental sodium Dopamine
63
About the placental barrier, it allows …….?
Non-ionized drugs with high lipid/water partition coefficient by a process of simple diffusion to the foetus e.g. alcohol, morphine
64
About affinity of drugs to certain organs, an example is?
Hepatic concentration of meparcine is 200 times more than plasma level
65
Microsomal enzymes are present in?
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum of liver, kidney and GiT
66
Examples of microsomal enzymes include?
Glucuronyl transferase Dehydrogenase Hydroxylase Cytochrome p450
67
Non-microsomal enzymes are present in the?
Cytoplasm Mitochondria of different organs
68
Examples of non-microsomal enzymes include ?
Esterases Amidase Hydrolase
69
What happens to drug in phase I of biotransformation?
Drug is converted to more polar metabolite by oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis
70
What happens in phase II of biotransformation?
Glucuronidation Sulfate conjugation Acetylation Glycine conjugation Methylation
71
In phase I, when can the metabolite be excreted?
When it is sufficiently polar
72
Microsomal oxidation involves ………….. or …………… e.g, conversion of salicylic acid into gentisic acid
introduction of an oxygen and/or removal of a hydrogen atom hydroxylation, dealkylation or demethylation of drug molecule
73
About reduction reaction, Involves reduction of …….. and ……… compounds by ……… e.g, prontosil conversion to sulfonamid
azo (-N=N-) nitro (-NO2) reductase enzyme
74
Hydrolysis reaction involves?
splitting of drug molecule after adding water e.g. pethidine undergoes hydrolysis to form pethidinic acid
75
Hydrolysis is For drugs containing ………. and catalyzed by ……… found in plasma and other tissues like liver
esters and amines esterases and amidases
76
Define conjugation reaction?
A synthetic process by which a drug or its metabolite is combined with an endogenous substance resulting in various conjugates such as glucoronides, ethereal sulfates, methylated compounds and amino acid conjugates
77
The Most common and most important conjugation reaction for drug is?
Glucuronide conjugation
78
Examples of sulfate conjugation include?
Phenols Cathecols
79
Examples of acetyl conjugation include?
Isonaizide Dapsone
80
Examples of glycine conjugation include?
Aromatic acid containing drugs e.g. salicylic acid
81
Example of methylation include?
Adrenaline