Safety: Radiation Protection Flashcards
(47 cards)
117 - In the prodromal stage, the following symptoms can all be signs of acute radiation exposure of the gastrointestinal tract, with the exception of:
A. Diarrhea
B. Asthenia
C. Dysphagia
D. Dyspepsia
B. Asthenia
Severe nausea, vomiting, cramping in the abdomen, and diarrhea are among the digestive symptoms of acute radiation exposure. These symptoms usually appear a few hours following exposure. Generalized weakness and physical and mental exhaustion are the hallmarks of asthenia.
118 - Acute radiation exposure can cause all of the following effects on the central nervous system (CNS), except:
A. Confusion
B. Loss of consciousness
C. Malaise
D. Coma
E. Convulsions
Correct Answer: C. Malaise
The prodromal stage of acute radiation exposure-related central nervous system (CNS) involvement is characterized by intense anxiety and disorientation, severe nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, unconsciousness, and burning sensations to the skin. Onset of symptoms occurs only minutes following excessive exposure, and the prodromal stage can span from minutes to hours. The patient may regain some functionality while in the latent stage. Convulsions, unconsciousness, and a return of loose stool are among the symptoms of the manifest disease stage, followed by death within three days of acute radiation exposure.
120 - In comparison to a lower kVp technique, a greater kVp technique will have a(n):
A. Lower entrance skin exposure
B. Increased contrast effect on the radiographic image
C. Lower patient dose
D. Higher entrance skin exposure
A. Lower entrance skin exposure
In comparison to a lower kVp approach, a greater kVp will yield a lower entrance skin exposure because the beam has more penetrating ability and a higher average energy. Compared to single-phase generators, three-phase and high-frequency generators will result in a reduced entrance skin exposure. This is the consequence of the three-phase and high-frequency units producing a beam with a shorter average photon wavelength than single-phase units due to the greater effective voltage or average voltage. The effect that increased kVp levels have on visual contrast is a disadvantage of employing them to reduce patient dosage. An image with a higher kVp will have less contrast.
121 - Regarding automatic exposure control (AEC), all statements are accurate apart from:
A. AEC is also called phototiming
B. The AEC backup timer reduces the possibility that the patient will be overexposed because of incorrect patient positioning
C. By using a backup timer, the patient’s danger of overexposure from incorrect photocell selection is reduced
D. Reduces the requirement for precise patient positioning
E. Intended to keep radiographic densities constant for patients of various body habitus
D. Reduces the requirement for precise patient positioning
Automatic exposure control (AEC), also referred to as phototiming, is aimed at maintaining consistent radiographic densities on radiographs for a range of patients with differing body habitus. Using AEC requires careful consideration of photocell selection and patient positioning. Erroneous photocell selection or patient positioning can lead to overexposure, which is mitigated by the AEC backup timer.
122 - Which beam restriction device works most effectively at a fixed SID?
A. Cone
B. Aperture diaphragm
C. Collimator
D. A and C
E. A and B
E. A and B
Beam limiting devices like cylinders, cones, and aperture diaphragms are designed to operate at a particular SID. Cylinders and cones may be used for radiographic imaging of the paranasal sinus or facial
123 - When the image receptor is inserted in the Bucky tray, which of the following automatically causes the radiation field size to adjust to the image receptor’s size?
A. Cone
B. Collimator
C. Cylinder
D. Positive beam limitation
E. Aperture diaphragm
D. Positive beam limitation
Beam restriction lowers the quantity of tissue exposed to radiation by limiting the primary X-ray beam to a particular region of interest. Positive beam limitation (PBL) is one type of beam restriction that works by automatically expanding the radiation field size to match the size of the image receptor (IR) when it is inserted into the Bucky tray. Other types of beam restriction devices include collimators, cylinders, cones, and an aperture diaphragm.
124 - A manually adjustable beam restricting device is called a:
A. Cone
B. Collimator
C. Cylinder
D. Aperture
Correct Answer: B. Collimator
Beam restriction lowers the quantity of tissue exposed to radiation by limiting the primary X-ray beam to a particular region of interest. Types of beam restriction devices include collimators, cylinders, cones, positive beam limitation, and an aperture diaphragm. A collimator is a manually adjustable beam-restricting device that limits the area exposed to the primary beam.
125 - An adequate alteration to patient positioning in order to limit entrance skin exposure:
A. When lowering exposure to anterior organs is desirable, AP projections are recommended over PA projections
B. Less breast tissue will be exposed in female patients with AP projections of the thoracic spine
C. It is recommended to perform a PA projection of the skull and facial bones in order to reduce exposure to the orbital lens
D. Because they minimize exposure to the thyroid gland, the RPO and LPO positions of the cervical spine are preferable over RAO and LAO positions
C. It is recommended to perform a PA projection of the skull and facial bones in order to reduce exposure to the orbital lens
To reduce exposure by means of appropriate patient positioning, various positioning modifications can be employed. In female patients, breast tissue exposure is minimized with a posteroanterior (PA) thoracic spine projection as opposed to an anteroposterior (AP) projection. If less exposure to anterior organs is required, PA projections are favored over AP projections. There will be less exposure to the orbital lens with a PA projection of the skull and facial bones. Additionally, because they will minimize exposure to the thyroid gland, RAO and LAO positions of the cervical spine are recommended over RPO and LPO views.
126 - How may effective patient communication help to reduce unnecessary radiation exposure?
A. Repeat exposures might be avoided by eliminating patient motion
B. Patient cooperation can decrease the need for repeat exposures
C. A reduction in the need for repeat exposure correlates directly with decreased patient anxiety
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
Correct Answer: E. A, B, and C
Effective communication between the radiographer and patient can greatly reduce patient anxiety and solidify patient understanding of their role in the imaging procedure. It is possible to reduce the number of repeat radiographs by communicating effectively the importance of patient cooperation and remaining immobile during exposure.
127 - It is the radiographer’s ethical responsibility to reduce patient dose. Pediatric patients require special consideration because their tissue is still developing and vulnerable to radiation. Among these considerations are:
A. Ensuring proper collimation
B. Utilizing appropriate exposure factors for patient size and habitus
C. Evaluating the patient’s cooperation and, if required, enlisting parental assistance
D. Upholding the ALARA principle
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E. All of the above
Reducing patient dose is the radiographer’s ethical duty. Since pediatric patients’ tissue is still developing and is radiosensitive, this population requires specific attention. A young patient’s cooperation level must be evaluated by the radiographer before beginning a radiographic examination, and if necessary, parental assistance must be requested. The radiographer also must follow the ALARA principle, ensure that collimation is properly utilized, and use exposure parameters that are appropriate for the size and habitus of the patient. Pediatric patients may require limited radiographic studies; the clinical institution establishes protocols based on ACR appropriateness criteria.
128 - Technical factors must be adjusted to coincide with patient body habitus. Which habitus type is associated with a morbidly obese patient?
A. Isosthenic
B. Hypersthenic
C. Asthenic
D. Hyposthenic
B. Hypersthenic
Technical factors must be adjusted to align with the physical characteristics of the patient. Body habitus can be divided into four categories. The terms asthenic, sthenic, hyposthenic, and hypersthenic are among them. The asthenic patient is usually thin and frail. The hyposthenic patient is slim and falls in between the sthenic and asthenic body habitus types. A patient with an average build and a moderate amount of body weight is the sthenic patient. We also refer to this as mesomorphic. The hypersthenic patient has a bulky, hefty build.
129 - Relationship between exposure rate and beam filtration:
A. As beam filtration increases, exposure decreases
B. Beam filtration and exposure rate exhibit a direct relationship
C. As beam filtration increases, entrance skin exposure to the patient increases
D. A and B
E. B and C
Correct Answer: A. As beam filtration increases, exposure decreases
Explanation:
The rate of entrance skin exposure to the patient decreases when more filtering is applied to the primary X-ray beam. There is an inverse relationship between exposure rate and beam filtration.
A. As beam filtration increases, exposure decreases
Explanation:
The rate of entrance skin exposure to the patient decreases when more filtering is applied to the primary X-ray beam. There is an inverse relationship between exposure rate and beam filtration.
130 - What is the main objective of beam filtration?
A. Increase the quality and quantity of the primary beam
B. Increase beam penetrability
C. Remove high-energy X-ray photons
D. To reduce entrance skin exposure to the patient
D. To reduce entrance skin exposure to the patient
Reducing the patient’s entrance skin exposure is the main goal of filtration. Filtration hardens the primary beam by removing low-energy, non-diagnostic X-ray photons from it. Filtration does not affect beam penetrability, but it does raise the beam’s effective energy and quality.
131 - What is the effect of beam filtration on average beam energy?
A. Filtration increases the primary X-ray beam’s effective energy and quality
B. Filtration has no effect on the energy of the primary X-ray beam
C. Filtration decreases the “hardness” of the X-ray beam
D. Filtration decreases the quality of the remnant beam
A. Filtration increases the primary X-ray beam’s effective energy and quality
Filtration hardens the primary beam by removing low energy, non-diagnostic X-ray photons from it. Filtration does not affect beam penetrability, but it does raise the beam’s effective energy and quality.
132 - According to NCRP #102, when operating over 70 kVp, the minimum thickness requirements for total filtration are:
A. 0.5 mm aluminum
B. 1.5 mm aluminum
C. 2.5 mm aluminum
D. 3.5 mm aluminum
C. 2.5 mm aluminum
The minimum thickness needed for total filtration varies depending on the operating kVp, as per NCRP #102. The total of added and inherent filtration is referred to as total filtration. It is necessary to use at least 0.5 mm of aluminum when operating below 50 kVp. It is admissible to use 1.5 mm aluminum between 50 and 70 kVp. The minimum thickness of aluminum required for operation over 70 kVp is 2.5 mm.
133 - What is the Al equivalent of the X-ray tube’s inherent filtration?
A. 0.8 and 1.6 mm
B. 2.5 and 3.0 mm
C. 0.5 and 1.0 mm
D. 0.2 and 0.5 mm
C. 0.5 and 1.0 mm
Filtration that is inherent to the X-ray tube stems from the design of the tube itself. Typically, inherent filtration has an Al equivalent of 0.5 to 1.0 mm. Added filtration is any material placed in the path of the primary X-ray beam, most commonly layers of aluminum. Usually, the purpose of adding these layers is to raise the total amount of filtering to the necessary minimum standards. The sum of the inherent and added filtration is known as total filtration.
134 - Individuals who are exposed to radiation at work must utilize devices that track and document the radiation they are exposed to over a specified amount of time. Which personal dosimeters are most frequently used?
A. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter
B. Thermoluminescent dosimeter
C. Film badge dosimeter
D. Self-reading dosimeter
E. A, B, and C
Correct Answer: E. A, B, and C
Those who are exposed to radiation at work must wear equipment to monitor and document the radiation they are exposed to during a specified length of time, usually one month. The three personal dosimeters that are most used are OSL, TLD, and film badges; among the three, film badge dosimeters are the most economical and widely utilized. These devices are designed solely to record exposures from the workplace
135 - Exposure to the image receptor will double if kVp is raised by:
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 15%
D. 5%
C. 15%
Reducing mAs can greatly lessen patient exposure. With a change in mAs, kVp must be modified to maintain radiographic density. A 15% increase in kVp will double the density; a 15% decrease in kV will cut the density in half. This is known as the 15% rule. For instance, if mAs is lowered by half (i.e., from 40 to 20) to decrease patient exposure, kVp should be raised by 15% to double exposure to the IR.
136 - Regarding the use of grids, which of the following is false?
A. An alternative to utilizing a grid is the air gap technique
B. Grids are used for body parts that are greater than 6 centimeters thick
C. Using a grid necessitates greater exposure than a radiograph produced without a grid
D. By limiting the amount of secondary and scattered radiation that reaches the IR, the use of grids greatly increases radiographic contrast
B. Grids are used for body parts that are greater than 6 centimeters thick
Grids help increase radiographic contrast by reducing the amount of scattered and secondary radiation that reaches the image receptor. Grids are used for body parts thicker than 10 centimeters.
137 - An alternative to using a grid is the air gap technique. Which of the following is required in order to employ this technique?
A. It is necessary to have a long SID
B. An increased OID is required
C. A short SID must be used
D. B and C
E. A and B
E. A and B
An alternative to using a grid is to employ the air gap technique. It necessitates using a longer SID in conjunction with a higher OID. The utilization of the air gap technique leads to a significant percentage of secondary and scattered radiation diverging away from the IR, which reduces their effect on the radiographic image, but does not diminish secondary or scattered radiation output. The primary purpose of the air gap technique is to enhance radiographic contrast.
138 - How does a fluoroscopic dead man switch operate?
A. The fluoroscopic table recognizes the patient’s weight and emits X-rays
B. A fluoroscopy timer emits X-rays for a specified period of time
C. Qualified personnel must depress a foot pedal or hold a switch to emit X-rays
D. A switch is turned on and the beam is emitted until the switch is turned off
C. Qualified personnel must depress a foot pedal or hold a switch to emit X-rays
All varieties of fluoroscopes are controlled by means of a “dead man” switch. That is to say, X-rays are only produced and emitted when a properly qualified individual is actively pressing the foot pedal or using the switch. The fluoroscopic image is created and X-rays are emitted when the pedal is depressed.
140 - Fluoroscopic examinations expose patients to a higher dose of radiation compared to conventional radiographic examinations. What is the reason for this?
A. A greater exposure time is required
B. The patient and X-ray photon source are closer together
C. The X-ray beam used with fluoroscopy is “harder” than the conventional radiographic X-ray beam
D. A single 3-dimensional image is captured for later analysis using a greater quantity of X-ray photons
E. A and B
E. A and B
Fluoroscopy is a procedure that may necessitate a larger patient dose compared to a standard radiographic imaging examination. This is primarily because, unlike overhead imaging, the source of X-ray photons is closer to the patient. Guidelines for minimum source-to-skin distance (SSD), maximum tube output, collimation, timer, and exposure switch parameters, among other things, are provided by NCRP recommendations. Lower patient dose is one benefit of digital fluoroscopy compared to conventional fluoroscopy. The fact that the X-ray beam used in digital fluoroscopy is pulsed rather than continuous is the main factor which reduces the patient exposure.
141 - Where is the secondary radiation grid positioned during a fluoroscopic examination in order to minimize incident forward scattered radiation?
A. Furthest distance from the imaging detector
B. Nearest to the X-ray tube
C. Nearest the image intensifier
D. Closest to the X-ray source
C. Nearest the image intensifier
The following suggestions aim to minimize exposure to patients and operators while optimizing image quality. The patient should be positioned as far from the X-ray tube and as close to the image intensifier input as feasible. This produces a crisper image and reduces the patient entrance dose. Operator vigilance is required when utilizing the exposure pedal. When possible, the operator should use pulsed fluoroscopy and last image hold. They should also use the lowest field of view, only use high dosage and detail modes when necessary, and use magnification mode sparingly. Additionally, to reduce the amount of radiation that healthcare personnel are exposed to, the X-ray tube should be positioned underneath the patient.
142 - How much fluoroscopic time must elapse before the fluoroscopy timer emits a signal?
A. 5 minutes
B. 30 seconds
C. 2 minutes
D. 1 minute
A. 5 minutes
A fluoroscopy timer that will sound or stop exposure after five minutes is necessary for radiation safety.