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SAM Final PQS > SAM2 (2) Riktig > Flashcards

SAM2 (2) Riktig Flashcards

1
Q

Which parameter is the most specific for DIC?
a. fibrinogen
b. APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time)
c. PTT (partial thromboplasin time)
d. FDP (fibrin degradation products)

A

FDP (fibrin degradation products)

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2
Q

Which is not a typical symptom in cats in case of a riding thrombus:
a. paralysis of the hindlimbs
b. loud (painful) vocalization
c. dyspnoe
d. loss of femoral pulse

A

dyspnoe

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3
Q

When does cardiac dullness occur during percussion of the thorax?
a. thoracic fluid accumulation
b. pneumonia
c. lung tumors
d. enlargement of the heart

A

enlargement of the heart

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4
Q

What is the most reliable method of diagnosis for pneumothorax?
a. x-rays
b. physical exam
c. ultrasound
d. thoracoscopy

A

x-rays

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5
Q

In case of PPDH, the dislocation of which abdominal organ is NOT common?
a. spleen
b. omentum
c. liver
d. small intestines

A

spleen

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6
Q

What can we conclude from the speed of flow during Doppler echocardiography?
a. the MAP
b. the direction of flow
c. the pressure difference between the heart chambers
d. the character of flow (laminal or turbulent)

A

the pressure difference between the heart chambers

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7
Q

Which part of the stomach is usually dislocated in case of sliding (axial) hiatal hernia?
a. cardia
b. fundus
c. corpus
d. antrum pylori

A

cardia

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8
Q

What lesions are expected in severe endocardosis?
a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

left heart distension

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9
Q

What lesions are expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy?
a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

left heart distension

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10
Q

What lesion is expected in severe pulmonary stenosis?
a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

right ventricular hypertrophy

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11
Q

What lesions are expected in severe aortic stenosis?
a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

left ventricular hypertrophy

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12
Q

Which organ is the source of MDF in shock?
a. liver
b. lung
c. GI tract
d. pancreas

A

pancreas

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13
Q

What treatment should be given to a dog with B2 level mitral endocardosis?
a. ACE-I
b. pimobendan
c. furosemide
d. none of the above

A

pimobendan

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14
Q

Which is not part of the pathological remodeling of the heart?
a. MHC receptor formation on the membranes of myocardial cells
b. the macroscopic transformation of the heart (dilation, hypertrophy)
c. change of the myocardial cell function (contractility, arrhythmias)
d. change in the myocardial cell connections

A

change in the myocardial cell connections

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15
Q

For which disease is “heart palpation” obtusio cordis specific?
a. pulmonary oedema
b. pulmonary fibrosis
c. something space consuming in the chest
d. fluid accumulation in thorax

A

something space consuming in the chest

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16
Q

After physical and auxiliary examinations we diagnose mitral endocardosis, but the typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in?
a. AHA-A
b. AHA-B
c. AHA-C
d. AHA-D

A

AHA-B

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17
Q

Basic therapy for endocardosis with typical symptoms present:
a. furosemide, potassium, pimobendan
b. furosemide, spironolactone, digoxin
c. ACE-I, bronchodilators
d. furosemide, ACE-I

A

Furosemide, potassium, pimobendan

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18
Q

Which congenital heart disease has a specific continuous „machinery” heart murmur as a symptom?
a. pulmonic stenosis
b. ventricular septal defect
c. tetralogy of fallot
d. PDA

A

PDA

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19
Q

What is the common „shock organ” in horses and dogs?
a. liver
b. lung
c. GI tract
d. pancreas

A

GI tract

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20
Q

Which type (localisation) is typical for perineal hernia in female dogs?
a. lateral
b. dorsal
c. ventral
d. perineal hernia does not happen in females

A

ventral

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21
Q

Which is the common „shock organ” in horses and cats?
a. liver
b. lungs
c. small intestine
d. pancreas

A

lungs

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22
Q

The most common color code meaning in color Doppler echocardiography:
a. red: bloodflow towards the transducer; blue: bloodflow away from the transducer
b. blue: bloodflow towards the transducer; red: bloodflow away from the transducer
c. blue: venous bloodflow; red: arterial bloodflow
d. blue: decreasing speed bloodflow; red: increasing speed bloodflow

A

red: bloodflow towards the transducer; blue: bloodflow away from the transducer

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23
Q

Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs?
a. pulmonic stenosis
b. ventricular septal defect
c. Fallot-tetralogy
d. PDA

A

PDA

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24
Q

In which stage of HWD can ascites happen in dogs?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 2 and 3
d. in none

A

3

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25
Q

Which is the wrong answer? If we increase the preload, …
a. it increases the contractility of the heart
b. we can induce stagnancy
c. the heart dilates
d. the cardiac performance will decrease

A

the cardiac performance will decrease

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26
Q

Choose the wrong answer: in the progression of cardiac failure, a role is aaributed to:
a. chronic activation of the RAAS and the sympathic nervous system
b. cardiac acetylcholine receptor numbers and function altered (down regulation)
c. inflammatory mediators and free radicals
d. insufficient oxygen and energy supply of the cardiomyocytes despite of the increased demand

A

cardiac acetylcholine receptor numbers and function altered (down regulation)

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27
Q

Which mode can be used for real time 2d visualization of the structure of the myocardium?
a. B-mode
b. color Doppler
c. M-mode
d. spectral Doppler

A

M-mode

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28
Q

What diagnostic tests are needed for HWD screening?
a. only modified Knott test
b. only antigen test
c. both
d. neither

A

Both

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29
Q

What drug should be given for a B1 stage mitral endocardosis canine patient?
a. ACE-I
b. pimobendan
c. furosemide
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

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30
Q

What CANNOT be determined by color Doppler ultrasound?
a. the presence of bloodflow
b. the direction of bloodflow
c. the speed of bloodflow
d. the character of bloodflow (laminal or turbulent)

A

the character of bloodflow (laminal or turbulent)

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31
Q

ECG is mostly recommended when:
a. a dog brought in for vaccines has a 200 bpm heart rate
b. a dog that suffered an accident has a 200 bpm heart rate
c. a dog brought in with 40,8 C temperature has a 180 bpm heart rate
d. a dog brought in for chip placement has a 160 bpm heart rate

A

a dog brought in for vaccines has a 200 bpm heart rate

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32
Q

Suture materials. Choose the incorrect answer!
a. the size of the suture material is given either in metric unit (e.g. 1 – European Pharmacopoea) or in USP unit (5-0, United States Pharmacopoea)
b. catgut is a natural resorbable suture material
c. polyglicolic acid, polyglactin and polidioxanone are synthetic and absorbable
d. polyester, polyamide and polypropylene are synthetic and nonabsorbable

A

the size of the suture material is given either in metric unit (e.g. 1 – European Pharmacopoea) or in USP unit (5-0, United States Pharmacopoea)

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33
Q

A typical symptom of haemopericardium in dogs is:
a. strong pulse
b. systolic murmur
c. reddened mucosas
d. distant heart sounds

A

distant heart sounds

34
Q

Choose the correct answer:
a. during scrubbing in, in the skin of the forearm
b. the back of the surgical gown is considered sterile after putting it on
c. if the sterile gloves break, it is always necessary to redo the scrubbing
d. the efficiency of the scrubbing is primarily determined by the contact time, not the strength of scrubbing.

A

the efficiency of the scrubbing is primarily determined by the contact time, not the strength of scrubbing.

35
Q

Which drug does not have a significant diuretic effect in small animals?
a. furosemide
b. torasemide
c. spironolactone
d. chlorothiazide

A

spironolactone

36
Q

Can diaphragmatic hernia be diagnosed by ultrasound?
a. yes
b. no
c. maybe
d. never

A

Yes

37
Q

Characteristic of aspiration pneumonia
o Can be caused by megaesophagus and laryngeal dysfunction
o Its prognosis can be influenced by the pH , volume and quality of aspirated volume
o Glucocorticoid and furosemide are not recommended for treatment
o All above mentioned are true

A

All above mentioned are true

38
Q

Which of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2< 60 mmHg )
o Dyspnea
o Cyanosis
o Hyperventilation
o Labial breathing

A

Cyanosis

39
Q

Characteristic of canine/feline pneumonia
o Usually, a primary disease
o Good general condition, cough
o Its background is usually a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration
o Normal body temperature, good general condition, good appetite

A

Its background is usually a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration

40
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding cervical tracheal resection/anastomosis?
o Ventral cervical approach is usually applied
o In adults even the 50% of the tracheal length can be resected
o in immature dogs even the 25% of the tracheal length can be resected
o either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable tor anastomosis

A

either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable tor anastomosis

41
Q

Which of the following categories is correct according to the approximation of the wound edge?
o Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial
o Interrupted vs. continuous
o Appositional - inverting-tension-relieving
o simple - mattress - cruciate ligament …

A

Appositional - inverting-tension-relieving

42
Q

Which is the following prognostic factors had no impact on the disease free interval (DFI) in a retrospective study by McNeil al (JAVMA, 1997) analyzing cases with primary lung tumor removed pulmonary lobectomy?
o the histopathologic grade of the lung tumor
o clinical signs
o regional lymph node metastases
o / - chemotherapy

A

chemotherapy

43
Q

Characteristic of “reverse sneezing”:
o Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background
o indicates a serious, life- threatening illness
o usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity
o indicates a laryngeal lesion

A

Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background

44
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?
a. Status of the thoracic wall
b. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
c. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
d. ARD

A

Skin defect on the thoracic wall

45
Q

According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002), which of the following features is incorrect concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?
o Male
o bite trauma
o bodyweight <10 kg
o body weight <20 kg

A

Body weight <20 kg

46
Q

In which of the following conditions is the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated therapy?
o nasal foreign body abscess
o nasopharyngeal polyp
o chronic, conservative therapy-resistant rhinitis
o nasal adenocarcinoma

A

nasal adenocarcinoma

47
Q

Which muscle / muscles can be used for intramuscular drug application?
o M femoralis
o M. gastrocnemius
o M. semitendinosus or semimembranosus
o Tibialis cranialis muscle

A

M. semitendinosus or semimembranosus

48
Q

Which of the following suture materials is absorbable?
o Polypropylene (Prolene (tm))
o Polyamides (Supramid (tm))
o Both of them
o None of them

A

None of them

49
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect? An active drain …
o … is not recommended as flushing drain
o … can be open suction-drain
o … can be closed suction-drain
o … is used as flushing drain

A

is not recommended as flushing drain

50
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect? Radon drain …
o … is a tube drain
o … is made of latex
o … can be used as passive drain
o … is mostly used as active drain

A

… is made of latex

51
Q

Primary Survey. Mark the incorrect answer!
o Determine all organic disorders
o Reveal direct life-threatening conditions
o Check and stabilize circulation and respiration
o Check and stabilize CNS

A

Determine all organic disorders

52
Q

What does “3-Metric “mean on a suture material pack?
o The suture material has” grade 3” tensile strength
o The suture material absorption time is 3 months
o The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter
o The suture material is 0.3 meter (30 cm) long

A

The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter

53
Q

Characteristic of feline herpes viral rhinitis:
a. the vaccinated animals can not be infected
b. bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge
c. vaccination is not recommended against this disease
d. easy to cure

A

bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge

54
Q

Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature?
o Autoclave (steam)
o Gamma-beam radiation
o Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
o Dry heat sterilization

A

Dry heat sterilization

55
Q

Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable?
a. Polyglactin (Vicryl (tm))
b. Polydioxanones (PDS (tm))
c. Both of them
d. None of them Submit

A

Both of them

56
Q

To perform a complete blood count examination, you need a (n)
o heparinized blood sampling tube.
o EDTA blood sampling tube.
o citrated blood sampling tube.
o NaF blood sampling tube

A

EDTA blood sampling tube.

57
Q

Primary assessment of the circulation. Mark the incorrect answer!
o Check for bleeding
o Check mucous membranes and CRT
o Check pulse rate and quality
o Perform ECG and heart US examination

A

Perform ECG and heart US examination

58
Q

Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thickest suture material?
a. 0
b. 2-0
c. 2
d. 3-0

A

2

59
Q

In the case of acute epistaxis / nasal bleeding:
a. Immediate X-Ray examination is required
b. immediate rhinoscopy is required
c. as soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are
required
d. Nasal foreign body and fungal rhinitis cannot be presumed in the background

A

as soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are
required

60
Q

according to Poncet classification system for BAOS which is the most defining clinical condition of the grade III category?
a. severity of stridor / stertor
b. syncope
c. duration of clinical signs
d. grade III laryngeal collapse

A

syncope

61
Q

which finding is incorrect about pneumonectomy cases in the ??pective multicenter study by Wavreille et al (Vet Surg 201…
a. primary lung tumors were represented in 52% of the indications
b. 76% of dogs and 80% of cats had postoperative respiratory complications
c. the acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10%
d. subacute (<2 weeks) postoperative mortality affected 1 dog and 2 cats

A

The acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10%

62
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding sternotomy…
a. it causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral thoracotomy
b. oscillating saw or osteotome is necessary for the approach
c. Finachietto rib retractor or Gelpi retractor is applicable
d. it is indicated by mediastinal and/or bilateral thoracic conditions

A

it causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral thoracotomy

63
Q

Characteristics of critical care. Mark the incorrect answer!
o The order of examination and therapeutical methods are different than in non-emergency cases
o Diagnostics and therapy overlap each other in order to gain time
o The examination consists of two phases. primary and secondary survey
o All emergency patients require intensive ward care

A

All emergency patients require intensive ward care

64
Q

Choose the correct answer. Colloid infusions
o contain small molecular weight compounds
o in a dosage less than 20ml / kg/day they may induce coagulopathy
o are used to treat dehydration
o are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids

A

are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids

65
Q

The point of maintenance infusion therapy is
o treat dehydration
o replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia
o provide appropriate calorie intake
o giving low potassium containing infusions

A

replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia

66
Q

Delayed primary closure
o is normally performed on the first day post-trauma
o may be indicated in deep infected puncture wounds
o is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury
o involves the complete excision of granulation tissue

A

is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury

67
Q

What does ‘atypical’ operation mean?
o one sort of ide-saving surgeries
o One sort of tumor removal procedures
o Specific plastic surgical intervention
o An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition
of the surgeon

A

An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition
of the surgeon

68
Q

In case of hypovolemia, the first choice of infusion is:
a. 5% glucose
b. HAES infusion
c. Lactated ringer solution
d. 10% naCl solution

A

Lactated ringer solution

69
Q

which of the following breeds is the congenital laryngeal paralysis common?
o Hungarian vizsla
o Husky
o Greyhound
o Pointer

A

Husky

70
Q

What is the most frequent complication of CricoArytenoid Lateralization?
a. laryngeal collapse
b. recurrence
c. aspiration
d. none of them

A

aspiration

71
Q

which of the following features makes polyprolylene the most popular cardiovascular suture material?
o Monofilament feature
o Good tensile strength
o Good knot security
o Unique thrombophobic feature

A

Unique thrombophobic feature

72
Q

Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic breeds?
o Dorsal rhinotomy
o Ventral rhinotomy
o Dorsal rhinotomy sinus trephination
o Ventral rhinotomy sinus trephination

A

Ventral rhinotomy

73
Q

which of the following brachycephalic disorders is not surgically curable?
o Stenotic nares
o Elongated soft palate
o Laryngeal collapse
o Tracheal hypoplasia

A

Tracheal hypoplasia

74
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis:
o Bronchial pattern on X-Ray
o Mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bronchoscopy
o Cytology and microbiology of BAL are required
o All the above mentioned are true

A

All the above mentioned are true

75
Q

Which belong to the core vaccines in dogs?
a. parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarths disease
b. panleukopenia, parvoviral enteritis, Rubarths-disease
c. panleukopenia, distemper ruburths-disease
d. Leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth’s- disease

A

Leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth’s- disease

76
Q

How many lung lobes has the dog?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

A

6

77
Q

Which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL?
o processus muscularis
o processus cuneiformis
o processus corniculatus
o none of them

A

processus muscularis

78
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis:
a. it is more common in old, large breed dogs
b. it is more common in young, small breed dogs
c. inspiratory type dyspnoea
d. crackles and wheezes with auscultation

A

crackles and wheezes with auscultation

79
Q

The concept of moist wound therapy does not include
a. surgical debridement
b. autolytic debridement
c. a wet-to-dry dressing
d. a hydrocolloid dressing

A

surgical debridement

80
Q

Which of the following features defines the suture material’s drainage ability?
a. Monofilament vs. multifilament
b. Tensile strength
c. Knot security
d. Absorption

A

Monofilament vs. multifilament

81
Q

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?
a. Dorsal latissimus m.
b. Dorsal serratus m.
c. Ventral serratus m.
d. Cutaneus trunci

A

Cutaneus trunci

SAM Final PQS (18 decks)

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