Sample Questions 1 Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Applied microbiology deals with problems in
A. Medicine.
B. Agriculture.
C. Industry.
D. All of the above.
A
D. All of the above.
2
Q
The greatest source of biomass on earth comes from the
A. Microorganisms.
B. Plants.
C. Animals.
D. Plants and animals together.
A
A. Microorganisms.
3
Q
Permanent changes in cellular characteristics are the result of
A. Chemical signaling.
B. Reproductive initiative.
C. Evolution.
D. None of the above.
A
C. Evolution.
4
Q
Catalysts involved in the acceleration of the rate of chemical reactions are called
A. Catalytic converters.
B. Growth agents.
C. Evolutionary molecules.
D. Enzymes.
A
D. Enzymes.
5
Q
The presence of membrane-enclosed organelles is a characteristic of
A. Prokaryotic Cells
B. Eukaryotic Cells
C. All cells
D. Viruses.
A
B. Eukaryotic Cells
6
Q
Based on our present understanding, which statement is probably true?
A. Bacteria and Archaea diverged from a Eukarya ancestor.
B. Bacteria and Eukarya evolved from an Archaea ancestor.
C. Bacteria and Eukarya evolved from one line; Archaea had a totally
different ancestor.
D. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya all diverged from a common universal
ancestor.
A
D. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya all diverged from a common universal
ancestor.
7
Q
Disease-causing prokaryotes are found exclusively among the
A. Archaea.
B. Bacteria.
C. Fungi.
D. Viruses.
A
B. Bacteria.
8
Q
Organisms most likely to be found in extreme environments are
A. Archaea.
B. Bacteria.
G Fungi.
D. Viruses.
A
A. Archaea.
9
Q
________ is used to decrease the possibility of ________.
A. Sterilization / contamination.
B. Aseptic technique / sterilization.
C. Sterilization / aseptic technique.
D. Aseptic technique / contamination.
A
D. Aseptic technique / contamination.
10
Q
The ultimate downfall of the theory of spontaneous generation was the
result of work by
A. Pasteur.
B. Koch.
C. Hooke.
D. Leeuwenhoek.
A
A. Pasteur.
11
Q
Hemolithotrophy involves the
A. Oxidation of organic compounds.
B. Oxidation of inorganic compounds.
C. Reduction of organic compounds.
D. Metabolic autotrophy.
A
B. Oxidation of inorganic compounds.
12
Q
Advances in immunology and medical microbiology are, most specifically,
practical extensions of the work of
A. Winogradsky.
B. Leeuwenhoek.
C. Lister
D. Koch.
A
D. Koch.
13
Q
Viruses that attack bacteria are known as
A. Bacterial consumers.
B. Bacteriophages.
C. Microphages.
D. Viroids.
A
B. Bacteriophages.
14
Q
Which of the following is not true about protozoa?
A) They have rigid cell walls.
B) They are classified by their method of locomotion.
C) All are unicellular.
D) All have complex cells.
E) All are eukaryotic.
A
A) They have rigid cell walls.
15
Q
Which of the following is true about viruses?
A) They are not composed of cells.
B) They cannot metabolize nutrients.
C) They cannot reproduce themselves.
D) They have DNA or RNA.
E) All of the above.
A
E) All of the above.
16
Q
Which of the following is probably true about all the experiments that proved spontaneous generation?
A) Air was lacking.
B) Too much heat was applied.
C) The food source could not support life.
D) Microorganisms were already present.
E) All of the above.
A
D) Microorganisms were already present.
17
Q
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Hooke — cell theory
B) van Leeuwenhoek — germ theory
C) Lister — aseptic surgery
D) Pasteur — fermentation
E) None of the above
A
B) van Leeuwenhoek — germ theory
18
Q
Who observed cells in plant material?
A) van Leeuwenhoek
B) Hooke
C) Pasteur
D) Koch
E) None of the above
A
B) Hooke
19
Q
Who was the first to observe microorganisms with a microscope?
A) van Leeuwenhoek
B) Hooke
C) Pasteur
D) Koch
E) None of the above
A
A) van Leeuwenhoek
20
Q
Which of the following requirements was necessary for Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation?
A) Providing a food source that would support growth
B) Supplying air
C) Keeping microorganisms out
D) Removing microorganisms that were initially present
E) All of the above
A
E) All of the above
21
Q
Archaea differ from eubacteria because archaea
A) Lack peptidoglycan.
B) Lack nuclei.
C) Use organic compounds for food.
D) Reproduce by binary fission.
E) None of the above.
A
A) Lack peptidoglycan.
22
Q
What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope?
A) Ocular lens
B) Objective lens
C) Specimen
D) Illuminator
A
C) Specimen
23
Q
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Gram-negative bacteria — negative stain
B) Iodine — mordant
C) Alcohol — acetone-decolorizer
D) Acid-alcohol — decolorizer
E) None of the above
A
A) Gram-negative bacteria — negative stain
24
Q
Place the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order:
1-Alcohol-acetone;
2-Crystal violet;
3-Safranin;
4-Iodine.
A) 1-2-3-4
B) 2-1-4-3
C) 2-4-1-3
D) 4-3-2-1
E) 1-3-2-4
A
C) 2-4-1-3
25
The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is
A) To remove the simple stain.
B) To make the bacterial cells larger.
C) To make the flagella visible.
D) To prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.
E) None of the above.
D) To prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.
26
Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in this microscope.
A) Compound light microscope
B) Phase-contrast microscope
C) Darkfield microscope
D) Fluorescence microscope
E) Electron microscope
E) Electron microscope
27
This microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state.
A) Compound light microscope
B) Phase-contrast microscope
C) Darkfield microscope
D) Fluorescence microscope
E) Electron microscope
B) Phase-contrast microscope
28
This microscope uses an ultraviolet light source.
A) Compound light microscope
B) Phase-contrast microscope
C) Darkfield microscope
D) Fluorescence microscope
E) Electron microscope
D) Fluorescence microscope
29
This microscope produces an image of a light cell against a dark background; internal structures are not visible.
A) Compound light microscope
B) Phase-contrast microscope
C) Darkfield microscope
D) Fluorescence microscope
E) Electron microscope
C) Darkfield microscope
30
This microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structures.
A) Compound light microscope
B) Phase-contrast microscope
C) Darkfield microscope
D) Fluorescence microscope
E) Electron microscope
B) Phase-contrast microscope
31
Bdellovibrio are unusual bacteria because they
A) Phagocytize other bacteria.
B) Live inside another bacterium as a parasite.
C) Kill nearby bacteria.
D) Enter and digest other bacteria.
E) Release their cellular contents to the outside.
D) Enter and digest other bacteria.
32
True or False. Most microorganisms are pathogenic.
False
33
True or False. Prokaryotic chromosomes are generally linear
False
34
True or False. Endosymbiosis is an explanation for the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells.
True
35
The four macromolecules common to all cells are: 1,2,3 and 4.
In any order. Protein, Lipid, Carbohydrate, Nucleic Acid
36
Robert Koch received the 1905 Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine for...
His work with tuberculosis bacterium
37
An organism of the genus Staphylococcus will be ______, while an organism of the genus Spirochaeta will be _______.
A. Spherical / rod-shaped
B. Rod-shaped / coiled
C. Spherical / coiled
D. Coiled / spherical
C. Spherical / coiled
38
In general, eukaryotic cells are
A. Larger than prokaryotic cells.
B. Smaller than prokaryotic cells.
C. About the same size as prokaryotic cells.
D. Not physiologically comparable to prokaryotic cells and therefore
eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell sizes should not be compared either.
A. Larger than prokaryotic cells.
39
The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids?
A) Buffer
B) Sugars
C) pH
D) Heat
E) Carbon
A) Buffer
40
The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that
A) Doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it.
B) Is killed by oxygen.
C) Uses oxygen or grows without oxygen.
D) Requires less oxygen than is present in air.
E) Prefers to grow without oxygen.
C) Uses oxygen or grows without oxygen.
41
A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms grow and a yellow halo surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called a(n)
A) Selective medium.
B) Differential medium.
C) Enrichment culture.
D) a and b.
E) b and c.
D) a and b.
42
Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?
A) The length of time it takes for lag phase.
B) The length of time it takes for a cell to divide.
C) The minimum rate of doubling.
D) The duration of log phase.
E) The time it takes for nuclear division.
B) The length of time it takes for a cell to divide.
43
All of the following are direct methods to measure microbial growth except
A) Direct microscopic count.
B) Standard plate count.
C) Filtration.
D) Metabolic activity.
E) MPN.
D) Metabolic activity.
44
Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt?
A) Psychrophiles
B) Halophiles
C) Anaerobes
D) Thermophiles
E) None of the above
B) Halophiles
45
All of the following are true about archaea except
A) They are prokaryotes.
B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles.
D) Evidence suggests they evolved from eukaryotes.
E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
D) Evidence suggests they evolved from eukaryotes.
46
If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude all of the following except
A) They are related.
B) They evolved from a common ancestor.
C) They will have similar G-C ratios.
D) They will both ferment lactose.
E) None of the above.
D) They will both ferment lactose.
47
A genus can best be defined as
A) A taxon composed of families.
B) A taxon comprised of one or more species and below family.
C) A taxon belonging to a species.
D) A taxon comprised of classes.
E) The most specific taxon.
B) A taxon comprised of one or more species and below family.
48
A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species
A) Does not breed with other species.
B) Has a limited geographical distribution.
C) Can be distinguished from other bacterial species.
D) Is a population of cells with similar characteristics.
E) All of the above are true.
D) Is a population of cells with similar characteristics.
49
Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system?
A) There are three distinctly different cell structures.
B) There are three distinctly different cellular chemical compositions.
C) There are three distinctly different Gram reactions.
D) Some bacteria live in extreme environments.
E) None of the above.
B) There are three distinctly different cellular chemical compositions.
50
Biochemical tests are used to determine
A) Staining characteristics.
B) Amino acid sequences.
C) Nucleic acid-base composition.
D) Enzymatic activities.
E) All of the above.
D) Enzymatic activities.
51
The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on
A) Cell morphology.
B) Gram-reaction.
C) rRNA sequences.
D) Habitat.
E) All of the above.
C) rRNA sequences.
52
Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the others?
A) Nucleic acid hybridization
B) Nucleic acid-base composition
C) Amino acid sequencing
D) Biochemical tests
E) Numerical taxonomy
E) Numerical taxonomy
53
Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth
A) 350 years ago.
B) 3500 years ago.
C) 3.5 million years ago.
D) 3.5 billion years ago.
E) 3.5 x 1012 years ago.
D) 3.5 billion years ago.
54
Protist is a diverse group of organisms that are similar in
A) rRNA sequences.
B) Metabolic type.
C) Motility.
D) Being unicellular.
E) None of the above.
E) None of the above.
55
The arrangement of organisms into taxa
A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.
B) Shows relationships to common ancestors.
C) Was designed by Charles Darwin.
D)Is arbitrary.
E) Is based on evolution.
A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.
56
The arrangement of organisms into taxa
A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.
B) Shows relationships to common ancestors.
C) Was designed by Charles Darwin.
D)Is arbitrary.
E) Is based on evolution.
A) Shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.
57
Phage typing is based on the fact that
A) Bacteria are destroyed by viruses.
B) Viruses cause disease.
C) Bacterial viruses attack specific cells.
D) Staphylococcus causes infections.
E) Phages and bacteria are related.
C) Bacterial viruses attack specific cells.
58
One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about
A) Enzymatic activities.
B) Protein composition.
C) The presence of specific genes.
D) Antigenic composition.
E) None of the above.
E) None of the above.
59
Which of the following is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related?
A) If both ferment lactose.
B) If both are gram-positive.
C) If both are motile.
D) If both are aerobic.
E) All are equally important.
B) If both are gram-positive.
60
Into which group would you place a multicellular amoebalike cell that produces fungus-like spores?
A) Animalia
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
E) Protist
E) Protist
61
Into which group would you place a unicellular eukaryote that lives in the red blood cells of humans?
A) Animalia
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
E) Protist
E) Protist
62
Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall?
A) Animalia
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
E) Protist
B) Bacteria
63
Which of the following are found prifnarily in the intestines of humans?
A) Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
B) Aerobic, helical bacteria
C) Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
D) Gram-positive cocci
E) None of the above
C) Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
64
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the regular, nonsporing gram-positive rods?
A) Aerotolerant
B) Fermentative metabolism
C) Don't produce endospores
D) Nonpathogenic
E) None of the above
D) Nonpathogenic
65
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be easily differentiated in a laboratory by which one of the
following?
A) Cell shape
B) Gram stain reaction
C) Growth in high salt concentrations
D) Ability to cause disease
E) None of the above
C) Growth in high salt concentrations
66
Which of the following is not a characteristic of spirochetes?
A) Possess an axial filament
B) Gram-negative
C) Helical shape
D) Easily observed with brightfield microscopy
E) Difficult to culture in vitro
D) Easily observed with brightfield microscopy
67
You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. This bacterium is
A) Gram-negative.
B) Using anaerobic respiration.
C) A chemoautotroph.
D) A photoautotroph.
E) A photoheterotroph.
B) Using anaerobic respiration.
68
Which of the following form conidiospores?
A) Endospore-forming gram-positive rods and cocci
B) Actinomycetes and related organisms
C) Rickettsias
D) Anaerobic gram-negative cocci
E) Spiral and curved bacteria
B) Actinomycetes and related organisms
69
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Dissimilatory sulfate-reducing bacteria — produce H2S
B) Archaea — live in extreme environments
C) Chemoautotrophic bacteria — fix atmospheric nitrogen
D) Actinomycetes — reproduce by fragmentation
E) Cytophaga —a
gliding, nonfruiting bacterium
C) Chemoautotrophic bacteria — fix atmospheric nitrogen
70
Rickettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsias
A) Are gram-negative.
B) Are intracellular parasites.
C) Require an arthropod for transmission.
D) Form elementary bodies.
E) None of the above.
C) Require an arthropod for transmission.
71
You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to nitrate ion. This bacterium is
A) Gram-negative.
B) Using anaerobic respiration.
C) A chemoautotroph.
D) A photoautotroph.
E) A photoheterotroph.
C) A chemoautotroph.
72
Escherichia coli belongs to the
A) Proteobacteria.
B) Gram-positive bacteria.
C) Green sulfur bacteria.
D) Spirochetes.
E) Actinomycetes.
Either A) Proteobacteria or E) Actinomycetes
73
Which one of the following does not belong with the others?
A) Bacillus
B) Escherichia
C) Lactobacillus
D) Staphylococcus
E) Streptococcus
B) Escherichia
74
A primary difference between cyanobacteria and purple sulfur and purple nonsulfur phototrophic bacteria is
A) Energy source.
B) Cell wall type.
C) Electron donor for CO₂? reduction.
D) Cell type.
E) Color.
C) Electron donor for CO₂? reduction.
75
Which of the following is the best reason to classify Staphylococcus in the Lactobacillales?
A) Gram reaction
B) Morphology
C) Fermentation of lactose
D) rRNA sequences
E) All of the above.
D) rRNA sequences
76
Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all
A) Pathogens.
B) Gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods.
C) Gram-positive aerobic cocci.
D) Fermentative.
E) None of the above.
B) Gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods.
77
Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it
A) Is aerobic.
B) Possesses an axial filament.
C) Is a rod.
D) Is a pathogen.
E) None of the above.
B) Possesses an axial filament.
78
Thiobacillus oxidizes inorganic sulfur compounds and reduces CO₂. This bacterium is
A) A chemoheterotroph
B) A chemoautotroph
C) A phototroph
D) A γ-proteobacteria
E) None of the above.
B) A chemoautotroph
79
Actinomycetes differ from fungi because actinomycetes
A) Are chemoheterotrophs.
B) Lack a membrane-bounded nucleus.
C) Require light.
D) Are decomposers.
E) Cause disease.
B) Lack a membrane-bounded nucleus.
80
The bacteria presently being used to produce xanthan for food products are
A) Genetically engineered.
B) Naturally occurring.
C) Unable to degrade lactose.
D) Dangerous to humans.
E) This isn't being done.
B) Naturally occurring.
81
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Spirochete — axial filament
B) Aerobic, helical bacteria — gram-negative
C) Enterics — gram-negative
D) Mycobacteria — acid-fast
E) None of the above
E) None of the above
82
Caulobacter are different from most bacteria because
A) They are gram-negative.
B) They are gram-positive.
C) They have stalks.
D) They lack cell walls.
E) None of the above.
C) They have stalks.
83
All of the following are motile; which does not have flagella?
A) Enterics
B) Helical bacteria
C) Pseudomonas
D) Spirochetes
E) None of the above
D) Spirochetes
84
Mycoplasmas differ from other bacteria because they
A) Grow inside host cells.
B) Lack a cell wall.
C) Are acid-fast.
D) Are motile.
E) None of the above.
B) Lack a cell wall.
85
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A) Elementary body — Escherichia
B) Endospore — Bacillus
C) Endospore — Clostridium
D) Heterocyst — cyanobacteria
E) Myxospore — gliding bacteria
A) Elementary body — Escherichia
86
All of the following are true about protozoa except
A) They have eukaryotic cells.
B) All make cysts.
C) They may reproduce sexually.
D) They may have flagella or cilia.
E) None of the above.
B) All make cysts.
87
In which of the following ways do viruses differ from bacteria?
A) Viruses are filterable.
B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
C) Viruses don't have any nucleic acid.
D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
E) All of the above.
D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
88
Which of the following provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?
A) They are not composed of cells.
B) They are filterable.
C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host.
D) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals.
E) They are chemically simple.
C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host.
89
Which of the following is not used as a criterion to classify viruses?
A) Biochemical tests
B) Morphology
C) Nucleic acid
D) Size
E) Number of capsomeres
A) Biochemical tests
90
Which of the following is not a method of culturing viruses?
A) In laboratory animals
B) In culture media
C) In embryonated eggs
D) In cell culture
E) None of the above
B) In culture media
91
Bacteriophages and animal viruses do not differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
A) Adsorption
B) Penetration
C) Uncoating
D) Biosynthesis
E) Release
D) Biosynthesis
92
The definition of lysogeny is
A) Phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.
B) Lysis of the host cell due to a phage.
C) The period during replication when virions are not present.
D) When the burst time takes an unusually long time.
E) None of the above.
A) Phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.
93
A viroid is
A) A complete, infectious virus particle.
B) A naked, infectious piece of RNA.
C) A capsid without a nucleic acid.
D)A provirus.
E) None of the above.
B) A naked, infectious piece of RNA.
94
Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a - strand of RNA?
A) Synthesis of DNA from an RNA template
B) Synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template
C) Synthesis of double-stranded RNA from a DNA template
D) Transcription of mRNA from DNA
E) None of the above
B) Synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template
95
Anenvelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
A) Penetration
B) Adsorption
C) Uncoating
D) Release
E) None of the above
D) Release
96
Which of the following contributes to the difficulty in establishing the etiology of cancer?
A) Most viral particles can infect cells without inducing cancer.
B) Cancer may not develop until long after infection.
C) Cancers do not seem to be contagious.
D) Viruses are difficult to observe.
E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
97
Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. It is a single-stranded RNA, enveloped virus. To which group does it most likely belong?
A) Herpesvirus
B) Picornavirus
C) Retrovirus
D) Togavirus
E) None of the above
D) Togavirus
98
To which group does a small, nonenveloped single-stranded RNA virus most likely belong?
A) Herpesvirus
B) Picornavirus
C) Retrovirus
D) Togavirus
E) None of the above
B) Picornavirus
99
The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by
A) Finding oncogenes in viruses.
B) The presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients.
C) Cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.
D) Treating cancer with antibodies.
E) Some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis.
C) Cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.
100
Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell except
A) Lysozyme.
B) tRNA.
C) Amino acids.
D) Nucleotides.
E) None of the above.
A) Lysozyme.
