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National Board Sample Questions > Sample Questions 2009 > Flashcards

Sample Questions 2009 Flashcards

1
Q

Carcinoma in situ implies that the lesion shows:

a) encapsulation of cell mass
b) metastasis of malignant cells
c) dysplasia of cells confined within the epithelium
d) extensive invasion of malignant cells to surrounding tissue

A

C) DYSPLASIA OF CELLS CONFINED WITHIN THE EPITHELIUM

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2
Q

Gingival curettage serves to do each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) to shrink shallow pockets
b) to reduce fibrotic tissue
c) to remove ulcerated epithelium
d) to improve tissue tone

A

B) TO REDUCE FIBROTIC TISSUE

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3
Q

Inadvertent soft-tissue curettage removes which of the following?

a) Oral epithelium
b) Sulcular epithelium
c) Cervical fibers of the periodontal ligament
d) Horizontal fibers of the periodontal ligament

A

B) SULCULAR EPITHELIUM

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4
Q

Which of the following conditions occurs more often in women than in men?

a) Cirrhosis
b) Oral cancer
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Pancreatic cancer
e) Atherosclerosis

A

C) RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

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5
Q

A maxillary left lateral incisor has a 7-mm pocket on the mid-palatal aspect of the tooth. Which of the following represents the most likely secondary etiologic agent involved in the formation of this pocket?

a) Enamel pearl
b) Accessory canal
c) Overhanging restoration
d) Palatal gingival groove
e) Cervical enamel projection

A

D) PALATAL GINGIVAL GROOVE

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6
Q

Scavenger systems in nitrous oxide/oxygen sedation equipment function to:

a) minimize gas leakage
b) collect the gas for re-use
c) reduce microbial contamination
d) eliminate errors in the tank hook-up
e) limit the concentration of the mixture

A

D) ELIMINATE ERRORS IN THE TANK HOOK-UP

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7
Q

The median palatine raphe is found on the:

a) uvula
b) oropharynx
c) hard palate
d) soft palate

A

C) HARD PALATE

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8
Q

An accumulation of which of the following cells suggests that a patient has had an immunologic response to plaque?

a) Lymphocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Mast cells
d) Monocytes
e) Neutrophils

A

A) LYMPHOCYTES

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9
Q

The tensor veli palatini muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves?

a) Maxillary division of the trigeminal
b) Mandibular division of the trigeminal
c) External laryngeal branch of the vagus
d) Internal laryngeal branch of the vagus

A

B) MANDIBULAR DIVISION OF THE TRIGEMINAL

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10
Q

Which of the following represents the recommended millimeter thickness of lead for a protective lead apron?

a) 0.10
b) 0.15
c) 0.20
d) 0.25
e) 0.30

A

D) 0.25

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11
Q

Following gingival curettage, healing begins with (a):

a) collagenation
b) lymphocytic infiltration
c) blood clot formation
d) mitosis of epithelial cells
e) fibroblastic proliferation and capillary budding

A

C) BLOOD CLOT FORMATION

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12
Q

The most predominant WBC in the healing gingiva 12 hours after soft tissue cartilage is the:

a) basophil
b) mast cell
c) neutrophil
d) eosinophil
e) macrophage

A

C) NEUTROPHIL

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13
Q

In pregnancy gingivitis, which of the following bacteria would you expect to see in increased numbers?

a) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
b) Prevotella intermedia
c) Streptococcus mutans
d) Actinomyces israelii
e) Capnocytophaga

A

B) PREVOTELLA INTERMEDIA

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14
Q

If the clinical attachment level and the probing depth measurements of a tooth were equal, then the margin of the gingival tissue would be located:

a) apical to the contact point.
b) coronal to the contact point.
c) at the cementoenamel junction.
d) apical to the cementoenamel junction.
e) coronal to the cementoenamel junction.

A

C) AT THE CEMENTOENAMEL JUNCTION

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15
Q

Which of the following medications used to prevent rejection in patients with solid organ transplant might result in gingival overgrowth?

a) Prednisone (Sterapred)
b) Cyclosporine (Neoral)
c) Azathioprine (Imuran)
d) Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)
e) Phenytoin (Dilantin)

A

B) CYCLOSPORINE (NEORAL)

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16
Q

A carious developmental pit is most likely found on the lingual surface on a:

a) mandibular central incisor.
b) mandibular lateral incisor.
c) maxillary canine.
d) maxillary central incisor.
e) maxillary lateral incisor.

A

E) MAXILLARY LATERAL INCISOR

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17
Q

The only frenulum which does NOT contain any muscle fibers is the:

a) lingual.
b) maxillary.
c) mandibular.
d) buccinator.

A

B) MAXILLARY

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18
Q

A patient presents with necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. Which of the following microorganisms most likely predominate?

a) Gram-(+) rods
b) Gram-(-) cocci
c) Spirilla and Porphyromonas gingivalis
d) Spirochetes and Prevotella intermedia
e) Fusobacteria and filamentous rods

A

D) SPIROCHETES AND PREVOTELLA INTERMEDIA

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19
Q

Nutrients are carried throughout all tissues of the human body by which of the following systems?

a) Digestive
b) Lymphatic
c) Excretory
d) Circulatory
e) Respiratory

A

D) CIRCULATORY

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20
Q

Which of the following cysts forms around the crown of an impacted tooth?

a) Residual
b) Primordial
c) Periapical (Radicular)
d) Dentigerous (Follicular)
e) Odontogenic

A

D) DENTIGEROUS (FOLLICULAR)

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21
Q

Soft tissue gingival curettage is most likely to cause which of the following?

a) Shrinkage
b) Reattachment
c) A decrease in fibrotic tissue
d) Rekeratinization

A

A) SHRINKAGE

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22
Q

The uptake of water in a reversible hydrocolloid is by:

a) syneresis.
b) hysteresis.
c) imbibition.
d) absorption.
e) adsorption.

A

C) IMBIBITION

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23
Q

A composite resin restoration has a gingival overhang. This defect can most easily be identified by:

a) exploration.
b) radiographs.
c) transillumination.
d) visual inspection.
e) disclosing solution.

A

A) EXPLORATION

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24
Q

A patient indicates on her medical history that she frequently takes aspirin. Which of the following reasons best describes why a dental hygienist should question the patient further about her use of aspirin?

a) Interfere with the effectiveness of antibiotics.
b) Cause an elevation in the patient’s blood pressure.
c) Increase blood clotting time if taken recently.
d) Increase the possibility of a post-treatment infection.
e) Interfere with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

A

C) INCREASE BLOOD CLOTTING TIME IF TAKEN RECENTLY

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25
Q

Each of the following is a recommended chemical disinfectant EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Iodophor
b) Isopropanol
c) Glutaraldehyde
d) Chlorine dioxide
e) Sodium hypochlorite

A

B) ISOPROPANOL

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26
Q

The lymphatics draining the maxillary teeth usually empty directly into which of the following nodes?

a) Parotid
b) Sublingual
c) Deep cervical
d) Submandibular
e) Superficial cervical

A

D) SUBMANDIBULAR

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27
Q

Which of the following muscles is attached to the articular disc?

a) Masseter
b) Mylohyoid
c) Temporalis
d) Medial pterygoid
e) Lateral pterygoid

A

E) LATERAL PTERYGOID

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28
Q

The crevicular epithelium of a periodontal pocket consistently differs from that seen in normal gingiva. Which of the following describes the epithelial lining of a periodontal pocket?

a) Thicker
b) Atrophic
c) Ulcerative
d) Keratinized

A

C) ULCERATIVE

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29
Q

The mandibular condyle is different from most other joints because the articular surface is covered with which of the following?

a) Elastic cartilage
b) Synovial membrane
c) Hyaline cartilage
d) Fibrous connective tissue

A

D) FIBROUS CONNECTIVE TISSUE

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30
Q

Vasoconstrictors are combined with local anesthetics for all of the following reasons EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Reduce toxicity.
b) Prolong duration of action.
c) Reduce rate of vascular absorption.
d) Increase concentration at the nerve membrane.
e) Prevent penetration at the nerve membrane.

A

E) PREVENT PENETRATION AT THE NERVE MEMBRANE

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31
Q

Which of the following procedures is NOT necessary before attempting gingival curettage?

a) Periodontal probing
b) Scaling and root planing
c) Sharpening instruments
d) Determining need for anesthetic
e) Irrigating the pocket with chlorhexidine

A

E) IRRIGATING THE POCKET WITH CHLORHEXIDINE

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32
Q

When would exploring with the heel of the explorer be appropriate?

a) Around the distal line angles of posterior teeth
b) Around the mesial line angles of posterior teeth
c) Around the mesial or distal line angles of anterior teeth
d) It is not appropriate to lead with the heel.

A

A) AROUND THE DISTAL LINE ANGLES OF POSTERIOR TEETH

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33
Q

Which of the following is desirable during soft-tissue curettage?

a) Frequent irrigation
b) Removal of the pocket-wall lining
c) Use of short, vertical strokes
d) Use of firm working pressure against the tooth

A

B) REMOVAL OF THE POCKET-WALL LINING

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34
Q

Which of the following represents how soon radiation dissipates in a treatment room following a 5 impulse exposure?

a) Immediately
b) Within 5 seconds
c) Within 30 seconds
d) Within 2 minutes
e) Never totally

A

A) IMMEDIATELY

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35
Q

Which of the following fluoride preparations could most likely cause gingival irritation?

a) Calcium fluoride
b) Sodium fluoride
c) Stannous fluoride
d) Monofluorophosphate
e) Acidulated phosphate-fluoride

A

C) STANNOUS FLUORIDE

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36
Q

Which of the following nerves is a branch of the 1st division of the trigeminal nerve?

a) Nasociliary
b) Nasopalatine
c) Lesser palatine
d) Greater palatine

A

(?)

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37
Q

Taste buds can be found on which of the following papillae of the tongue’s dorsal surface?

a) Filiform and fungiform
b) Fungiform and vallate
c) Filiform and vallate
d) All of the papillae

A

B) FUNGIFORM AND VALLATE

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38
Q

In which of the following processes are normal cells replaced by other types of cells?

a) Metaplasia
b) Hyperplasia
c) Heteroplasia
d) Dysplasia
e) Anaplasia

A

A) METAPLASIA

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39
Q

Which of the following terms defines the ridges of tissue which extend outward from the midline of the hard palate?

a) Rugae
b) Raphae
c) Fovea
d) Uvula

A

A) RUGAE

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40
Q

An unusual side-effect of cimetidine therapy in the treatment of peptic ulcer is:

a) moon face.
b) gynecomastia.
c) sialolithiasis.
d) grooved tongue.
e) agranulocytosis.

A

B) GYNECOMASTIA

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41
Q

Each of the following periodontal diseases exhibits radiographic evidence of bone loss EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Chronic gingivitis
b) Adult periodontitis
c) Prepubertal periodontitis
d) Localized juvenile periodontitis

A

A) CHRONIC GINGIVITIS

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42
Q

While exploring, a dental hygienist notices that when the explorer passes over the margin of a restoration, it suddenly dips onto the root surface. If the explorer is brought back toward the occlusal surface, then it catches on a protruding surface near the cementoenamel junction. Which of the following is this hygienist most likely detecting?

a) Calculus
b) Diseased cementum
c) Deficient margin on a restoration
d) Overhanging margin on a restoration
e) Demineralized or carious tooth structure

A

D) OVERHANGING MARGIN ON A RESTORATION

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43
Q

It is necessary to use an extraoral safelight filter when processing panoramic films because the film:

a) has a double film emulsion.
b) has a thicker film emulsion.
c) has a larger surface area than periodical films.
d) requires a shorter developing time than intramural films.
e) is more sensitive to visible light than intraoral films.

A

E) IS MORE SENSITIVE TO VISIBLE LIGHT THAN INTRAORAL FILMS

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44
Q

Which of the following represent examples of somatic cells in humans?

a) Chromosomes and genes
b) Chromosomes, genes, and nerves
c) Bone marrow, muscles, and nerves
d) Genes, bone marrow, and muscles
e) Genes, bone marrow, and nerves

A

C) BONE MARROW, MUSCLES, AND NERVES

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45
Q

Which of the following would be the best adaptation of a cutting edge to a tooth for periodontal debridement?

a) 0 degrees
b) 35 degrees
c) 70 degrees
d) 90 degrees
e) 100 degrees

A

C) 70 DEGREES

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46
Q

Which of the following muscles is most likely to be affected by direct trauma to the temporomandibular joint?

a) Masseter
b) Buccinator
c) Medial pterygoid
d) Lateral pterygoid

A

D) LATERAL PTERYGOID

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47
Q

Skin of the chin and mucous membrane of the lower lip receive blood from which branch of the inferior dental artery?

a) Mental
b) Incisive
c) Digastric
d) Mylohyoid

A

A) MENTAL

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48
Q

Which of the following drugs might be used clinically to relax skeletal muscle prior to tracheal intubation?

a) Atropine
b) Neostigmine
c) Physostigmine
d) Methacholine
e) Succinylchlorine

A

E) SUCCINYLCHLORINE

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49
Q

Each of the following triangles is in the anterior triangle of the neck EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Carotid
b) Submental
c) Subclavian
d) Submandibular

A

C) SUBCLAVIAN

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50
Q

Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has the lowest energy?

a) Radar
b) Radio
c) X-rays
d) Ultraviolet
e) Visible light

A

B) RADIO

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51
Q

The oral tissues of a 15-year old patient appear to be normal. An examination reveals 5-7 mm loss of attachment on the maxillary right 1st molar, the maxillary left central incisor and 1st molar, and the mandibular right 1st molar, that bleed on probing. Which of the following most likely represents this type of periodontitis?

a) Chronic
b) Aggressive
c) Necrotizing ulcerative
d) Non-plaque associated
e) Associated with systemic disease

A

B) AGGRESSIVE

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52
Q

Each of the following circumstances could affect body temperature EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Exercise
b) Time of day
c) Dehydration
d) Hypertension
e) Hyperthyroidism

A

D) HYPERTENSION

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53
Q

Which of the following is the correct amount, in milliliters, of high-concentration fluoride gels/foams to fill the tray?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
e) 10

A

A) 2

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54
Q

Which of the following represents the frequency with which dental radiographic examinations should be performed?

a) Every 6 months
b) On an annual basis
c) Every 12-16 months
d) Determined by patient’s dental history and clinical evaluation
e) Determined by the patient’s medical, dental, and clinical evaluation

A

E) DETERMINED BY THE PATIENT’S MEDICAL, DENTAL, AND CLINICAL EVALUATION

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55
Q

X-ray beam intensity includes each of the following concepts EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Governed by the Inverse Square Law
b) Double the distance, double the exposure time
c) Varies as the square of the source-film distance
d) Greater the distance, less intense the x-ray beam
e) Beam intensity 6 feet from the source is 1/36 the original intensity

A

B) DOUBLE THE DISTANCE, DOUBLE THE EXPOSURE TIME

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56
Q

Which of the following kVp settings will result in the highest production of scatter radiation?

a) 65
b) 70
c) 75
d) 80
e) 85

A

A) 65

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57
Q

The shape of the interdental gingiva is determined by the shape of the:

a) col.
b) alveolar bone.
c) gingival sulcus.
d) gingival embrasure.

A

D) GINGIVAL EMBRASURE

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58
Q

An intraoral epidermoid carcinoma is most likely to have which of the following colors?

a) Red
b) White
c) Speckled
d) Pigmented

A

B) WHITE

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59
Q

Which of the following structures passes between the superior and middle constrictor muscles?

a) Hypoglossal nerve
b) Palatoglossal nerve
c) Stylopharyngeus muscle
d) Salpingopharyngeus muscle

A

C) STYLOPHARYNGEUS MUSCLE

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60
Q

Which of the following controls the number of electrons that are produced at the tungsten filament?

a) Kilovoltage
b) Copper stem
c) Filter
d) Milliamperage
e) Collimator

A

D) MILLIAMPERAGE

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61
Q

Onset of prepubertal periodontitis occurs:

a) before eruption of primary teeth.
b) after eruption of permanent 1st molars.
c) 2-3 years after eruption of primary teeth.
d) immediately after eruption of primary teeth.

A

D) IMMEDIATELY AFTER ERUPTION OF PRIMARY TEETH

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62
Q

Which of the following represents the active ingredient in Peridex?

a) 0.2% cetylpyridinium chloride
b) 0.2% chlorhexidine gluconate
c) 0.12% cetylpyridinium chloride
d) 0.12% chlorhexidine gluconate
e) 0.2% phenol

A

D) 0.12% CHLORHEXIDINE GLUCONATE

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63
Q

A dental hygienist has placed the blade of the instrument perpendicular to the long axis in the interproximal surface of an anterior tooth. This hygienist should activate the instrument in which of the following directions?

a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Oblique
d) Circumferential
e) Multidirectional

A

A) VERTICAL

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64
Q

During a major motor seizure, the primary objective of the dental staff is to:

a) keep the patient from moving.
b) keep the patient from biting his/her tongue.
c) keep the patient from injuring him/herself.
d) keep the patient from destroying the dental equipment.

A

C) KEEP THE PATIENT FROM INJURING HIM/HERSELF

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65
Q

Each of the following statements correctly describes radiation barriers EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Secondary barriers are designed to absorb scatter and leakage radiation.
b) Primary barriers must be lead-lined to attenuate the primary beam of x-rays.
c) The ceiling and floor are considered secondary barriers.
d) Barrier specifications are based on total workload, kilovoltage, and distance.
e) Dental office operator walls with several layers of drywall provide adequate operator protection.

A

B) PRIMARY BARRIERS MUST BE LEAD-LINED TO ATTENUATE THE PRIMARY BEAM OF X-RAYS

66
Q

Which of the following best characterizes whole body radiation?

a) Mammogram
b) Chest radiograph
c) Dental radiograph
d) Background radiation
e) Therapeutic radiation

A

D) BACKGROUND RADIATION

67
Q

The condyles move in the lower compartment only during:

a) pure hinge movements.
b) extreme opening movements.
c) pure translatory movements.
d) lateral protrusive movements.

A

A) PURE HINGE MOVEMENTS

68
Q

Which of the following signs/symptoms suggests the presence of a systemic disease?

a) Leukoedema of the buccal mucosa
b) Halitosis with black hairy tongue
c) Leukoplakia on the dorsal surface of the tongue
d) Gingival bleeding in the absence of local irritants
e) Tortuous veins on the ventral surface of the tongue

A

D) GINGIVAL BLEEDING IN THE ABSENCE OF LOCAL IRRITANTS

69
Q

Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve would denervate which of the following muscles?

a) Salpingopharyngeus
b) Stylopharyngeus
c) Musculus uvulae
d) Palatoglossus

A

B) STYLOPHARYNGEUS

70
Q

Reticulation of a radiograph is caused by:

a) overacidity of the fixer.
b) an overdose of radiation.
c) accidental exposure to daylight.
d) going from too warm a solution into a cold solution.

A

D) GOING FROM TOO WARM A SOLUTION INTO A COLD SOLUTION

71
Q

A hygienist has performed soft-tissue curettage procedures. Upon probing the operative site two weeks afterward, the hygienist sees no bleeding. Which of the following events in wound healing accounts for this finding?

a) The formation of a blood clot.
b) The reduction of edema.
c) The re-epithelialization of the wound.
d) The keratinization of oral epithelium.

A

C) THE RE-EPITHELIALIZATION OF THE WOUND

72
Q

Following repeated periodontal debridement, loss of attachment is likely to occur in pockets of which of the following depths (in mm)?

a) 2-3
b) 4-5
c) 6-7
d) 8-9
e) 10-11

A

A) 2-3

73
Q

The primary purpose of soft tissue curettage is to:

a) excise infected attached gingiva.
b) remove calculus and plaque from the root surface.
c) stir up the inflammatory cells and make it start healing.
d) cause bleeding that will eliminate toxins from the tissues.

A

B) REMOVE CALCULUS AND PLAQUE FROM THE ROOT SURFACE

74
Q

Which of the following is a dust-borne organism that can be the source of contamination of dental instruments and the hands of dental personnel?

a) Herpes simplex virus
b) Influenza virus
c) Clostridium tetani
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
e) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

C) CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI

75
Q

Which of the following kVp setting will result in the highest production of scatter radiation?

a) 65
b) 70
c) 75
d) 80
e) 85

A

A) 65

76
Q

Which of the following statements about the TMJ is correct?

a) The articular capsule is filled with synovial fluid.
b) When in the resting position, the condylar head touches the articular tubercle.
c) The articular tubercle is the posterior stop for the condyle.
d) The meniscus completely encloses the joint.

A

A) THE ARTICULAR CAPSULE IS FILLED WITH SYNOVIAL FLUID.

77
Q

The incisive papilla is located:

a) interproximally between all teeth.
b) opposite the maxillary 2nd molar.
c) below the mandibular 2nd premolar.
d) behind the maxillary central incisors.

A

D) BEHIND THE CENTRAL INCISORS

78
Q

Dental x-ray machines, if operated above 70 kVp, should contain how many milliliters of total filtration?

a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
d) 2.5

A

D) 2.5

79
Q

Facial paralysis can be caused by parotid gland surgery because the facial nerve passes through the capsule of the parotid gland.

a) Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b) Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is.
e) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

A

A) BOTH THE STATEMENT AND REASON ARE CORRECT AND RELATED.

80
Q

Grit refers to which of the following characteristics of abrasive particles?

a) Size
b) Shape
c) Speed
d) Hardness
e) Brittleness

A

A) SIZE

81
Q

An intrabony (infrabony) osseous defect is classified according to which of the following criteria?

a) Number of tooth surfaces involved
b) Number of bony walls remaining
c) Number of bony walls lost
d) Diameter of the pocket
e) Depth of the pocket

A

B) NUMBER OF BONY WALLS REMAINING

82
Q

To facilitate the uniform removal of sulculus epithelium during gingival curettage, the clinician should:

a) use vertical strokes.
b) use short, overlapping strokes.
c) digitally support the free gingiva.
d) apply pressure in an apical direction.

A

C) DIGITALLY SUPPORT THE FREE GINGIVA

83
Q

During the healing process following gingival curettage, epithelial cell migration will begin in:

a) 6-12 hours
b) 12-24 hours
c) 24-36 hours
d) 36-48 hours

A

B) 12-24 HOURS

84
Q

Each of the following represents an integral part of active listening EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Paraphrasing patient’s comments
b) Recognizing nonverbal cues
c) Giving standard responses
d) Maintaining eye contact
e) Relaxed body posture

A

C) GIVING STANDARD RESPONSES

85
Q

Dental x-ray machines, if operated above 70 kVp, should contain how many milliliters of total filtration?

a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
d) 2.5
e) 3.0

A

D) 2.5

86
Q

A dental hygienist is standing three meters from the radiation source. How many times greater will her exposure-time be if she moves two meters closer?

a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12

A

C) 9

87
Q

The maxillary artery is divided into mandibular, pterygoid, and pterygopalatine portions. An important branch of the mandibular portion is the:

a) infraorbital.
b) sphenopalatine.
c) inferior alveolar.
d) posterior superior alveolar.

A

C) INFERIOR ALVEOLAR

88
Q

To obtain radiographs for a patient, a dental hygienist uses a dental x-ray machine that has rectangular collimation. This procedure will reduce which of the following?

a) Dosage
b) Kilovoltage
c) Cone cutting
d) Photon energy
e) Milliamperage

A

A) DOSAGE

89
Q

A patient’s mandibular 1st molar will be extracted. Which of the following nerves or their terminal branches need NOT be anesthetized?

a) Buccal
b) Mental
c) Lingual
d) Inferior alveolar

A

B) MENTAL

90
Q

Which of the following terms is best defined by “freedom from contamination with microorganisms”?

a) Clean
b) Asepsis
c) Germicide
d) Antiseptic
e) Bactericide

A

B) ASEPSIS

91
Q

A practitioner performs soft-tissue curettage for a patient. Histologically, this patient’s gingival tissues are most likely to exhibit which of the following?

a) Long rete pegs
b) Increased number of desmosomes
c) Loss of mitotic capacity
d) Fibrosis

A

A) LONG RETE PEGS

92
Q

During a continuing care examination, a dental hygienist has observed that a patient’s probing depths in several areas have increased by 2 mm. Radiographs reveal no apparent changes. Each of the following might account for this change EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Gingival swelling
b) Gingival hyperplasia
c) Horizontal bone loss
d) Probing technique errors

A

C) HORIZONTAL BONE LOSS

93
Q

Which of the following best describes the stroke for performing gingival curettage? It is:

a) long and oblique with heavy pressure.
b) long and horizontal with moderate pressure.
c) short and oblique with moderate pressure.
d) short and horizontal with heavy pressure.

A

B) LONG AND HORIZONTAL WITH MODERATE PRESSURE

94
Q

Reduction of anxiety by the use of systemic drugs without inducing loss of consciousness is best described as:

a) hypnosis.
b) analgesia.
c) iatrosedation.
d) pharmacosedation.
e) general anesthesia.

A

D) PHARMACOSEDATION

95
Q

Research has shown marked differences between the effectiveness of waxed and unwaxed floss in plaque removal.

To achieve optimal compliance, the patient should use his/her preferred type of floss.

a) Both statements are true.
b) Both statements are false.
c) The 1st statement is true, the 2nd is false.
d) The 1st statement is false, the 2nd is true.

A

D) THE 1st STATEMENT IS FALSE, THE 2nd IS TRUE.

96
Q

Each of the following teeth has roots with narrower lingual surfaces than facial surfaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Maxillary central incisor
b) Maxillary lateral incisor
c) Maxillary canine
d) Mandibular central incisor
e) Mandibular canine

A

D) MANDIBULAR CENTRAL INCISOR

97
Q

Which of the following are the predominant obligate anaerobes in the normal oral cavity?

a) Gram-(+) cocci
b) Gram-(-) cocci
c) Gram-(-) rods
d) Gram-(+) rods
e) Spirochetes

A

B) GRAM-(-) COCCI

98
Q

Pain impulses from the periodontal ligament of the maxillary teeth are carried by:

a) V1.
b) V2.
c) V3.
d) VII.

A

B) V2

99
Q

Severing which of the following nerves leads to a marked decrease in gastric and intestinal secretions?

a) Vagus
b) Phrenic
c) Splanchnic
d) Intercostal
e) Glossopharyngeal

A

A) VAGUS

100
Q

A child has a maxillary incisor protrusion, an anterior open bite, crowded lower anteriors, and a high-palatal vault. Which of the following most likely caused this condition?

a) Thumb-sucking
b) Mouth breathing
c) Tongue thrusting
d) Using a pacifier
e) Nocturnal bruxism

A

A) THUMB-SUCKING

101
Q

In periodontal procedures where the pocket epithelium is removed, new epithelium migrates from the margins of the wound within:

a) 6-10 hours.
b) 12-24 hours.
c) 2-3 days.
d) 4-6 days.

A

B) 12-24 HOURS

102
Q

Narrow, slit-like areas of gingival recession over the roots of teeth are known as which of the following?

a) Clefts
b) Craters
c) Festoons
d) Dehiscences
e) Fenestrations

A

A) CLEFTS

103
Q

Through soft-tissue curettage, a dental hygienist aims to reduce the depth of a patient’s periodontal pockets. These depths become shallower as a result of which of the following?

a) Reattachment of the junctional epithelium.
b) Formation of a long junctional epithelium
c) New attachment of connective tissue fibers at a more coronal level
d) Healing of the attached gingiva

A

B) FORMATION OF A LONG JUNCTIONAL EPITHELIUM

104
Q

Which periodontal instrument is used to perform a gingival curettage on the mesial surface of Tooth #30?

a) Gracey 1/2
b) Gracey 5/6
c) Gracey 11/12
d) Gracey 13/14

A

D) GRACEY 13/14

DISAGREE WITH ANSWER KEY, CORRECT ANSWER SHOULD BE “C”

105
Q

Repeated professional application of topical fluoride will not produce dental fluorosis.

Fluorosis will not occur on erupted teeth because they do not absorb much fluoride.

a) Both statements are true.
b) Both statements are false.
c) The 1st statement is true, the 2nd is false.
d) The 1st statement is false, the 2nd is true.

A

C) THE 1st STATEMENT IS TRUE, THE 2nd IS FALSE.

106
Q

Each of the following furcation entrances is centered on the indicated surface of a root trunk EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Distal furcation of the maxillary 1st premolar.
b) Facial furcation of the mandibular 1st molar.
c) Facial furcation of the maxillary 1st molar.
d) Mesial furcation of the maxillary 1st molar.
e) Lingual furcation of the mandibular 2nd molar.

A

D) MESIAL FURCATION OF THE MAXILLARY 1st MOLAR

107
Q

Which of the following muscles attaches to the mandibular condyle and articular disk?

a) Masseter
b) Temporalis
c) Lateral pterygoid
d) medial pterygoid

A

C) LATERAL PTERYGOID

108
Q

The forehead and scalp are supplied by which artery?

a) Orbital branch of the ophthalmic
b) Facial
c) Maxillary
d) Superficial temporal

A

A) ORBITAL BRANCH OF THE OPHTHALMIC

109
Q

Which of the following is (are) specifically responsible for the development of the root?

a) Inner enamel epithelial layer
b) Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
c) Cells of the dental sac or follicle
d) Central cells of the dental papilla
e) Peripheral cells of the dental papilla

A

B) HERTWIG’S EPITHELIAL ROOT SHEATH

110
Q

Which of the following symptoms characterizes reversible pulpitis?

a) Constant pain
b) Brief sensitivity to cold
c) Sensitivity to percussion
d) Tenderness to palpation
e) Prolonged sensitivity to heat

A

B) BRIEF SENSITIVITY TO COLD

111
Q

The hoe is used primarily for the removal of which of the following?

a) Large calculus ledges
b) Large supragingival deposits
c) Calculus at the bottom of the pocket
d) Limited amounts of subgingival calculus

A

A) LARGE CALCULUS LEDGES

112
Q

The microflora associated with early gingivitis is primarily which of the following?

a) Spirochetes
b) Fusobacteria
c) Gram-(-) rods
d) Motile and curved rods
e) Gram-(+) bacteria

A

E) GRAM-(+) BACTERIA

113
Q

Gingival curettage is contraindicated for all of the following EXCEPT:

a) pockets which have a frenum pulling on the gingival margin.
b) phenytoin-induced gingival overgrowth.
c) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
d) shallow accessible suprabony pockets.

A

D) SHALLOW ACCESSIBLE SUPRABONY POCKETS

114
Q

A patient has recently consumed alcohol. Administration of nitroglycerin to this patient might cause which of the following reactions?

a) Rapid breathing
b) Severe hypotension
c) Rapid vascular constriction
d) Decreased vagus nerve conduction
e) Tolerance to the drug’s anti-anginal effect

A

B) SEVERE HYPOTENSION

115
Q

When planning a dietary counseling conference for a child, the dental hygienist should consider each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) All people present for the discussion should be encouraged to participate.
b) The individual who plans family meals should be present.
c) Note-taking during the conference should be discouraged.
d) A written outline of recommendations should be followed.
e) The presence of siblings should be encouraged.

A

E) THE PRESENCE OF SIBLINGS SHOULD BE ENCOURAGED

116
Q

Which of the following steps will confirm a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma?

a) History of the clinical lesion
b) Histological study of the biopsied lesion
c) Exfoliative cytologic study of the lesion
d) Determination of the size of the gross clinical lesion
e) Palpation of the tissues overlying the clinical lesion

A

B) HISTOLOGICAL STUDY OF THE BIOPSIED LESION

117
Q

Which of the following intraoral malignancies is the most common?

a) Squamous cell carcinoma
b) Basal cell carcinoma
c) Plasma cell myeloma
d) Malignant melanoma
e) Adenocarcinoma

A

A) SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

118
Q

Which of the following arteries is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?

a) Inferior thyroid
b) Superior thyroid
c) Facial
d) Lingual

A

A) INFERIOR THYROID

119
Q

If a person’s genotype is OB, his blood type will be which of the following?

a) A
b) B
c) O
d) AB+
e) AB-

A

B) B

120
Q

Inadvertent soft-tissue curettage is likely to have several effects. Which of the following is the least likely to occur after this procedure?

a) Diminished probing depths
b) Increased connective tissue attachment
c) Elimination of the granulation tissue
d) Reduction of the gingival tissue swelling
e) Promotion of healing

A

B) INCREASED CONNECTIVE TISSUE ATTACHMENT

121
Q

A patient who is taking theophylline and albuterol most likely has which of the following systemic diseases?

a) Asthma
b) Diverticulitis
c) Cardiac arrhythmia
d) Renal insufficiency
e) Alcoholic cirrhosis

A

A) ASTHMA

122
Q

Which of the following represents the collagenase-producing microorganisms associated with chronic periodontitis?

a) Bacillus
b) Treponema
c) Clostridium
d) Porphyromonas
e) Staphylococcus

A

D) PORPHYROMONAS

123
Q

Each of the following tissues is considered sensitive to low levels of radiation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) Endocrine
b) Nerve
c) Lymphatic
d) Circulatory
e) Reproductive

A

B) NERVE

124
Q

If an obstruction is encountered after inserting a periodontal probe into the sulcus, then the dental hygienist should:

a) push the probe beyond the obstruction.
b) read the probe and record the measurement.
c) remove the probe and re-insert in a different spot.
d) remove the probe and select one with a narrower diameter.
e) attempt to maneuver past the obstruction and then continue to move the probe apically.

A

E) ATTEMPT TO MANEUVER PAST THE OBSTRUCTION AND THEN CONTINUE TO MOVE THE PROBE APICALLY

125
Q

Subgingival calculus is usually dark in color because:

a) pigments from blood breakdown are usually incorporated.
b) it contains a high percentage of calcium phosphate.
c) its location prevents the washing action of saliva.
d) none of the above.

A

B) IT CONTAINS A HIGH PERCENTAGE OF CALCIUM PHOSPHATE.

DISAGREE WITH ANSWER KEY, CORRECT ANSWER SHOULD BE “A”

126
Q

The sliding movement in the temporomandibular joint occurs between:

a) condyles and disks.
b) disks and articular eminences.
c) condyles and articular capsules.
d) mandibular heads and articular eminences.

A

A) CONDYLES AND DISKS

127
Q

Which of the following is the thickened lateral part of the TMJ articular capsule which helps keep the condyle against the articular eminence?

a) Stylomandibular ligament
b) Sphenomandibular ligament
c) Temporomandibular ligament
d) Anterior ligament of the malleus

A

C) TEMPOROMANDIBULAR LIGAMENT

128
Q

The trigeminal ganglion is which of the following?

a) Motor
b) Mixed
c) Sensory
d) Autonomic

A

C) SENSORY

129
Q

Which of the following is the connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle and is continuous with the tendon?

a) Epimysium
b) Epineurium
c) Endomysium
d) Perimysium
e) Perineurium

A

A) EPIMYSIUM

130
Q

Maximal tissue response following soft tissue curettage can be expected when the tissue is:

a) erosive.
b) hyperplastic.
c) fibroedematous.
d) edematous.
e) fibrotic.

A

D) EDEMATOUS

131
Q

Soft tissue curettage is indicated if the gingiva is:

a) fibrotic.
b) edematous.
c) hyperplastic.
d) acutely inflamed.
e) hypertrophied.

A

B) EDEMATOUS

132
Q

Once a tooth is exposed to fluoride, the surface of the enamel contains the highest concentration.

The amount of fluoride decreases toward the dentin.

a) Both statements are true.
b) Both statements are false.
c) The 1st statement is true, the 2nd is false.
d) The 1st statement is false, the 2nd is true.

A

A) BOTH STATEMENTS ARE TRUE.

133
Q

Glutaraldehydes are high level disinfectants because they are capable of inactivating all forms of microorganisms.

Glutaraldehydes cannot be biologically monitored for sterilization.

a) Both statements are true.
b) Both statements are false.
c) The 1st statement is true, the 2nd is false.
d) The 1st statement is false, the 2nd is true.

A

A) BOTH STATEMENTS ARE TRUE.

134
Q

If Group-D speed film requires an exposure time of 36 impulses for a radiograph, then approximately how many impulses should be used for a similar image with Group-E speed film?

a) 12
b) 18
c) 36
d) 48
e) 72

A

B) 18

135
Q

Guided tissue regeneration:

a) may occur after scaling and root plaining.
b) employs a physical barrier to exclude gingival epithelium and connective tissue from the root surface.
c) employs a physical barrier to exclude periodontal ligament cells from the healing wound.
d) all of the above.

A

B) EMPLOYS A PHYSICAL BARRIER TO EXCLUDE GINGIVAL EPITHELIUM AND CONNECTIVE TISSUE FROM THE ROOT SURFACE.

136
Q

The depression between the lingual and facial papillae is the:

a) interdental col.
b) proximal fossa.
c) free gingiva groove.
d) interpapillary depression.

A

A) INTERDENTAL COL

137
Q

Which of the following represents the serum marker for HIV infection?

a) HBsAg
b) HBcAg
c) HAV antigen
d) HIV antibody

A

D) HIV ANTIBODY

138
Q

Which of the following bones contains the posterior superior alveolar foramina and the incisive canals?

a) Maxilla
b) Parietal
c) Temporal
d) Sphenoid
e) Mandible

A

A) MAXILLA

139
Q

Infection from the teeth or periodontium can spread to the brain by way of the vascular system because the venous drainage from the brain does not have valves to prevent retrograde blood flow.

a) Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b) Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c) The statement is correct but the reason is NOT.
d) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is.
e) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

A

A) BOTH THE STATEMENT AND REASON ARE CORRECT AND RELATED.

140
Q

In certain instances after soft-tissue curettage, a practitioner places a periodontal dressing. This placement assists in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a) In maintaining the blood-clot position.
b) In preventing plaque formation.
c) In adapting the tissue to the tooth.
d) In protecting the site from trauma.

A

B) IN PREVENTING PLAQUE FORMATION

141
Q

Soft tissue curettage is most indicated in:

a) a pseudopocket.
b) a relative pocket.
c) a suprabony pocket.
d) an intrabony pocket.

A

C) A SUPRABONY POCKET

142
Q

The submandibular gland produces the greatest volume of saliva because it is the largest salivary gland.

a) Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b) Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c) The statement is correct but the reason is NOT.
d) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is.
e) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

A

C) THE STATEMENT IS CORRECT BUT THE REASON IS NOT.

143
Q

During a dental prophylaxis, a patient experiences (1) a sudden loss of breath, (2) labored breathing, (3) cold, clammy skin, and (4) pain radiating to the left shoulder and arm. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

a) Stroke
b) Insulin shock
c) Coronary occlusion
d) Anaphylactic shock
e) Cerebral hemorrhage

A

C) CORONARY OCCLUSION

144
Q

A dental hygienist, who routinely uses an ultrasonic machine to clean patients’ appliances, wishes to prevent cross-contamination of the ultrasonic solution. The hygienist should do which of the following before placing an appliance into this solution?

a) Soak the appliance in a 10% bleach solution for 5 minutes.
b) Scrub the appliance with a brush and bacteriostatic soap.
c) Seal the appliance in a plastic bag that contains a cleaning solution.
d) Rinse away the debris and saliva, then use a fresh ultrasonic cleaning solution.

A

C) SEAL THE APPLIANCE IN A PLASTIC BAG THAT CONTAINS A CLEANING SOLUTION.

145
Q

The extent to which dental health program objectives have been achieved should be measured by comparing ongoing program data to which of the following?

a) Program goals
b) Outcome measures
c) Baseline information
d) Program evaluation criteria
e) Data from other successful dental health programs

A

C) BASELINE INFORMATION

146
Q

Which of the following describes the ultimate purpose of a pilot study?

a) Comparing the sample-to-population differences.
b) Obtaining statistically significant results.
c) Clarifying the problem-statement and hypothesis.
d) Conducting a trial-program on a small sample.
e) Determining the cause-and-effect relationship between the variables.

A

D) DETERMINING THE CAUSE-AND-EFFECT RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN THE VARIABLES.

147
Q

Which of the following BEST exemplifies a behavioral objective?

a) “Students will reduce their plaque scores by at least 25%”.
b) “To teach 1st grade students to remove all plaque”.
c) “Students will understand the importance of plaque control”.
d) Oral hygiene will be improved as a result of instruction”.

A

A) “STUDENTS WILL REDUCE THEIR PLAQUE SCORES BY AT LEAST 25%”.

148
Q

Pathogenic microorganisms in the dental operatory derive primarily from:

a) dust particles.
b) aerosol sprays.
c) the instruments.
d) the mouths of patients.
e) the hands of clinicians.

A

D) THE MOUTHS OF PATIENTS.

149
Q

Which of the following describes the MOST effective method of teaching oral health in an elementary school?

a) Integrating oral health into the existing curriculum.
b) Planning a field trip to a dental school or to a dental office.
c) Using the accepted methods of lectures and demonstrations.
d) Inviting a dentist or a hygienist to present materials and to answer questions.
e) Providing an in-service for teachers.

A

A) INTEGRATING ORAL HEALTH INTO THE EXISTING CURRICULUM.

150
Q

Alleviating a patient’s fears of dental treatment may prevent each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

a) Angina
b) Anaphylaxis
c) Heart attack
d) Hyperventilation
e) Epileptic seizure

A

B) ANAPHYLAXIS

151
Q

At the conclusion of the assessment phase of program planning, all collected data is analyzed and the group MOST in need of services is determined. This group is known as which of the following?

a) Needy group
b) Activity group
c) Target population
d) Discussion population
e) Demographic population

A

C) TARGET POPULATION

152
Q

According to the Health-Belief Model, which of the following will be MOST likely to influence an older adult’s decision to seek dental care?

a) Cost
b) Health status
c) Transportation
d) Perception of need

A

D) PERCEPTION OF NEED

153
Q

Testlet (#153-156): A dental hygienist coordinates the oral hygiene program at an assisted-living home for middle SES elderly. Duties include conducting assessments for new residents, developing individual dental hygiene treatment plans, planning educational and other community-based programs to meet resident needs, ongoing assessment of the population, and program evaluation. Two calibrated examiners collect screening data during initial assessment. Denture cleanings and labeling are done at this assessment.

What is the general growth trend for the population targeted by this program?

a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) No change
d) Insufficient information provided to determine

A

A) INCREASING

154
Q

Testlet (#153-156): A dental hygienist coordinates the oral hygiene program at an assisted-living home for middle SES elderly. Duties include conducting assessments for new residents, developing individual dental hygiene treatment plans, planning educational and other community-based programs to meet resident needs, ongoing assessment of the population, and program evaluation. Two calibrated examiners collect screening data during initial assessment. Denture cleanings and labeling are done at this assessment.

Which of the following terms best describes the ongoing, routine measurement of the residents’ oral health status to detect changes?

a) Assessment
b) Evaluation
c) Monitoring
d) Epidemiology

A

C) MONITORING

155
Q

Testlet (#153-156): A dental hygienist coordinates the oral hygiene program at an assisted-living home for middle SES elderly. Duties include conducting assessments for new residnets, developing individual dental hygiene treatment plans, planning educational and other community-based programs to meet resident needs, ongoing assessment of the population, and program evaluation. Two calibrated examiners collect screening data during initial assessment. Denture cleanings and labeling are done at this assessment.

Which of the following would be the most effective and efficient use of the dental hygienist’s time in this program?

a) Provide daily oral care for the residents.
b) Train clinical nurse aides in daily oral care.
c) Provide professional fluoride treatments for residents.
d) Provide routine cleaning and labeling of dentures for residents.
e) Create a network for providing emergency dental care.

A

B) TRAIN CLINICAL NURSE AIDES IN DAILY ORAL CARE.

156
Q

Testlet (#153-156): A dental hygienist coordinates the oral hygiene program at an assisted-living home for middle SES elderly. Duties include conducting assessments for new residnets, developing individual dental hygiene treatment plans, planning educational and other community-based programs to meet resident needs, ongoing assessment of the population, and program evaluation. Two calibrated examiners collect screening data during initial assessment. Denture cleanings and labeling are done at this assessment.

Which of the following is increased by the calibration of the two examiners?

a) Validity
b) Reliability
c) Statistical probability
d) Sensitivity
e) Hawthorne effect

A

B) RELIABILITY

157
Q

Testlet (#157-160): A dental hygienist in a county health department is assigned the task of developing programs for various communities in the county. The 1st targeted community is composed of upper SES, university-educated people, primarily African-American. The 2nd community is made up of middle to low SES, high school-educated persons who are predominantly Caucasian. Neither community is fluoridated and both have a varied age range within their populations. The DMF and def indices are performed during the assessment phase of the program. The dental hygienist decides to implement a sealant program in the 2nd community.

Which community should the dental hygienist expect to have a higher rate of dental utilization?

a) The 1st because of their SES.
b) The 2nd because of their SES.
c) The 1st because of their ethnicity.
d) The 2nd because of their ethnicity.
e) The two communities should be fairly equivalent in their utilization rates.

A

A) THE 1st BECAUSE OF THEIR SES.

158
Q

Testlet (#157-160): A dental hygienist in a county health department is assigned the task of developing programs for various communities in the county. The 1st targeted community is composed of upper SES, university-educated people, primarily African-American. The 2nd community is made up of middle to low SES, high school-educated persons who are predominantly Caucasian. Neither community is fluoridated and both have a varied age range within their populations. The DMF and def indices are performed during the assessment phase of the program. The dental hygienist decides to implement a sealant program in the 2nd community.

Which of the following is the best rationale for implementing the sealant program in the 2nd community?

a) More 3rd party providers.
b) More federal assistance available.
c) Higher incidence of gingivitis.
d) Less access to preventive services.

A

D) LESS ACCESS TO PREVENTIVE SERVICES.

159
Q

Testlet (#157-160): A dental hygienist in a county health department is assigned the task of developing programs for various communities in the county. The 1st targeted community is composed of upper SES, university-educated people, primarily African-American. The 2nd community is made up of middle to low SES, high school-educated persons who are predominantly Caucasian. Neither community is fluoridated and both have a varied age range within their populations. The DMF and def indices are performed during the assessment phase of the program. The dental hygienist decides to implement a sealant program in the 2nd community.

Which of the following indices is most appropriate to assess dental caries in permanent teeth in these two populations?

a) DMFT
b) DMFS
c) RCI
d) Grainger TPI
e) def

A

A) DMFT

160
Q

Testlet (#157-160): A dental hygienist in a county health department is assigned the task of developing programs for various communities in the county. The 1st targeted community is composed of upper SES, university-educated people, primarily African-American. The 2nd community is made up of middle to low SES, high school-educated persons who are predominantly Caucasian. Neither community is fluoridated and both have a varied age range within their populations. The DMF and def indices are performed during the assessment phase of the program. The dental hygienist decides to implement a sealant program in the 2nd community.

Which of the following represents the “e” in the index used to assess caries experience in the children?

a) Teeth that have been extracted because of caries.
b) Teeth indicated for extraction because of caries.
c) Teeth that have exfoliated.
d) Teeth with enamel hypoplasia.

A

B) TEETH INDICATED FOR EXTRACTION BECAUSE OF CARIES.

National Board Sample Questions (2 decks)

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