SARON Flashcards
1
Q
Definition of crew on standby?
A
FCM designated by an operator (air or private) to remain at a specified location to be available to report for flight duty in 1h or less.
2
Q
Definition of crew on call?
A
FCM designated by an air operator to be available to report for flight duty in 1h or less
3
Q
Definition of MEL?
A
Document that authorizes an operator to operate an aircraft with inoperative equipment under the conditions specified therein, and may specify certain equipment that must be operative.
4
Q
Conditions for an electronic system to comply with record-keeping regulations?
A
- Measures are taken to protect the records against inadvertent loss or destruction and tampering
- Copy of the records can be printed on paper on demand
5
Q
Max duty in 24 consecutive hours? Who can extend it?
A
14 consecutive hours
It can be extended by the Chief Pilot
6
Q
In 704/705 operation, if arrival RWY is forecast to be wet, what are the minimum requirements regarding LDA?
A
LDA must be at least 115% of landing distance required, except if AFM includes specific information about landing distances on wet RWYs.
7
Q
In 705 operation, what training is required for each FCM?
A
Flight training required every 6 months
ACFT surface contamination and fatigue management training required every 12 months
8
Q
What should be included in high altitude training?
A
Physiological phenomena associated with low pressure environment :
- Respiration / Hypoxia
- Duration of consciousness
- Gas expansion / Bubble formation
Factors associated with rapid loss of pressurization :
- Most likely causes
- Noise
- Cabin T° change
- Cabin fogging
- Effects on objects near point of fuselage failure
9
Q
Time of useful consciousness?
A
20,000ft : 5-12 minutes 25,000ft : 2-3 minutes 30,000ft : 45-75 seconds 35,000ft : 30-60 seconds 40,000ft : 10-30 seconds 45,000ft : 12-15 seconds 50,000ft+ : < 12 sec.
TP 13312, Figure 8
10
Q
Maximum speeds in shuttle procedure?
A
Airspeed published in the procedure, or if not published :
- Climb : 310 KIAS
- Descent : same as holding speeds
11
Q
Maximum holding airspeeds?
A
- At or below 6,000ft : 200 KIAS
- 6,001 to 14,000ft (incl.) : 230 KIAS
- At and above 14,001ft : 265 KIAS
12
Q
Advantages of composite materials?
A
- Robust
- Lighter than other materials
- Perfectly follow the contours of other parts
13
Q
Usually, a canard surface produces?
A
Positive lift
14
Q
On a bypass turbofan engine, which type of thrust reverser is mainly used? How does it work?
A
Cascade-type thrust reverser. It diverts a portion of cold gases from the bypass forward.
15
Q
What is flex temp?
A
Also called assumed T°, it is giving the FMC an higher OAT that it really is to reduce the minnimum thrust of a turbine (allowing lower noise, lower consumption and lower maintenance costs) to conduct a safe T/O.
It is also known as a Reduced Thrust Takeoff procedure.
16
Q
What system prevents a reversing propeller from reversing in cruise flight? (on a turboprop)
A
The low/fine pitch stop system. It’s an hydro-mechanical system.
17
Q
When climbing at constant IAS, how does the TAS evolve?
A
TAS is increasing, approx. 2% per 1,000ft
18
Q
In 704 operation, with a turbo-jet aircraft, which wind can you take into account to take the T/O decision?
A
- No more than 50% of HWd
- No less than 150% of XWd
19
Q
What is the final assurance of a safe T/O in case of icing conditions?
A
The pre-takeoff inspection
20
Q
Load factors regarding angle of banks?
A
15° = 1,04 30° = 1,15 45° = 1,41 60° = 2 75° = 3,86
Formula is 1 / cos(a)
21
Q
What happens at critical Mach number? (Mcr)
A
The first show waves appear on the wings
22
Q
What is the purpose of the yaw damper?
A
It is to counteract the Dutch roll
Dutch roll is increased on aircrafts with swept-back wings.
23
Q
What is the operator of an aircraft?
A
The person that has possession of the aircraft as owner, lessee or otherwise.
CAR 101.01
24
Q
Flying a twin-engine aircraft in 705 operation, what conditions allow you to take off if weather is above T/O minima but below landing minima?
A
You need to have planned an alternate aerodrome located within 60 minutes at one-engine inoperative cruise speed.
In the case of 3 or 4 engines aircraft, or if AOC allows to conduct ETOPS, distance is increased to 120 minutes at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.
CAR 705.34
25
In 705, what are the requirements regarding landing distances of the aircraft must be met so the aircraft can be dispatched?
In the case of a turbo-jet aircraft, it must be able to land, at landing weight, within 60% of LDA.
In the case of a prop-driven aircraft, it must be able to land, at landing weight, within 70% of LDA.
This applies to both destination and alternate.
26
Between which FLs is located the NAT MNPSA?
North ATlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace
FL285 to FL420
AIM NAT 1.19.1
27
What is the difference between TCAS I and TCAS II ?
TCAS I provides TAs (traffic advisory) only
TCAS II provides TAs and RAs (vertical plane resolution advisory)
28
What is the cold-soaking phenomenon?
When fuel tanks are in the aircraft's wings, fuel tends to decrease the T° of wing surfaces, such as it is much lower than ambient T°.
This may cause CLEAR ICE to form on both top and bottom of the wings. In case of high relative humidity, it can also create frost.
Drops of 18°C have been observed on surface wings after 2h of flight.
29
What part of the body is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
Retina
30
In 705 operation, how many flight attendants do you need in the flight crew to operate the aircraft?
One per 40 passengers
31
Definition of life-limited part?
A part that may not exceed a specified time or a specified number of operating cycles in service.
32
What are the three levels of autopilot?
- One : roll only
- Two : pitch and roll
- Three : the three axes
33
What is TAWS?
Terrain Awareness and Warning System is a combination of all the systems that help to prevent CFIT.
It includes GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) and EGPWS (Enhanced GPWS).
Three classes of TAWS :
- Class A, the most advanced
- Class B, the standard
- Class C, similar to class B but designed for small aircrafts
34
V1?
Vr?
V2?
V3?
V1 : critical engine failure recognition speed
Vr : rotation speed
V2 : takeoff safety speed
V3 : Flap retraction speed
35
```
Va?
Vb?
Vc?
Vd?
Vh?
```
Va : maneuvring speed / design safety speed
Vb : max gust intensity speed
Vc : cruise speed
Vd : diving speed
Vh : max level flight speed at max continuous power
36
How long is a TDG (Transportation of Dangerous Goods) certificate valid?
24 months
Like every other training certificate
37
Talk to me about Alpha and Beta mode...
Alpha mode is from flight idle to full power. Power lever controls the fuel flow and prop lever controls the RPM and the propeller.
Beta mode is from flight idle to full reverse (incl. ground idle). The power lever controls fuel flow AND pitch directly, reversing it below ground idle.
38
What is an INS?
Inertial Navigation System
It measures the acceleration of the aircraft on all 3 axes.
It finds True North (for system alignment) by a process called Gyrocompassing.
39
In airline operation (705) what is the minimum fuel required for VFR flight?
Fuel to destination + 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
40
When is a high altitude training required?
703/704/705 : for all crew members flying 13,000ft ASL or above, has to be renewed every 3 years
Includes a training about hypoxia
41
What is a Mach tuck and how can it be caused?
Mach tuck is a nose down pitch tendency due to a backward movement of the centre of pressure, resulting from a rearward movement of the shock wave which occurs as an aircraft in transonic flight accelerates beyond its limiting mach number (MMO).
42
Position report in NCA?
South-North : every 5° latitude, including 65°N
East-West : every 10° longitude, including 100°W ; unless you're flying 20° of longitude in less than an hour, then report every 20° longitude
43
In icing conditions, when do you inspect the critical surfaces?
Immediately before T/O
You may takeoff with frost on the underwings due to cold-soaked fuel.
Critical word is « inspection »
CAR 602.11
44
What happens to your ATPL if you fail to renew your IFR rating?
It becomes a CPL.
45
In 704/705, can you accept another 14h duty day if you already had 2 consecutive 14h duty days?
Yes, provided that a 24h crew rest period follows.
| no more than 3 consecutive 12h+ duty days
46
How to react to a comm failure in CVFR?
This is a class B airspace, so :
- leave the airspace (land or shortest route possible)
- squawk 7600
- inform ATC ASAP
47
What is the highest altitude you can fly at, if no oxygen is on board, for a 2h VFR eastbound flight?
9500ft
48
When do pilots must wear their oxygen mask?
If the mask is not a quick-donning : at or above FL250
If the mask is a quick-donning : above FL410
49
When does a FDR is required?
- Multi-engine, turbine-powered aircraft
- MTOW > 12,500lbs (5,700kg)
- 10 passengers or more if manufactured AFTER October 11, 1991
- 20 passengers or more
- Or 705 cargo operation
FDR must be ON from start of the take-off to completion of the landing.
If unserviceable : MEL or no more than 90 days and CVR is serviceable
50
When does a CVR is required?
- Multi-engine, turbine-powered
- 6 passengers or more
- Two pilots are required (by aircraft type certificate or subpart of operation)
CVR must be ON from : electrical power provided to the CVR, to electrical power removed after the flight.
If unserviceable : MEL or no more than 90 days and FDR is serviceable
51
When can you fly without an altitude-alerting system?
- MEL
- for the flight to take the aircraft at the place it will be equipped
- for flight test, PPC or FCM training
- if U/S in flight, until it reaches a place where it can be fixed or replaced
52
Which type(s) of aircraft need a standby attitude indicator?
- Any turbo-jet aircraft operated under 70x
| - Any transport category aircraft
53
What Time free from duty shall an air operator give to a FCM on call?
At least 36 consecutive hours within 7 consecutive days, or
| At least 3 consecutive days within 17 consecutive days
54
In 704, what is the minimum TT a pilot shall have to act as a PIC?
If flight is VFR, 500h
| In flight is IFR, 1200h
55
TORA / TODA / ASDA / LDA
TORA : Take-off Run Available = the RWY
TODA : RWY + Clearway
ASDA : RWY + Stopway
LDA : from threshold to end of RWY
56
What is RVR A?
Visibility at the touchdown zone.
57
What are the requirements to operate a single-engine aircraft in commercial operation in night VFR?
- IFR rating
- Landing light
- Factory-installed turbine engine
- 5 T/O and landings in the previous 6 months
58
What are the requirements for the third artifical horizon?
| required in any turbo-jet 70x operation if MTOW is > 5700kg
- Must be powered from an independant source
- Must be able to operate 30 minutes after total electrical failure
- Must be located on the instrument panel, clearly lisible to any pilot from his/her position.
59
What Time free from duty shall an air operator give to a FCM in 704?
At least :
- 3x 24 consecutive hours within 30 consecutive days
- 13x 24 consecutive hours within 90 consecutive days
60
Which aircrafts are required to have a functioning GPWS on board?
Turbo-jet in 704/705 operations
MTOW > 15,000kg
10 or more passengers
This requirement can be not met if MEL is applicable.
CAR 605.37
61
Which type of airspace, based in the Low Level airspace, can extend upwards intro the High Level airspace?
Terminal Control Areas (TCAs)
62
What are the extinguisher and crash axe requirements in 704/705?
Hand-held fire extinguisher :
- 704 : at least one
- 705 : 2 for 60 pax or less, 3 for 61 to 200 pax, 1 more for each 100 pax above 201.
Crash axe :
- 705 : at least one
63
What are the first aid kit and megaphone requirements in 705?
First aid kit :
- 705 : 1 for 50 pax or less, 2 for 51 to 150 pax, 3 for 151 to 250 pax, 4 for 251 pax or more.
+ 1 emergency medical kit if 100 pax or more
Megaphone :
- 705 : 1 for 60 pax or more, at least one per flight deck, 2 if 100 pax or more
64
What are the experience requirements for ATPL?
- 1500h TT (min. 900h in planes)
- 250h PIC (max 100h PICus), incl. 100h XC incl. 25h Night XC
- 100h Night PIC
- 100h additional XC as PIC (or 200h as SIC)
- 75h instr. (max. 25h in sim)
65
Formula for Mach and SOS?
Mach = TAS / SOS
SOS = 39*sqr(T°K) = 39*sqr(273+T°C)
66
Which elements of the aircraft affect the different stabilities of the aircraft?
Longitudinal stability (around lateral axis) :
- size and position of horizontal stab
- position of C of G relative to C of P
Lateral stability (around longitudinal axis) :
- Dihedral
- Sweepback
- Shielding
Directional stability (around vertical axis) :
- Vertical tail surface
- Sweepback
67
Advantages/Disadvantages of a sweepback wing?
Advantages :
- higher critical Mach number
Disadvantages :
- more sensible to Dutch roll
- less efficient at low speeds (compensed by flaps and slats)
68
How to prevent/react to tailplane stall in icing conditions?
- If equipped, use the de-icing equipment several times
- Use minimum flaps setting
- If occuring shortly after flap extension, immediately retract them to previous setting
- Nose-down movements are to be done softly
69
Which gradient of climb must be available above 400ft AGL?
- Two-engines : 1,2%
- Three-engines : 1,5%
- Four-engines : 1,7%
70
From where can the magna stick be reached?
From the wing's underside.
71
What are the two engine instruments to monitor during engine start on a turbine engine?
ITT and N2 (high-press compressor).
72
In commercial air service, in uncontrolled airspace, how is the MOCA defined?
Standards 72x :
- in IFR, MOCA is to be 2000ft above the highest obstacle in a 10 miles horizontal distance from the centreline of route.
- if in VMC, this can be reduced to 1000ft/3 miles
73
Give one advantage of the axial flow compressor
Among other, it enables the engine to have a relatively small frontal area.
(think of the 732 engine)
74
Definition of EPR
Engine Pressure Ratio :
turbine discharge pressure divided by pressure at compressor inlet.
It is proportional to the thrust developed by the engine.
75
What is a Hung start?
Condition in which the engine lights up but fails to accelerate to idle.
It can lead to a Hot start.
76
Definition of barometric pressure
Also called atmospheric pressure, it is the weight of the column of air above one point.
Station pressure is the atm pressure at the station.
77
Definition of MSL pressure
It is the station pressure reduced to MSL, assuming the imaginary column of air between station and MSL is at the mean T° of the last 12h.
78
Definition of altimeter setting
It is the station pressure reduced to MSL, assuming the imaginary column of air between station and MSL is at ISA conditions.
79
What is a balanced field T/O?
It is a T/O at which the Accelerate-Stop distance equals the Accelerate-Go distance.
It is the V1 at which ASD = AGD.
80
What should you do to maintain Long Range Cruise?
As the weight of the aircraft decreases, decrease power and IAS.
If you keep the same airspeed, the gust load will be greater.
81
Formula for Specific Ground Range
SGR = GS / Fuel Flow
82
Formula for Specific Air Range
SAR = TAS / Fuel Flow
83
What are the 3 types of hydroplanning?
Dynamic hydroplanning is when standing water (0,1 inch) on the RWY lifts the tire off.
Viscous hydroplanning is when a thin film of water (0,001 inch) isn't penetrated by the tire, which rolls over it. Requires a smooth-acting surface, generally happens at slow speeds.
Reverted-rubber hydroplanning is when hard-braking causes the tire to lock and skid, water heats and converts to steam, which keeps the tire off the RWY.
84
Formula for hydroplanning?
Horne's formula :
GS of HP in kts = 9*sqr(tire press in psi)
85
In a gas turbine engine, which system is conceived to prevent a compressor stall?
The compressor bleed valve
86
What is the main function of an Electronic Engine Control (EEC) or an Electronic Control Unit (ECU)?
To regulate engine fuel flow to maintain specific power settings as flight and environmental conditions change
87
What would be indicated by a bleed leak warning light?
Pneumatic air bleed leak, which could result in a fire within the aircraft if left unattended.
88
How are jet pumps activated?
By the high pressure fuel, coming from HP fuel pump.
89
What is necessary for the dihedral to restore the « wings-level » position?
A sideslip movement towards the « dropped » wing
90
Definition of LIMITING Mach Number
Maximum operating speed of the aircraft in relation to the speed of sound.
91
What are the roll spoilers?
Installed on upper wing surfaces, these panels assist the ailerons in obtaining max roll rates / enhance roll authority.
92
What is the best reaction to a vertical windshear on T/O?
Full power + increase angle of attack
To achieve an airspeed just above stick shaker
93
Difference between the bends and the chokes?
Bends = pain caused by nitrogen bubbles in the joint spaces, generally associated w/ decompression sickness
Chokes = nitrogen bubbles forming in the smaller blood vessels of the lungs and in the tissue of the trachea
94
What are the four areas of the body that are the most sensitive to the mechanical effect of trapped gas?
Middle ear, sinuses, teeth, gastrointestinal tract
95
On a turn and slip indicator, which kind of shown turn is related to the greatest angle of bank?
A slipping turn.
96
How to react to a comm failure during open RNAV STAR before receiving vectors?
- Delete heading leg at DTW
- Initiate an auto-turn at DTW and FACF
- intercept final approach course for a straight-in approach
97
What is the main purpose of wing GROUND spoilers?
To kill the lift (and increase induced drag)
98
Definition of engine bypass ratio
Ratio between MASS of the air drawn through the fan disk that bypasses combustion chamber and MASS of air passing through CC.
99
Definition of FMS
On-board computer that gives the pilot numerous informations about their flight
100
Requirements for fuel flow meter
- The fuel must flow through the meter AND through the bypass of the meter.
- It must be blocked
(Maybe old CARs?)
101
What is the purpose of the torque motor on a gyromagnetic remote indicating compass?
To make the DG to precess.
102
When you see RNAV(X) or RNP(X) what does (X) mean?
It's the distance of accuracy in NM to be maintained 95% of the time.
103
What is an effect of the anti-skid system?
It increases the stopping distance.
