SASP 2020 Flashcards
A 12- year old girl has recurrent UTIs. Physical exam is normal. An US shows a large thickened bladder wall and bilateral hydroureteronephrosis. A VCUG demonstrates no VUR and a large PVR. The next step is:
A. MAG-3 renogram B. MRI scan of lumbosacral spine C. Urethral pressure profile D. Uroflow with EMG E. Cystoscopy and urethral dilation
D. Uroflow with EMG
Profound dysfunctional voiding can be quite severe with the presentation of non-neurogenic neurogenic bladder (Hinman-Allen syndrome). The assessment of dyssynergic voiding with uroflow/EMG should identify the etiology. Although invasive urodynamics and MRI scan of the spine may be indicated, these would be second-order evaluations after failed management or when associated with other symptoms of potential spinal cord tethering. Certainly, more invasive procedures such as cystoscopy and urethral dilation will not address this functional issue. The presence of hydroureteronephrosis is not due to upper tract urinary obstruction; therefore, a MAG-3 renal scan is not indicated.
An early manifestation of septic shock is:
A. bradycardia B. respiratory alkalosis C. high output renal failure D. decreased cardiac output E. decrease in plasma norepinephrine
B. respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis is a very early sign of septic shock and is caused by the initial tachypnea stimulated by the sepsis. As hypoperfusion occurs, metabolic acidosis develops. Tachycardia, oliguria, increased cardiac output, and increased plasma norepinephrine occur later in septic shock.
A four-year-old boy with PUV has a vesicostomy. Serum creatinine is 0.6 mg/dL. Ultrasound shows minimal hydronephrosis. Videourodynamics show a bladder capacity of 30 mL with a pressure of 14 cm H2O when leakage occurs from the vesicostomy with no reflux. Undiversion is considered. The best management is resection of the posterior urethral valves and:
A. ileal augmentation cystoplasty B. ileal augmentation with appendicovesicostomy C. bladder cycling via the vesicostomy D. primary closure of the vesicostomy E. autoaugmentation cystoplasty
D. primary closure of the vesicostomy
There was at one time concern that a cutaneous vesicostomy caused permanent loss of bladder volume and compliance. However, recent studies show that it does not significantly affect either, and that in fact, the bladder cycles via a properly created vesicostomy. Preoperative videourodynamics showing a small bladder capacity do not predict eventual functional bladder capacity. Approximately 75% of children will have normal bladder function after vesicostomy closure. The need for bladder augmentation is more related to the effects of the primary pathological condition on the detrusor. Augmentation cystoplasty may be needed after undiversion in patients with PUV, based on the effect of the primary obstruction on long-term detrusor function. The eventual need for augmentation should be assessed with sequential follow-up after the vesicostomy has been closed.
Patients with VHL syndrome most frequently have:
A. renal AML B. cafe-au-lait spots C. glioblastomas D. thyroid carcinoma E. retinal angiomas
E. retinal angiomas
Patients with VHL syndrome may have hemangioblastomas of the cerebellum, RCCs, and cystadenomas of the epididymis. The diagnosis, however, can often be made most easily with inspection of the retina, with identification of angiomas. Renal angiomyolipomas are commonly seen in tuberous sclerosis complex. Thyroid carcinoma can be seen more commonly in patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome. Cafe-au-lait spots are pathognomonic of neurofibromatosis.
A 55-year-old woman on warfarin for recurrent pulmonary emboli has cystitis. The drug least likely to cause enhanced anticoagulation is:
A. tetracycline B. nitrofurantoin C. ciprofloxacin D. trimethoprim E. sulfamethoxazole
B. nitrofurantoin
All of the following drugs may enhance the hypoprothrombinemic response to oral anticoagulants: allopurinol, aminoglycosides, aminosalicylic acid, chloramphenicol, cimetidine, ethacrynic acid, fluoroquinolones, indomethacin, isoniazid, metronidazole, miconazole, nalidixic acid, oxyphenbutazone, phenylbutazone, propoxyphene, salicylates, sulfonamides, tetracyclines, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, and Vitamin E. Nitrofurantoin does not interact with warfarin. The semi-synthetic beta-lactam penicillins, such as carbenicillin, ticarcillin, mezlocillin, and piperacillin, may produce coagulation defects at high doses, especially in the presence of renal impairment. Iodinated contrast material may also produce transient abnormalities in clotting. Broad-spectrum antimicrobials, particularly when administered orally, may disrupt the gut flora and alter Vitamin K synthesis. Drugs such as allopurinol and metronidazole inhibit the hepatic metabolism of oral anticoagulants. Drugs such as ethacrynic acid, nalidixic acid, and sulfonamides displace oral anticoagulants from proteins and increase the amount of circulating anticoagulant.
A 55-year-old woman has flank pain, fever, and malaise. Her serum creatinine is 1.6 mg/dL. Abdominal CT scan is shown. The next step is:
A. long-term antibiotics B. percuatneous drainage C. PCNL D. nephrectomy E. nephroureterectomy
D. nephrectomy
The clinical presentation and CT scan are most consistent with xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis (XGP). The CT scan demonstrates the presence of a calculus and severe distortion of the renal parenchyma. Lipid laden macrophages are commonly identified in renal tissue and urine. Such cells are not seen in the urine of patients with pyelonephritis. In this case, complete removal of the kidney is warranted. Long-term antibiotics or PCNL is not the best solution. There is no abscess fluid to drain. Although RCC and urothelial carcinoma have been reported to occur in such cases, they are rare and the clinical picture is most consistent with an inflammatory, not a neoplastic, disorder. Nephroureterectomy is not indicated.
One month after L5 laminectomy, a 30-year-old woman develops lower extremity weakness, a PVR of 300 mL, and an intermittent urinary stream. Videourodynamics demonstrates detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia. The most likely explanation is:
A. pseudodyssynergia B. recurrent lumbar disc herniation C. cauda equina syndrome D. undiagnosed MS E. permanent nerve injury from laminectomy
D. undiagnosed MS
Detrusor external sphincter dyssynergia (DESD) is a urodynamic finding that is strictly found in injuries of the suprasacral spinal cord. Pseudodyssynergia refers to a spike on the electromyography (EMG) tracing during cystometry that occurs from an attempt to inhibit an involuntary detrusor contraction. This is a voluntary contraction of the external sphincter. Since the sacral spinal cord begins at spinal column levels T12 to L1 and terminates in the cauda equina at spinal column level L2, recurrent lumbar disc herniation, cauda equina syndrome, and permanent nerve injury from the laminectomy are not associated with DESD. Of all the choices, multiple sclerosis is the only process that is associated with an insult to the suprasacral spinal cord. In addition, multiple sclerosis often presents in young females.
A six-week-old boy was born at 27 weeks’ gestation. His postnatal course has been complicated by respiratory distress, bronchopulmonary dysplasia, and a patent ductus arteriosus. He has required long-term diuretic therapy with furosemide. A KUB reveals calcifications in the mid- and upper abdominal regions consistent with bilateral renal calculi. The most likely mechanism for the formation of the stones is:
A. hypercalciuria B. hyperuricosuria C. obstrufctive uropathy D. type 1 RTA E. type 2 RTA
A. hypercalciuria
Renal calculi occur in very low birth weight pre-term infants with a history of severe ventilatory problems and bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Many of these infants require long-term treatment with diuretic agents to manage heart failure. The diuretic agent used most often is furosemide, which increases the rate of urinary calcium excretion up to ten times normal. Chronic hypercalciuria from furosemide therapy has been shown to result in nephrocalcinosis and calculus formation. Loss of calcium from chronic administration of furosemide may lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism and bone changes. Treatment includes switching from furosemide to thiazide diuretics. Other etiologies of stone formation do not occur with increased frequency in premature infants requiring diuretic therapy. Hyperuricosuria is associated with gouty diathesis and may predispose to uric acid and calcium oxalate stones. RTA is an electrolyte disturbance due to impaired renal hydrogen ion excretion (type 1) and impaired bicarbonate resorption (type 2), but is not a common etiology for stones in premature infants on diuretic treatment.
The vascular supply of the omentum is most reliably based upon which artery:
A. splenic B. gastroduodenal C. right gastroepiploic D. short gastric E. left gastroepiploic
C. right gastroepiploic
The celiac axis provides the arterial blood supply to the stomach through: 1) the left gastric artery which supplies the lesser curvature, 2) the hepatic artery which gives off the right gastric artery, which also supplies the lesser curvature, and the gastroduodenal artery which supplies the antrum and duodenum before giving off the right gastroepiploic artery, and 3) the splenic artery which gives off the short gastric arteries, which supply the fundus and cardia, and the left gastroepiploic artery. The right and left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature and the omentum. The omentum can be used as a pedicle flap. The pedicle can be based on either the right or left gastroepiploic artery; however, the caliber of the right gastroepiploic artery is usually larger, thus favoring its use.
Calcium reabsorption induced by parathyroid hormone and Vitamin D occurs primarily in the:
A. proximal convoluted tubule B. cortical collecting tubule C. medullary collecting tubule D. distal tubule E. thin descending limb of Henle
D. distal tubule
The site of action of both parathyroid hormone (PTH) and Vitamin D is on the distal tubule. Calcium resorption occurs in this region of the kidney architecture under hormonal influence. Calcium is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule as well, but the difference is that it is not under the influence of PTH. Similarly, approximately 15% of filtered calcium resorption occurs in the thick ascending loop of Henle that occurs passively. The cortical and medullary collecting tubules, as well as the loop of Henle, are not responsible for calcium resorption and homeostasis. Aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion in the cortical collecting tubule. The properties of the medullary collecting tubule are similar to the cortical collecting tubule with respect to the principle and intercalated cells responsible for NaCl reabsorption and acid secretion, respectively. However, the medullary collecting tubule differs from the cortical collecting tubule with respect to its water and urea permeabilities and the greater ability of the medullary collecting tubule to concentrate urine under the influence of ADH. There is limited active transport of any kind within the thin descending limb of Henle; however, there is high permeability to water.
A 39-year-old woman has dysuria and frequency. Urinalysis shows 30 WBC/hpf and midstream urine culture shows 103 CFU/mL coagulase-negative Staphylococci. The next step is:
A. phenazopyridine B. repeat midstream culture C. urine culture for mycobacteria D. antimicrobial therapy E. catheterized urine culture
D. antimicrobial therapy
The standard definition of significant bacteriuria for a clean voided urine is > 105 CFU/mL of a uropathogen. This criterion has stood the test of time for screening and epidemiological studies and for entering patients in clinical trials. However, there are several important exceptions to its rigid use in clinical practice and one is in patients with a pyuria/dysuria syndrome. In these patients, a lower colony count may represent significant bacteriuria. Certain bacterial species such as coagulase-negative Staphylococci grow slowly in urine and significant infections may only have counts of 103 CFU/mL. Since the patient has a symptomatic, culture-proven UTI, treatment with phenazopyridine alone would be inappropriate. Repeat urine culture (midstream or catheterized) is not indicated. Mycobacteria culture is indicated only in sterile pyuria.
A 48-year-old man undergoes radical cystectomy with a Studer orthotopic neobladder. Three months postoperatively, he has urinary frequency and day and nighttime incontinence. A videourodynamic study (image shown) demonstrates a capacity of 300 mL, detrusor pressure at capacity is 10 cm H2O, Valsalva LPP is 130 cm H2O, and PVR is 75 mL. The next step is:
A. observation B. alpha-blocker therapy C. CIC every two to three hours D. placement of an AUS augmentation of his orthotopic diversion
A. observation
The length of time postoperatively after orthotopic diversion influences continence results. The image demonstrates a smooth walled bladder without reflux. The reservoir capacity can and typically does increase over the first six to twelve months, and even longer in patients with anti-refluxing afferent limbs (e.g., Studer type). CIC will decrease incontinence but too frequent CIC will prevent the reservoir from increasing its capacity over time. Alpha-blocker therapy may relax the proximal urethra and exacerbate incontinence. At this point, it is premature to perform interventions such as sphincter placement as well as augmentation.
A 14-year-old girl has primary amenorrhea. She is in the 25th percentile for height and has a webbed neck. Her karyotype is 45,XO. The most likely genitourinary abnormality is:
A. renal agenesis B. horseshoe kidney C. VUR D. UPJ obstruction E. vaginal agenesis
B. horseshoe kidney
This patient has Turner Syndrome. These girls can be recognized by their typical physical findings including short stature, webbed neck, and shield chest. Girls with the 45,XO karyotype usually exhibit all the stigmata of the syndrome. Patients with the 45,XO/46,XY karyotype are at increased risk for dysgerminoma and gonadoblastoma and require gonadectomy. Horseshoe kidney occurs with increased prevalence in patients with Turner syndrome and a renal ultrasound is warranted. VUR, renal agenesis and vaginal agenesis are not associated with Turner syndrome. UPJ obstruction may occur in association with horseshoe kidney, but is not seen with increased frequency in Turner syndrome.
A 58-year-old man has incontinence one year following radical prostatectomy. Urodynamic evaluation demonstrates normal bladder capacity and no detrusor overactivity. At 250 mL, Valsalva maneuver increases bladder pressure to 150 cm H2O without evidence of urine leakage. The next step is:
A. remove catheter and repeat Valsalva maneuver B. repeat urodynamic study with SPT C. uroflowmetry D. retrograde urethrogram E. cystoscopy
A. remove catheter and repeat Valsalva maneuver
The patient most likely has stress incontinence. The catheter could be occluding the bladder neck, preventing demonstration of stress incontinence, and the Valsalva should be repeated after catheter removal. A repeat urodynamic study with a suprapubic catheter would be overly aggressive and is not necessary since the bladder capacity is known to be normal and there is no evidence of detrusor overactivity. Cystoscopy and retrograde urethrogram would demonstrate an anastomotic stricture, but would not demonstrate stress incontinence. Likewise, uroflowmetry is unlikely to add additional information when a pressure-flow study has been performed. If stress urinary incontinence is demonstrated with catheter removal, and the patient is interested in proceeding with surgical intervention, cystoscopy should then be done to evaluate his anastomosis.
A 28-year-old man with Kallmann syndrome is treated with hCG and FSH injections over two years. His serum testosterone and FSH levels are normal. His semen volume is 1.0 mL, sperm count is six million sperm/mL, and sperm motility is 90%. Well-timed sexual intercourse has not resulted in pregnancy for his wife, whose evaluation is normal. The next step is:
A. intrauterine insemination B. color doppler scrotal ultrasound C. ICSI D. TRUS E. testis biopsy
A. intrauterine insemination
Intrauterine insemination (IUI) is an effective treatment option for couples when the male partner has a total motile sperm count (ejaculate volume x sperm concentration x % sperm motility) greater than 5 million. IUI involves placing processed sperm into the uterine cavity via a catheter inserted through the cervix and into the uterus. This approach allows the sperm to bypass the vaginal fluid and cervical mucous, and thus, higher numbers of motile sperm are able to reach the fallopian tubes, where fertilization occurs. Semen volume and sperm production are commonly limited in men with Kallmann syndrome, because prostate, seminal vesicle, and testicular size are often decreased as a result of this condition. However, sperm quality tends to be completely normal. In vitro fertilization (IVF) and intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) are not indicated at this point. Screening scrotal ultrasound is not indicated in infertile male patients without physical exam findings needing further investigation, and testis biopsy will not be helpful since the patient is not azoospermic. TRUS is useful to evaluate for suspected ejaculatory duct obstruction, which is usually associated with low ejaculate volume (< 1.0 mL) azoospermia. Ejaculatory duct obstruction is not associated with Kallmann syndrome.
The parameter that most accurately measures renal function in a patient with an ileal conduit is:
A. creatinine clearance B. urinary concentrating ability C. fractional excretion of sodium D. acid loading E. proteinuria
C. fractional excretion of sodium
Measuring renal function in patients with intestinal diversion may be difficult. Most parameters of renal function will be affected by the intestinal absorption of various substances in the urine, including creatinine and urea (affecting acid loading tests), as well as secretion of alkalinizing substances and alteration in the osmotic content affecting urinary concentrating ability, so creatinine clearance and proteinuria will not be accurate measures. Sodium handling in ileal segments is not markedly altered as ammonium substitutes for sodium in the Na/H antiporter in the bowel lumen.
A four-year-old boy has renal failure due to membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. He has undergone a bilateral orchiopexy and proximal hypospadias repair as an infant. He is at greatest risk for development of:
A. gonadoblastoma B. NSGCT C. sertoli cell tumor D. wilms' tumor E. RCC
D. Wilms’ tumor
A number of recognizable syndromes are associated with an increased incidence of Wilms’ tumor. Three syndromes that are well known to be at high risk for Wilms’ tumor development include: Denys-Drash syndrome (DDS - male pseudohermaphroditism manifested by proximal hypospadias and cryptorchidism, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, and nephroblastoma), Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (macroglossia, nephromegaly, and hepatomegaly), and WAGR syndrome (Wilms’ tumor, aniridia, gonadoblastoma, and intellectual disability). In patients with DDS, the kidneys need to be monitored carefully and removed as renal failure occurs. With DDS, there is no increased risk of RCC, Sertoli cell tumor or NSGCT of the testis.
Per Wieder’s - can get up to 40% risk of gonadoblastoma in DDS and Frasier syndrome (streak gonads, renal failure); just not as high as Wilms’ tumor
A six-year-old boy with left scrotal pain has a tender indurated epididymis and normal testes. Urinalysis is normal. An ultrasound shows normal testes with Doppler evidence of blood flow, an enlarged, hypervascular left epididymis, and normal kidneys. The next step is:
A. scrotal exploration B. radionuclide testicular scan C. VCUG D. oral antibiotic therapy E. NSAIDS
E. NSAIDS
This boy most likely has torsion of the left appendix testis or epididymis resulting in reactive epididymitis. This does not require surgical exploration when the diagnosis is clear. Considering the age of the patient, the presentation is very strongly consistent with torsion of an appendix testis, and testicular scan is unlikely to add any useful information. In cases of epididymitis in this age group, antibiotics are not needed as bacterial epididymitis is rare. The most appropriate treatment includes NSAIDS as well as rest and scrotal support. A VCUG is not useful given the normal kidneys on ultrasound and absence of infection.
A three-year-old boy lost one-half of his scrotal skin after a dog attack two hours ago. His testicles, penis, and urethra are spared. The next steps are tetanus immunization, antibiotics, debridement, and:
A. split-thickness skin graft B. full-thickness skin graft C. placement of testicles in the thigh D. scrotal closure with drainage E. secondary scrotal closure
D. scrotal closure with drainage
The best choice for management is a tetanus immunization (if he is not up to date), antibiotics, debridement, and primary closure with drainage. Skin grafts and placement of the testicles in the thigh are seldom required when half of the scrotal skin remains. Secondary closure for such a recent injury is unnecessary. If grafting is required, a meshed split-thickness graft is preferable because the meshing allows exudate to escape and gives improved cosmesis. Thigh pouches are rarely required as wet to dry dressings of the exposed gonads can be effective until reconstruction is feasible.
In a unilateral partially obstructed kidney, the aspect of renal function that is usually preserved is:
A. urinary concentration B. urinary dilution C. ammonia excretion D. potassium reabsorption E. sodium reabsorption
B. urinary dilution
Impairment of all aspects of renal function, including urinary concentration, ammonia excretion, potassium reabsorption, and sodium reabsorption are seen in unilateral ureteral obstruction. Only urinary dilution is not affected by chronic unilateral ureteral obstruction in humans.
A 23-year-old man underwent left transscrotal orchiectomy demonstrating a mixed NSGCT (70% embryonal carcinoma, 30% seminoma) with lymphovascular invasion. Tumor markers and metastatic evaluation are negative. In addition to RPLND and excision of the left spermatic cord and left scrotal scar, treatment should include:
A. observation
B. chemotherapy
C. left inguinal sentinel lymph node biopsy
D. left superficial inguinal lymph node dissection
E. XRT to left hemiscrotum and left inguinal lymph nodes
A. observation
A meta-analysis including 206 cases with scrotal violation found that the risk of local recurrence increased from 0.4% for patients treated with inguinal orchiectomy to 2.9% with scrotal violation, but there was no difference in systemic recurrence or survival rates. As such, excision of the scrotal scar may be considered at the time of RPLND and removal of the spermatic cord remnant, with no additional treatment necessary. Specifically, prophylactic (given the negative metastatic evaluation) inguinal lymph node biopsy, dissection, or XRT would not be necessary. Likewise, scrotal violation during orchiectomy would not itself represent an indication for systemic chemotherapy.
A 45-year-old man with a history of recurrent UTIs has two days of perineal discomfort, dysuria, and urinary frequency. Urinalysis reveals bacteriuria and pyuria. Physical examination reveals an enlarged prostate. He finished his last course of antibiotics one week ago. Before antibiotic treatment is restarted, the culture that should be obtained is:
A. midstream urine B. urine by suprapubic aspiration C. expressed prostatic fluid D. pre- and post-prostatic massage voided urine and prostatic fluid E. initial voided urine
A. midstream urine
This man likely has chronic bacterial prostatitis, which is usually manifested by recurrent UTIs with the same organism. While lower urinary tract bacterial localization is helpful in identifying the prostate as a nidus of infection, localization is useless in the presence of bacteriuria, with all isolation specimens having bacterial growth due to contamination. This man is currently symptomatic with documented bacteriuria, and therefore, should not undergo localization testing. In this situation, preferred treatment is to obtain a midstream urine culture and treat with nitrofurantoin. Nitrofurantoin will clear the urine of bacteriuria and have little to no effect on intraprostatic bacteria. Once the urine has been documented to be sterile, usually in three to five days, bacterial localization studies with initial voided, midstream, expressed prostatic secretions, and post-prostatic massage urinary specimens should be obtained. These tests will allow confirmation of chronic bacterial prostatitis. For chronic prostatitis caused by E. coli, four to six week treatment with fluoroquinolones is superior to the alternative three month therapy with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole; however, the risk of fluoroquinolone use should be discussed with the patient. Approximately 20% of the patients will fail the initial therapy and a rescue treatment with a second cycle of therapy with an alternative quinolone has been found to rescue the majority of the relapsing patients.
A 23-year-old asymptomatic woman has a palpable right-sided abdominal mass with serum creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL. CT scan is shown. The next step is:
A. follow up CT scan in 3 months B. CT-guided biopsy C. angioembolization D. right nephrectomy E. neoadjuvant XRT followed by radical nephrectomy
C. angioembolization is incorrect
This patient has a massive fat-containing tumor of the right kidney. The primary differential diagnosis is between an angiomyolipoma (AML) and a retroperitoneal liposarcoma. The CT scan demonstrates the tumor arising from within the kidney, not the retroperitoneum, and the tumor does not “push” the kidney as is characteristic of the imaging findings in liposarcoma. Thus, the diagnosis is a very large AML, and with these characteristic radiological findings, a biopsy is not necessary. Given the large size of this AML, it has a significant risk for hemorrhage, particularly in a young woman of childbearing age, so observation is not an appropriate management strategy. Selective renal arterial embolization is the treatment of choice in many instances of AML, especially in the acute situation of spontaneous hemorrhage. In most cases of massive AML, the tumor size precludes effective embolization and the risk of spontaneous hemorrhage persists despite embolization. Thus, surgical resection (or a partial nephrectomy, if technically feasible) is a better choice. In this case, because of the large tumor size and anatomical location, a total nephrectomy is the likely outcome. Neoadjuvant radiation prior to resection may be recommended if this were a liposarcoma, but as AML is a benign tumor, this is not indicated.
The stone composition most resistant to fragmentation by SWL is:
A. uric acid B. struvite C. calcium oxalate dihydrate D. brushite E. hydroxyapatite
D. brushite
Brushite, cystine, and calcium oxalate monohydrate stones are all fairly resistant to SWL fragmentation; however, of these types, brushite is the most resistant. Uric acid is less resistant to fragmentation, and struvite is the most fragile. Calcium oxalate dihydrate and hydroxyapatite are more fragile than brushite to SWL.
Brushite stones are calcium hydrogen phosphate