Saudi Prometric Flashcards

(452 cards)

1
Q

1- Every patient complain from chest pain came to ER the doctors order
Troponin level , This considering as ?
A. Overuse
B. Misuse
C. Negligence

A

B

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2
Q

2- Patient with measles (rubella) is in airborne precaution nurse should
be were ?
A. Gown
B. Gloves
C. Face mask
D. Face Shilled

A

C

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3
Q

3-Researcher nurse give all participants ID band and matching them with
personal information?
A-Justice
B-Beneficence
C-Autonomy
D. Confidentially

A

D

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4
Q

4- What is the first principle that empowers nurses’ decision-making?
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Fidelity

A

B

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5
Q

5- What is the first ethical principle should the nurse attention when
make NCP?
A. Justice
B. Non-maleficence
C. Beneficence
D. Autonomy

A

D. Autonomy

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6
Q

6- A nurse forced a patient who wished to take a one-day postoperative
rest to take a walk. Which ethical principle did the nurse violate?
A. Justice
B. Beneficence
C. Autonomy
D. Nonmaleficence

A

C

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7
Q

7- A nurse insists to obtain urine sample despite patient refuse. Which
ethical principle for patient?
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Nonmaleficence

A

B

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8
Q

8- Health education to patient after prostatic surgery?
A. Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml
B. Avoid carry heavy things for 6 weeks

A

B

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9
Q

9- Scenario.. patient with signs of urinary tract infection (urgency ,
frequency,….)Treatment will be?
A. Anti fungal
B. Antibiotic
C. Antimicrobial

A

B. Antibiotic

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10
Q

10- Mother is depressed and tell the nurse that her son is dead in
swimming pool and she is responsible about that. What should the nurse
do?
A. You are right
B. Show Sympathy
C. Repeat mother words to clarify
D. Empathy

A

D. Empathy

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11
Q

11- Where to place an enema bag for patient?
A. Below patient level
B. Same patient level
C. Above 20 cm

A

C. Above 20 cm

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12
Q

12- The nurse is caring for a patient who has abdominal pain last three
days. The nurse teaches the patient about the most likely active-
producing foods. What are the foods that are mostly useful to produce
laxative?
A. Cheese, pasta and eggs
B. Rice, eggs, and lean meat
C. Bran(Oats), figs, and chocolate
D. Cabbage, bananas, and soda

A

C. Bran(Oats), figs, and chocolate

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13
Q

13- Spoon nails due to?
A. Zinc deficiency
B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. Vitamin E deficiency
D. Vitamin B deficiency

A

A. Zinc deficiency

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14
Q

14- A nurse forced a patient who wished to take a one-day postoperative
rest to take a walk. Which ethical principle did the nurse violate?
A. Justice
B. Beneficence
C. Autonomy
D. Nonmaleficence

A

C. Autonomy

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15
Q

A patient has an operation surgery on his left knee. And the scrub
nurse did all Preoperative Preparation Steps. But She sterilized and
cleaned right knee. Which of the following describes the nurse’s actions?
A. Negligence
B. Malpractice
C. Assault
B. Battery

A

B. Malpractice

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16
Q

What causes cyanosis in adult extremities?
A . High altitude
B. Room with cold temperature

A

A . High altitude

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17
Q

When can breastfeeding jaundice develop with a latent onset?
A. 2 - 4 weeks
B. 4 - 7 weeks
C. After month
D. After 3 months

A

A. 2 - 4 weeks

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18
Q

A patient woman whose husband died of an untreated illness (cancer).
The nurse provides care and support patient. What is the type of
support?
A.Counseling
B. Participate

A

A.Counseling

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19
Q

When occurs late jaundice related to breast feeding?
A. 1 to 2 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. More than 3 month

A

C. 10 days

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20
Q

What is the important nutrition during pregnancy?
A. High mercury fish (tuna, marlin, king mackerel)
B. Undercooked or raw fish
C. Vitamin B9
D. Raw eggs

A

C. Vitamin B9

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21
Q

What is complication of rheumatic fever?
A. Aortic Valve Stenosis
B. Cyanosis
C. Convulsion
D. Heart damage

A

A. Aortic Valve Stenosis

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22
Q

The nurse begins a morning shift and has patients in the waiting
room. ( see the table)
1. Patient with hypothyroidism and heart rate 54
2. Patient with hyperthyroidism heart rate 95
3. Patient with Cushing’s syndrome
4. Patient with COPD and saturation 95% in room air
Which patient has priority to see the doctor first?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

A. One

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23
Q

Patient have depression, physician advice to procedure ECT. What is
this procedure?
A. Involves a brief electrical stimulation of the brain while the patient is
under anesthesia
B. A Medical procedure that involves passing a mild electric current through your
heart.

A

A. Involves a brief electrical stimulation of the brain while the patient is
under anesthesia

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24
Q

What is the most common indication of ECT?
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B. Manic episodes
C. Schizophrenia - Given
D. Major depression

A

D. Major depression

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25
The nurse assess low of consciousness for patient after surgery, she asked patient about name and he give her correct answer then she asked about place, time but patient cannot answer, what should nurse do? A. Ask patient again later B. Notify the surgeon
B. Notify the surgeon
26
A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes who has a blood glucose level of 30mg/dl after a meal. What is the nurse's priority action? A. Measure the blood glucose level again after 30 minutes B. Notify the physician immediately C. Ask another nurse (or head nurse) to measure the blood glucose level
B. Notify the physician immediately
27
Doctor inserts for patient subclavian catheter (CVL) in right subclavian vein sudden patient developed tachycardia destitution no back flow blood from CVL. What is the expected complication? A. Pneumothorax B. Pulmonary embolism C. Hemothorax
A. Pneumothorax
28
Doctor, after inserting a subclavian catheter for the patient, blood flow is observed from the catheter, and the patient is experiencing respiratory restlessness. What is the expected problem with the patient? A. Right side failure B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pulmonary embolism
29
Doctor after inserting a subclavian catheter for the patient, blood flow is observed from the catheter, and the patient is experiencing respiratory restlessness. What is the expected problem with the patient? A. Right side failure B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary embolism D. Pneumothorax
NOTE: If option D is not available, we choose C
30
What recommendations should parents follow for a child with hyperthyroidism? A. Providing a calm and quite environment B. Limiting activities
A. Providing a calm and quite environment
31
Patient came to ER after accident the vital signs all stable and conscious but expected has increased the pressure (ICP). Which of the following first indicate ICP? A. Change in consciousness (loss of consciousness) B. Unreactive pupil C. Bradycardia D. Depress respiratory
A. Change in consciousness (loss of consciousness)
32
Patient for cardiac catheterization. What is the purpose of this procedure? A. Check cardiac pressure B. Check the O2 in heart C. Pulmonary embolism by cardiologist. D. Pneumothorax
A. Check cardiac pressure
33
The nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which nursing intervention is priority to decrease the client’s anxiety? A. Keeping the client warm B. Encouraging the client to increase activity C. Providing a calm, restful environment D. Placing the client in semi-fowler’s position
C. Providing a calm, restful environment
34
Patient, who has experienced a stroke, presents with weakness in the right side of the body affecting the shoulder, pelvic, and knee. Which of the following options would be appropriate for the patient? A. Dependent ambulation with assistance. B. Independent wheelchair use. C. Independent ambulation for short distances with the use of an assistive device.
C. Independent ambulation for short distances with the use of an assistive device
35
Which of the following is the appropriate feeding method for a baby with a cleft lip? A. Exclusive breastfeeding B. Exclusive formula feeding C. Combination of breastfeeding and formula feeding
C. Combination of breastfeeding and formula feeding
36
A 36-weeks pregnant woman is experiencing irregular contractions and has a closed cervix. What would be the appropriate advice during contractions? A. Drinking warm milk B. Encourage in regular walking C. Monitoring fetal heart movement
B. Encourage in regular walking
37
The child has undergone hypospadias repair, where would be the appropriate location of the drainage urine bag? A. Above bladder level B. Below bladder level C. At the level of the bladder
B. Below bladder level
38
In the year 1930, children had developed immunity against measles without being vaccinated, and as a result, the infection rate among children decreased. What is type of immunity? A. Artificial B. Passive C. Herd D. Innate
D. Innate
39
Which deficiency could be the cause ? B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Calcium
D. Calcium
40
What should the nurse do? A. Remove the restrain every 2 hours B. Remove the restrain when the parents are with the child C. Put mittens.
A. Remove the restrain every 2 hours
41
The doctor ordered a blood sample from the patient. A nurse wants to insert an IV line for the patient after selecting a vein for IV-line placement. What is the next step they should take? A. Wipe the vein with alcohol swap B Apply tourniquet above vein C. Flatten the palpation/ palpate the vein D. Needle insertion
B Apply tourniquet above vein
42
While inserting an NGT (Nasogastric Tube) for a patient before abdominal surgery, which of the following should prompt the insertion to be stopped? A. Saliva B. Inability to speak C. Discomfort D. Tearing eye
B. Inability to speak NOTE: If not talking means it is going in the trachea The correct answer is **B. Inability to speak** [A](https://oxfordmedicaleducation.com/clinical-skills/procedures/nasogastric-ng-tube/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9veGZvcmRtZWRpY2FsZWR1Y2F0aW9uLmNvbVwvY2xpbmljYWwtc2tpbGxzXC9wcm9jZWR1cmVzXC9uYXNvZ2FzdHJpYy1uZy10dWJlXC8iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJOM1dlM2UzUEJxcmdjN2huUWFvTWciLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiOHpEU1M5WmlWUkhUNm9LcXlYUUpGIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). If the patient is unable to speak during the insertion of a nasogastric tube, it could indicate that the tube has entered the respiratory tract instead of the esophagus, which is a serious complication. The procedure should be stopped immediately, and the placement should be checked. Does that help clarify things for you?
43
10 years old boy diagnosis appendicitis has serve pain, the tool of pain scale to be use is? A. Face pain rating B. Flacc rating scale
A. Face pain rating
44
What is the best type of evidence-based practice for teaching diabetic patients? A. Randomize control study B. Comparison of diabetic teaching types C. Systematic review of randomize control D. Study about diabetic teaching type.
C. Systematic review of randomize control
45
A teenager girl cannot administer insulin to herself. What should a nurse do for the patient? A. I make her come back to the hospital every few weeks B. I teach the patient C. I teach her parents
B. I teach the patient
46
The child has tracheoesophageal fistula. The physician has planned surgical repair. Which of the following preoperative interventions are appropriate for this? A. Put the patient in supine position B. Give Sedatives C. Oral feeding D. Antibiotic therapy
D. Antibiotic therapy For a child with **tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF)** undergoing surgical repair, the appropriate **preoperative interventions** include: - **Avoiding oral feeding**: Since TEF causes an abnormal connection between the trachea and esophagus, oral feeding can lead to aspiration and respiratory distress. The child should be kept **NPO (nothing by mouth)** [A](https://www.choc.org/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/2023_Tracheoesophageal_Fistula_Esophageal_Artesia_Care_Guideline_with_References.pdf?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJmVm1Yd0NvTXJESG5HamY2U3g2VmoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWFA0ZTRtTGZFYjd6U2VhbVNoa25TIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmNob2Mub3JnXC93cC1jb250ZW50XC91cGxvYWRzXC8yMDIzXC8xMVwvMjAyM19UcmFjaGVvZXNvcGhhZ2VhbF9GaXN0dWxhX0Vzb3BoYWdlYWxfQXJ0ZXNpYV9DYXJlX0d1aWRlbGluZV93aXRoX1JlZmVyZW5jZXMucGRmIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). - **Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics**: This helps prevent infections, especially if there is a risk of aspiration pneumonia [A](https://www.choc.org/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/2023_Tracheoesophageal_Fistula_Esophageal_Artesia_Care_Guideline_with_References.pdf?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJmVm1Yd0NvTXJESG5HamY2U3g2VmoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWFA0ZTRtTGZFYjd6U2VhbVNoa25TIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmNob2Mub3JnXC93cC1jb250ZW50XC91cGxvYWRzXC8yMDIzXC8xMVwvMjAyM19UcmFjaGVvZXNvcGhhZ2VhbF9GaXN0dWxhX0Vzb3BoYWdlYWxfQXJ0ZXNpYV9DYXJlX0d1aWRlbGluZV93aXRoX1JlZmVyZW5jZXMucGRmIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). - **Positioning the patient properly**: Instead of a **supine position**, the child is often placed in a **semi-upright or elevated head position** to reduce the risk of aspiration [A](https://www.choc.org/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/2023_Tracheoesophageal_Fistula_Esophageal_Artesia_Care_Guideline_with_References.pdf?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJmVm1Yd0NvTXJESG5HamY2U3g2VmoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWFA0ZTRtTGZFYjd6U2VhbVNoa25TIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmNob2Mub3JnXC93cC1jb250ZW50XC91cGxvYWRzXC8yMDIzXC8xMVwvMjAyM19UcmFjaGVvZXNvcGhhZ2VhbF9GaXN0dWxhX0Vzb3BoYWdlYWxfQXJ0ZXNpYV9DYXJlX0d1aWRlbGluZV93aXRoX1JlZmVyZW5jZXMucGRmIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). - **Avoiding sedatives**: Sedatives can **depress respiratory function**, which is risky for a child with TEF [A](https://www.choc.org/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/2023_Tracheoesophageal_Fistula_Esophageal_Artesia_Care_Guideline_with_References.pdf?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJmVm1Yd0NvTXJESG5HamY2U3g2VmoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWFA0ZTRtTGZFYjd6U2VhbVNoa25TIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmNob2Mub3JnXC93cC1jb250ZW50XC91cGxvYWRzXC8yMDIzXC8xMVwvMjAyM19UcmFjaGVvZXNvcGhhZ2VhbF9GaXN0dWxhX0Vzb3BoYWdlYWxfQXJ0ZXNpYV9DYXJlX0d1aWRlbGluZV93aXRoX1JlZmVyZW5jZXMucGRmIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). So, the correct answer is **D. Antibiotic therapy**, while **A, B, and C are not appropriate**. Would you like more details on TEF management?
47
The patient arrived at the emergency department, and vital signs were taken. The physician examined and assessed the patient and made a diagnosis of neurogenic shock. What are the signs of neurogenic shock? A. Bradycardia and hypertension C. Tachycardia and hypertension D. Bradycardia and Hypotension
D. Bradycardia and Hypotension
48
A woman came to the clinic with her husband for long-term family planning and contraception. What advice should the physician give them? A. Copper IUD B. Hormonal IUD C. Combined
A. Copper IUD
49
The patient has hepatitis B and has had the injury for a prolonged time. The patient tells the nurse that he has taken all precautions to prevent an increase in the injury but there has been no improvement. What appropriate intervention should the nurse perform? A. Ignore complaining B. Inform the physician C. Revise intervention
B. Inform the physician
50
What is the most common site of myocardial infarction? A. left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium
The most common site of myocardial infarction is **B. Left ventricle**. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, and it has a higher oxygen demand compared to other parts of the heart. As a result, it is more susceptible to ischemia and infarction when there is a blockage in the coronary arteries. Does that help clarify things for you?
51
How much fluid intake per day does a pregnant woman need? A. 100 ml B. 400 ml C. 600 ml D. 800ml
D. 800ml
52
The girl patient presented with diarrhea, vomiting, decreased tear production in the eyes, clammy skin, and a sodium level (NA) below 130. What level of dehydration is she experiencing? A. Mild isotonic B. Moderate isotonic C. Moderate hypotonic D. Moderate hypertonic
C. Moderate hypotonic The girl's symptoms—diarrhea, vomiting, decreased tear production, clammy skin, and **sodium level below 130**—suggest **moderate hypotonic dehydration (C).** Here's why: - **Hypotonic (low sodium)**: A sodium level below 130 indicates a loss of more sodium than water, leading to **hypotonic dehydration** (where body fluids become more diluted). - **Moderate severity**: Signs like clammy skin and reduced tear production suggest more than mild dehydration but not extreme enough to be severe. By contrast: - **Isotonic dehydration** (A & B) occurs when water and sodium are lost in **equal proportions**—this usually keeps sodium levels near normal. - **Hypertonic dehydration (D)** is **excess** water loss compared to sodium, causing sodium levels to **rise** (not drop). In this case, hypotonic dehydration seems to be the best answer. Would you like to explore management strategies for this condition?
53
Current research has shown no benefit for certain routine interventions that were previously used during labor. Based on current evidence-based practice, which of the following interventions for women in labor are considered harmful? A. Enema during delivery B. Amniotomy D. Vaginal examination D. Filling the portogram
A. Enema during delivery Based on current evidence-based practice, some routine interventions during labor are considered harmful or unnecessary. Here are the interventions mentioned and their status based on recent research: A. **Enema during delivery**: This intervention is generally considered unnecessary and can be uncomfortable for the patient [A](https://bmcpregnancychildbirth.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12884-018-2054-0?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiIzcExVMXNXRTNzWDhQdGVKcVo5OXoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9ibWNwcmVnbmFuY3ljaGlsZGJpcnRoLmJpb21lZGNlbnRyYWwuY29tXC9hcnRpY2xlc1wvMTAuMTE4NlwvczEyODg0LTAxOC0yMDU0LTAiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoic2Zab1F1SldWUWkxd0ZvNmdHNGtzIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). B. **Amniotomy**: Routine amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes) is not recommended unless there is a specific medical indication [B](https://www.acog.org/clinical/clinical-guidance/committee-opinion/articles/2019/02/approaches-to-limit-intervention-during-labor-and-birth?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiIzcExVMXNXRTNzWDhQdGVKcVo5OXoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cuYWNvZy5vcmdcL2NsaW5pY2FsXC9jbGluaWNhbC1ndWlkYW5jZVwvY29tbWl0dGVlLW9waW5pb25cL2FydGljbGVzXC8yMDE5XC8wMlwvYXBwcm9hY2hlcy10by1saW1pdC1pbnRlcnZlbnRpb24tZHVyaW5nLWxhYm9yLWFuZC1iaXJ0aCIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJzZlpvUXVKV1ZRaTF3Rm82Z0c0a3MifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). C. **Vaginal examination**: Frequent vaginal examinations can increase the risk of infection and are not recommended unless medically necessary [A](https://bmcpregnancychildbirth.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12884-018-2054-0?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiIzcExVMXNXRTNzWDhQdGVKcVo5OXoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9ibWNwcmVnbmFuY3ljaGlsZGJpcnRoLmJpb21lZGNlbnRyYWwuY29tXC9hcnRpY2xlc1wvMTAuMTE4NlwvczEyODg0LTAxOC0yMDU0LTAiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoic2Zab1F1SldWUWkxd0ZvNmdHNGtzIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). D. **Filling the portogram**: This option seems to be a typo or incorrect term, as it does not correspond to a known labor intervention. So, the correct answer is: A. Enema during delivery If you have any more questions or need further clarification, feel free to ask!
54
The patient has kidney stones. What foods should the patient eat to prevent kidney stone? A. Cranberry and prunes B. Cola C. Salt food D. Liver
A. Cranberry and prunes
55
Why is the patient with kidney stones advised to drink cranberry juice? A. Lower acidity
A. Lower acidity
56
A client has a history of urolithiasis related to hyperuricemia. To prevent the formation of future stones, the nurse instructs the client to avoid certain foods, including? A. Liver B. Carrots C. Skim milk D. White rice
A. Liver To prevent future kidney stones in a client with urolithiasis related to hyperuricemia, the nurse would instruct them to avoid foods high in purines, since purines break down into uric acid, which can lead to uric acid stone formation. Among the options: • A. Liver: Liver is very high in purines (around 182-231 mg per 100g), making it a food to avoid. It significantly increases uric acid levels, raising the risk of stones. • B. Carrots: Carrots are low in purines (about 6 mg per 100g) and safe for this condition. They don’t contribute to uric acid buildup. • C. Skim milk: Skim milk has no purines (0 mg per 100g) and may even help lower uric acid levels, so it’s not a food to avoid. • D. White rice: White rice is also low in purines (around 10 mg per 100g) and doesn’t need to be avoided. The correct answer is A. Liver, as it’s the only option that aligns with the need to reduce purine intake to manage hyperuricemia and prevent uric acid stones.
57
Which of the following diet instructions should be given to the client with recurring urinary tract infections? A. Increase intake of meats. B. Avoid citrus fruits. C. Perform peri care with hydrogen peroxide. D. Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day
D. Drink a glass of cranberry juice every day
58
The patient has a UTI. What advice is given regarding drinking to prevent UTI? A. Cranberry B. Yogurt C. Orange juice D. Vegetable juice
A. Cranberry
59
Why is the patient educated to drink cranberry juice after having a stone removed? A. Help Inhibit infection B. Increase urine output C. Inhibit urinary retention C. Decrease stone formation
A. Help Inhibit infection The correct answer is **A. Help Inhibit infection**. Cranberry juice is known for its ability to **prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs)** by inhibiting the adhesion of bacteria to the urinary tract walls [A](https://benefits-of-things.com/cranberry-juice/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQ29UQnh0djFKSDdlaXBRR1J2VDVlIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvYmVuZWZpdHMtb2YtdGhpbmdzLmNvbVwvY3JhbmJlcnJ5LWp1aWNlXC8iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJxbm96N3ExNk1mbjV2WGRuTDlHSG8iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). This is particularly important after having a stone removed, as the urinary tract can be more vulnerable to infections during the healing process [B](https://www.md-health.com/does-cranberry-juice-help-kidney-stones.html?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJxbm96N3ExNk1mbjV2WGRuTDlHSG8iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQ29UQnh0djFKSDdlaXBRR1J2VDVlIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm1kLWhlYWx0aC5jb21cL2RvZXMtY3JhbmJlcnJ5LWp1aWNlLWhlbHAta2lkbmV5LXN0b25lcy5odG1sIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Would you like to know more about how cranberry juice works to prevent UTIs?
60
Patients with hip or femoral fractures. What should be monitored during the early post-traumatic period? A. Fever B. Hypertension C. Acute pain D. Hematuria
C. Acute pain The correct answer is **C. Acute pain**. During the early post-traumatic period, **acute pain** is the most immediate concern for patients with hip or femoral fractures. Pain management is crucial to prevent complications, improve mobility, and support recovery. Other symptoms to monitor include **swelling, bruising, and neurovascular impairment** [A](https://www.registerednursern.com/bone-fractures-nclex-review/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJTUTlrQncyMVBqRVVHTFVpWHB1RHAiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiVnpGWVlHc0xReHpMNXBHaktmZVhzIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LnJlZ2lzdGVyZWRudXJzZXJuLmNvbVwvYm9uZS1mcmFjdHVyZXMtbmNsZXgtcmV2aWV3XC8ifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Would you like more details on post-traumatic care for fractures?
61
The physician order for a client cap Amoxycillin 500mg BID for 3 days. The available stock is 250 -mg per capsule . How many capsules will you give for 3 days ? A. 2 Capsules / 3 days B. 12 Capsules / 3 days C. 4 Capsules / 3 days D. 6 Capsules / 3 days
B. 12 Capsules / 3 days To calculate the correct number of capsules, we need to consider the following: 1. The order is for 500 mg of Amoxycillin twice a day (BID) for 3 days. 2. The available stock is 250 mg per capsule. Let's break it down: - **Daily dosage**: 500 mg BID means the client needs 500 mg twice a day, which totals to 1000 mg per day. - **Capsules per day**: Since each capsule contains 250 mg, the client needs 4 capsules per day (1000 mg / 250 mg per capsule = 4 capsules). - **Capsules for 3 days**: For 3 days, the total number of capsules needed is 4 capsules per day × 3 days = 12 capsules. So, the correct answer is: B. 12 Capsules / 3 days
62
Hazard factory workers exposed to accidents and lesions and complain from backache and other problems it is called ? A. Physical B. Psychological C. Mechanical
A. Physical
63
A nurse started a blood transfusion for the patient. Then the patient experienced complications due to receiving the wrong blood type. What is this behavior by the nurse called? A. Lack of attention. B. Defect (impaired) documentation. C. Failure to follow policy. D. Weak communication.
C. Failure to follow policy.
64
Pancreatic cancer is life threatening disease, there is low chance of survive if diagnosed in end stag , only 1% can survive for 2 year , what is best describe of mortality rate? A. Incidence rate higher than mortality rate B. mortality rate higher than incidence rate C. incidence rate not related to mortality rate D. Mortality rate and incidence rate are approximately the same
B. mortality rate higher than incidence rate Pancreatic cancer is indeed a highly lethal disease, with a very low survival rate, especially in its late stages. The best description of its mortality rate would be: **B. Mortality rate higher than incidence rate** This is because pancreatic cancer has a high fatality rate, meaning that most diagnosed cases result in death within a short period. The mortality rate is often close to the incidence rate, but in aggressive cancers like pancreatic cancer, mortality can exceed incidence due to rapid progression and late-stage diagnosis [A](https://seer.cancer.gov/statfacts/html/pancreas.html?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWXR5eVVOQkhmS1pVZ0VhTmdESkVYIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiM3h5cERFOVNRNHJQUWRZYzkzQWJ6IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvc2Vlci5jYW5jZXIuZ292XC9zdGF0ZmFjdHNcL2h0bWxcL3BhbmNyZWFzLmh0bWwifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [B](https://www.wcrf.org/preventing-cancer/cancer-statistics/pancreatic-cancer-statistics/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cud2NyZi5vcmdcL3ByZXZlbnRpbmctY2FuY2VyXC9jYW5jZXItc3RhdGlzdGljc1wvcGFuY3JlYXRpYy1jYW5jZXItc3RhdGlzdGljc1wvIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiM3h5cERFOVNRNHJQUWRZYzkzQWJ6IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6Ill0eXlVTkJIZktaVWdFYU5nREpFWCJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1).
65
What is the side effect of oxytocin ? A. Water intoxication B. Kidney toxicity C. Diuretics D. Fluid excess
A. Water intoxication
66
A nurse is caring for an immobile and ventilated patient in the intensive care unit. The patient is at high risk for pressure ulcers. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize to prevent pressure ulcers in this patient? A. Keep the patient's skin dry B. Keep the head of the bed at 40° C. Massage the reddened prominent bones D. Keep the head of the bed at 30° while in a side-lying position
A. Keep the patient's skin dry D. Keep the head of the bed at 30° while in a side-lying position
67
Because cervical effacement and dilation aren't progressing in a client in labor, the physician orders I.V. administration of oxytocin (Pitocin). Why must the nurse monitor the client's fluid intake and output closely during oxytocin administration? A. Oxytocin causes water intoxication B. Oxytocin causes excessive thirst C. Oxytocin is toxic to the kidneys D. Oxytocin has a diuretic effect
A. Oxytocin causes water intoxication
68
What is the meaning of Black box alarming for severe medication reactions ? A. Alerting B. Interpreting C. Critique
A. Alerting The question asks about the meaning of “Black box alarming for severe medication reactions” with options A. Alerting, B. Interpreting, C. Critique. I assume “alarming” is meant as “warning” (possibly a typo or phrasing quirk), and it’s referring to a black box warning—a term used in pharmacology. Let’s clarify. A black box warning is the FDA’s strongest label, placed on a drug’s packaging or prescribing info to highlight serious or life-threatening risks, like severe adverse reactions (e.g., liver failure, heart issues). It’s visually a box with black borders, hence the name, and it’s meant to grab attention. Think of drugs like warfarin (bleeding risk) or certain antidepressants (suicide risk in teens). • A. Alerting: This fits best. A black box warning’s core purpose is to alert healthcare providers and patients to major risks, ensuring they weigh benefits against potential harm before prescribing or using the drug. It’s a loud, clear signal—think “heads-up, this could go badly.” • B. Interpreting: This doesn’t quite match. Interpreting implies explaining or analyzing, but the warning itself isn’t about decoding—it’s a straightforward statement of danger, not a puzzle to solve. The doctor interprets it, sure, but that’s not its function. • C. Critique: Even less fitting. Critique suggests evaluation or judgment, but a black box isn’t a review—it’s a mandated caution, not a debate about the drug’s merit. Answer A. Alerting captures the essence: a black box warning alarms (or alerts) about severe reactions to protect patient safety. If the question intended something else (e.g., a specific drug or context), let me know—I’ll tweak it! Answer: A. Alerting
69
What type of exercise is recommended for individuals with left side weakness hemiparesis? A. Passive B. Active
A. Passive B. Active
70
The Elderly patient, 80 years old, underwent a nurse assessment of activities to measure their ability to perform self-care tasks such as bathing and eating. What type of assessment is the nurse conducting? A. Psychosocial B. Economic C. Functional D. Psychological
C. Functional
71
Patient with chest pain, which radiates to the shoulder, signs of a myocardial infarction (MI). What should be the nurse's first intervention for this patient? A. Reduce Anxiety B. Give oxygen C. Give nitroglycerin D. Give aspirin
B. Give oxygen
72
A patient with a chest tube is at risk of developing infections. What is the appropriate action for a nurse? A. Monitor bleeding and discharge B. Prevent infections and complications
B. Prevent infections and complications
73
What is a common finding in most children with congenital heart disease? A. Mental retardation B. Delayed physical growth C. Clubbing of fingers D. Cyanosis
B. Delayed physical growth
74
A nurse is assessing a 4 years-old child with a suspected congenital heart disease. Which clinical finding is commonly associated with congenital heart disease in children? A. Mental retardation B. Delayed physical growth C. Clubbing of fingers D. Cyanosis
D. Cyanosis When assessing a 4-year-old child for suspected congenital heart disease (CHD), certain clinical findings stand out due to the impact of abnormal heart function on circulation and oxygenation. Let’s break down the options: • A. Mental retardation: While severe CHD with prolonged hypoxemia (low oxygen levels) could theoretically affect brain development, mental retardation isn’t a common or direct clinical finding tied to CHD. It’s more of a secondary outcome in extreme cases, not a typical sign during assessment. • B. Delayed physical growth: Children with CHD, especially those with significant defects like tetralogy of Fallot or heart failure, often experience poor growth due to inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery. This is a frequent finding, often noted as “failure to thrive,” and is a key clue in chronic cases. • C. Clubbing of fingers: Clubbing—rounded, thickened fingertips—occurs in chronic hypoxemia, which can accompany certain CHDs like cyanotic defects (e.g., transposition of the great arteries). It’s a classic sign but takes time to develop and isn’t always present early on. • D. Cyanosis: This is a bluish tint to the skin, lips, or nails due to low oxygen levels. It’s a hallmark of cyanotic CHDs (e.g., tetralogy of Fallot, tricuspid atresia) and can be immediately noticeable during an assessment, especially in acute or severe cases. For a nurse assessing a child, cyanosis (D) is the most immediately recognizable and commonly associated finding with CHD, particularly in cyanotic defects. It’s a direct result of impaired oxygenation, which is central to many congenital heart conditions. Delayed growth and clubbing are also linked but are more chronic signs, while mental retardation is less typical. So, D. Cyanosis stands out as the key clinical finding here.
75
The patient with Parkinsonism is taking an antibiotic. The doctor changed the dose of his medication. The next day, the patient doesn't move and feels freezing. What can be expected for the patient? A. Acute akinesia B. Neuroleptic malignance syndrome
A. Acute akinesia Acute akinesia is a rare but serious complication of Parkinson's disease [A](https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10072-008-0933-2?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiV2FFbmRFbnoxMVpiQlJqd2JEbm9iIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbGluay5zcHJpbmdlci5jb21cL2FydGljbGVcLzEwLjEwMDdcL3MxMDA3Mi0wMDgtMDkzMy0yIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). It's characterized by a sudden and severe inability to move, often accompanied by high fever, rigidity, and disturbances in consciousness [B](https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00702-024-02817-8?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9saW5rLnNwcmluZ2VyLmNvbVwvYXJ0aWNsZVwvMTAuMTAwN1wvczAwNzAyLTAyNC0wMjgxNy04IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6IldhRW5kRW56MTFaYkJSandiRG5vYiIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6IjVlMUtiV2F1Mm9BZnJBTmJLNndUMyJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). This condition can be triggered by factors such as infections, changes in medication, or surgery [A](https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10072-008-0933-2?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiV2FFbmRFbnoxMVpiQlJqd2JEbm9iIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbGluay5zcHJpbmdlci5jb21cL2FydGljbGVcLzEwLjEwMDdcL3MxMDA3Mi0wMDgtMDkzMy0yIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). In essence, it's like the body's movement system suddenly "freezes up," making it extremely difficult or impossible for the person to initiate voluntary movements [C](https://www.healthline.com/health/parkinsons/akinesia?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cuaGVhbHRobGluZS5jb21cL2hlYWx0aFwvcGFya2luc29uc1wvYWtpbmVzaWEiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiV2FFbmRFbnoxMVpiQlJqd2JEbm9iIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). While it can be life-threatening, with prompt medical intervention, some patients can recover, though there may be lasting motor deficits [A](https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s10072-008-0933-2?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiV2FFbmRFbnoxMVpiQlJqd2JEbm9iIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbGluay5zcHJpbmdlci5jb21cL2FydGljbGVcLzEwLjEwMDdcL3MxMDA3Mi0wMDgtMDkzMy0yIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiNWUxS2JXYXUyb0FmckFOYks2d1QzIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Does this help clarify things, or is there something more specific you'd like to know about acute akinesia?
76
The patient has a strangulation hernia causing severe pain and requires hernia repair. What is an explanation of the procedure? A. Short procedure to poll in the hernia organ B. To restore the blood supply to affected organ
B. To restore the blood supply to affected organ Hernia repair is a **surgical procedure** used to fix a hernia [A](https://www.verywellhealth.com/hernia-surgery-in-detail-3157226?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQWp4VFFTaUxoVWJ6MW03UHBNdXl1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LnZlcnl3ZWxsaGVhbHRoLmNvbVwvaGVybmlhLXN1cmdlcnktaW4tZGV0YWlsLTMxNTcyMjYiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). A hernia occurs when an organ or tissue pushes through a weak spot in the muscle or tissue that holds it in place [A](https://www.verywellhealth.com/hernia-surgery-in-detail-3157226?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQWp4VFFTaUxoVWJ6MW03UHBNdXl1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LnZlcnl3ZWxsaGVhbHRoLmNvbVwvaGVybmlhLXN1cmdlcnktaW4tZGV0YWlsLTMxNTcyMjYiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). The most common types of hernias are in the abdomen or groin [B](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/procedures/17967-hernia-repair-surgery?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQWp4VFFTaUxoVWJ6MW03UHBNdXl1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9wcm9jZWR1cmVzXC8xNzk2Ny1oZXJuaWEtcmVwYWlyLXN1cmdlcnkiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). There are three main types of hernia repair surgeries: 1. **Open Hernia Repair**: The surgeon makes a single incision to push the herniated tissue back into place and then stitches the muscle wall [B](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/procedures/17967-hernia-repair-surgery?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQWp4VFFTaUxoVWJ6MW03UHBNdXl1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9wcm9jZWR1cmVzXC8xNzk2Ny1oZXJuaWEtcmVwYWlyLXN1cmdlcnkiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Often, a synthetic mesh is used to reinforce the area [B](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/procedures/17967-hernia-repair-surgery?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQWp4VFFTaUxoVWJ6MW03UHBNdXl1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9wcm9jZWR1cmVzXC8xNzk2Ny1oZXJuaWEtcmVwYWlyLXN1cmdlcnkiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). 2. **Laparoscopic Hernia Repair**: This minimally invasive surgery involves several small incisions [B](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/procedures/17967-hernia-repair-surgery?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQWp4VFFTaUxoVWJ6MW03UHBNdXl1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9wcm9jZWR1cmVzXC8xNzk2Ny1oZXJuaWEtcmVwYWlyLXN1cmdlcnkiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). A laparoscope (a thin tube with a camera) and surgical instruments are inserted to repair the hernia using a synthetic mesh [B](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/procedures/17967-hernia-repair-surgery?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQWp4VFFTaUxoVWJ6MW03UHBNdXl1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9wcm9jZWR1cmVzXC8xNzk2Ny1oZXJuaWEtcmVwYWlyLXN1cmdlcnkiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). 3. **Robotic Hernia Repair**: Similar to laparoscopic surgery, but uses robotic instruments controlled by the surgeon [B](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/procedures/17967-hernia-repair-surgery?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQWp4VFFTaUxoVWJ6MW03UHBNdXl1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9wcm9jZWR1cmVzXC8xNzk2Ny1oZXJuaWEtcmVwYWlyLXN1cmdlcnkiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). The choice of surgery depends on factors like the size and location of the hernia, the patient's overall health, and whether the surgery is elective or an emergency [A](https://www.verywellhealth.com/hernia-surgery-in-detail-3157226?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiI1ZTFLYldhdTJvQWZyQU5iSzZ3VDMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cudmVyeXdlbGxoZWFsdGguY29tXC9oZXJuaWEtc3VyZ2VyeS1pbi1kZXRhaWwtMzE1NzIyNiIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJBanhUUVNpTGhVYnoxbTdQcE11eXUiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Would you like to know more about the recovery process or potential risks associated with hernia repair?
77
What is the position of vulvar carcinoma after surgery? A. Recumbent B. Semi Recumbent C. Prone D. Lithotomy
B. Semi Recumbent NOTE: Lithotomy position during surgery
78
What are the disadvantage of the mini pill (progesterone-only pill)? A. Spotting between menses B. Premenstrual syndrome C. Weight loss D. Endometriosis
A. Spotting between menses The minipill, also known as the progestin-only pill (POP), is a type of birth control that contains only one hormone, progestin [A](https://www.webmd.com/sex/birth-control/mini-pill?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiZTQzaTZZTUx3UW1BTWpUNVRKWnVtIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LndlYm1kLmNvbVwvc2V4XC9iaXJ0aC1jb250cm9sXC9taW5pLXBpbGwiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrMW1UaTk3RjlSeFl6UlZLdWM5WnMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Here are some advantages and disadvantages: ### Advantages: 1. **Suitable for Breastfeeding Mothers**: The minipill is safe for breastfeeding mothers as it doesn't contain estrogen, which can reduce milk supply [A](https://www.webmd.com/sex/birth-control/mini-pill?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrMW1UaTk3RjlSeFl6UlZLdWM5WnMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiZTQzaTZZTUx3UW1BTWpUNVRKWnVtIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LndlYm1kLmNvbVwvc2V4XC9iaXJ0aC1jb250cm9sXC9taW5pLXBpbGwifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). 2. **Fewer Side Effects**: Since it doesn't contain estrogen, it typically has fewer side effects compared to combination birth control pills [A](https://www.webmd.com/sex/birth-control/mini-pill?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrMW1UaTk3RjlSeFl6UlZLdWM5WnMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cud2VibWQuY29tXC9zZXhcL2JpcnRoLWNvbnRyb2xcL21pbmktcGlsbCIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJlNDNpNllNTHdRbUFNalQ1VEpadW0ifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). 3. **Safe for Certain Health Conditions**: It's often recommended for women who are over 35, smoke, have high blood pressure, or have a history of blood clots [A](https://www.webmd.com/sex/birth-control/mini-pill?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrMW1UaTk3RjlSeFl6UlZLdWM5WnMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cud2VibWQuY29tXC9zZXhcL2JpcnRoLWNvbnRyb2xcL21pbmktcGlsbCIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJlNDNpNllNTHdRbUFNalQ1VEpadW0iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). 4. **Non-Medicinal Interactions**: It doesn't interact with other medications as much as combination pills do [A](https://www.webmd.com/sex/birth-control/mini-pill?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiZTQzaTZZTUx3UW1BTWpUNVRKWnVtIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LndlYm1kLmNvbVwvc2V4XC9iaXJ0aC1jb250cm9sXC9taW5pLXBpbGwiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrMW1UaTk3RjlSeFl6UlZLdWM5WnMifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). ### Disadvantages: 1. **Strict Timing**: The minipill must be taken at the same time every day, within a three-hour window [B](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/drugs/17707-minipill?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiZTQzaTZZTUx3UW1BTWpUNVRKWnVtIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiazFtVGk5N0Y5UnhZelJWS3VjOVpzIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9kcnVnc1wvMTc3MDctbWluaXBpbGwifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Missing a pill or taking it late can reduce its effectiveness [B](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/drugs/17707-minipill?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9teS5jbGV2ZWxhbmRjbGluaWMub3JnXC9oZWFsdGhcL2RydWdzXC8xNzcwNy1taW5pcGlsbCIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6ImsxbVRpOTdGOVJ4WXpSVkt1YzlacyIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJlNDNpNllNTHdRbUFNalQ1VEpadW0ifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). 2. **Lower Effectiveness**: It's slightly less effective than combination pills because it doesn't always stop ovulation [A](https://www.webmd.com/sex/birth-control/mini-pill?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiZTQzaTZZTUx3UW1BTWpUNVRKWnVtIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LndlYm1kLmNvbVwvc2V4XC9iaXJ0aC1jb250cm9sXC9taW5pLXBpbGwiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrMW1UaTk3RjlSeFl6UlZLdWM5WnMifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). 3. **Side Effects**: Some women may experience side effects like irregular menstrual bleeding, headaches, or breast tenderness [A](https://www.webmd.com/sex/birth-control/mini-pill?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cud2VibWQuY29tXC9zZXhcL2JpcnRoLWNvbnRyb2xcL21pbmktcGlsbCIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJlNDNpNllNTHdRbUFNalQ1VEpadW0iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrMW1UaTk3RjlSeFl6UlZLdWM5WnMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). 4. **Not for Everyone**: Women with certain medical conditions, such as liver disease or uncontrolled high blood pressure, should not take the minipill [C](https://parenting.firstcry.com/articles/mini-pill-progestin-only-pills-or-progesterone-only-pill/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9wYXJlbnRpbmcuZmlyc3RjcnkuY29tXC9hcnRpY2xlc1wvbWluaS1waWxsLXByb2dlc3Rpbi1vbmx5LXBpbGxzLW9yLXByb2dlc3Rlcm9uZS1vbmx5LXBpbGxcLyIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJlNDNpNllNTHdRbUFNalQ1VEpadW0iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrMW1UaTk3RjlSeFl6UlZLdWM5WnMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Would you like more information on how to use the minipill correctly or its effectiveness?
79
The patient with pneumonia completed a course of levofloxacin. What indicators can determine the effectiveness or Lt progress of the treatment? A.WBC B. K C. Platelet D. Hematocrit (HCT)
A.WBC
80
What is the role of k in wound healing? A. Epithelial B. Collagen C. Coagulation D. Coenzyme
C. Coagulation
81
Which patient will the nurse prioritize seeing first? A. BP is 190/110 B. The patient is unresponsive to verbal stimuli C. The patient has frequent premature contractions
B. The patient is unresponsive to verbal stimuli The nurse should prioritize seeing **B. The patient who is unresponsive to verbal stimuli** first. ### **Why?** - **Unresponsiveness** is a critical sign that could indicate a life-threatening condition, such as a stroke, severe hypoxia, or a neurological emergency. Immediate assessment and intervention are required to ensure airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) are intact. - **BP of 190/110** (Option A) is high and requires attention, but unless the patient is showing signs of acute distress (such as chest pain or neurological symptoms), it is not as immediately life-threatening as unresponsiveness. - **Frequent premature contractions** (Option C) can indicate preterm labor, but unless there are signs of fetal distress or imminent delivery, it is not the most urgent case compared to an unresponsive patient. Would you like to discuss nursing prioritization strategies further? It’s a crucial skill in emergency care!
82
The patient is on Atenolol 20 mg once daily for hypertension. What instructions should be given to the patient? A. Measure Bp daily B. Take the medication with water after a meal C. Report any occurrences of nausea or headache D. Do not stop taking the medication abruptly
The correct answer is **D. Do not stop taking the medication abruptly**. Stopping Atenolol suddenly can lead to serious health issues such as rebound hypertension or an increase in heart rate (tachycardia). It's important to taper off the medication under a doctor's supervision if discontinuation is necessary. Other instructions that might be relevant include measuring blood pressure regularly to monitor treatment effectiveness, but this is generally not mandated daily unless directed by the healthcare provider. While taking the medication with water after a meal (option B) can help with consistency and reduce side effects, it's not universally required. Reporting side effects (option C) like nausea or headache is always advisable with any medication, but it's not specific to Atenolol alone. Is there anything else you’d like to clarify?
83
The patient with DM informs the nurse that their medication is not the same. The nurse checks and confirms that the medication name has been changed. What is the appropriate response from the nurse to the patient? A. Medication may have more than one trade name B. Contact the doctor to double-check C. Contact the pharmacist
A. Medication may have more than one trade name B. Contact the doctor to double-check
84
The patient received a blood transfusion. After 30 minutes, the patient developed neck vein distension, pulmonary edema, increased blood pressure, tachycardia, and dyspnea. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is related to blood and occludes the patient's problem? A. Hemolytic reaction (Patient and donor incompatibility) B. Allergic reaction C. Fluid volume excess
C. Fluid volume excess
85
How can we prevent infections in patients with diabetes mellitus? A. Keep prominent bone moist B. Keep skin clear and dry
B. Keep skin clear and dry
86
In a patient with partial placenta previa, which of the following measures can be taken to decrease the risk of infection or complications? A. Bed rest B. Not dealing with people who have respiratory infection
A. Bed rest
87
Which clients has a high risk of obesity and diabetes mellitus? A. A 45 years- old B. A 23-year-old C. A 20-year-old
A. A 45 years- old
88
A nurse is describing the process of fetal circulation to a client during a prenatal visit. The nurse accurately tells the client that fetal circulation consists of: A. Veins carrying deoxygenated blood to the fetus B. Arteries carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus C. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein D. Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery
C. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein The correct answer is **C. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein** [A](https://quizlet.com/85074651/n444-obld-nclex-questions-flash-cards/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJKeEtITEhmRjJrYkZDTDJhY0IxU2UiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9xdWl6bGV0LmNvbVwvODUwNzQ2NTFcL240NDQtb2JsZC1uY2xleC1xdWVzdGlvbnMtZmxhc2gtY2FyZHNcLyIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJTNnRieGt2cDJnRmQ1QmpQTk5keFEiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). In fetal circulation, **the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus**, while **the two umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus back to the placenta** [B](https://www.kenhub.com/en/library/anatomy/fetal-circulation?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJKeEtITEhmRjJrYkZDTDJhY0IxU2UiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cua2VuaHViLmNvbVwvZW5cL2xpYnJhcnlcL2FuYXRvbXlcL2ZldGFsLWNpcmN1bGF0aW9uIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6IlM2dGJ4a3ZwMmdGZDVCalBOTmR4USIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [C](https://www.stanfordchildrens.org/en/topic/default?id=fetal-circulation-90-P01790&copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJKeEtITEhmRjJrYkZDTDJhY0IxU2UiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cuc3RhbmZvcmRjaGlsZHJlbnMub3JnXC9lblwvdG9waWNcL2RlZmF1bHQ/aWQ9ZmV0YWwtY2lyY3VsYXRpb24tOTAtUDAxNzkwIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6IlM2dGJ4a3ZwMmdGZDVCalBOTmR4USIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). This is the opposite of postnatal circulation, where arteries typically carry oxygenated blood and veins carry deoxygenated blood. Fetal circulation is uniquely designed to bypass the lungs, as they are not yet functional. Instead, the placenta serves as the site for oxygen exchange [C](https://www.stanfordchildrens.org/en/topic/default?id=fetal-circulation-90-P01790&copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJKeEtITEhmRjJrYkZDTDJhY0IxU2UiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cuc3RhbmZvcmRjaGlsZHJlbnMub3JnXC9lblwvdG9waWNcL2RlZmF1bHQ/aWQ9ZmV0YWwtY2lyY3VsYXRpb24tOTAtUDAxNzkwIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6IlM2dGJ4a3ZwMmdGZDVCalBOTmR4USIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Let me know if you’d like a deeper dive into how fetal circulation works!
89
The charge nurse found a problem in the scheduling and wants to change it. What is the first step of the change? A. Set goals B. Implement C. Strategies D. Understand improvement or occurrence
D. Understand improvement or occurrence
90
What is the first step of the change management process? A. Set goals B. Identify needs / Determine all stages of the change C. Implement solution D. Select change strategy
B. Identify needs / Determine all stages of the change
91
Which is the preferred method of taking a newborn's temperature? A. Tympanic. B. Axillary. C. Oral. D. Rectal.
B. Axillary.
92
Which method should be used to check the temperature of a one- month-old? A. Tympanic. B. Axillary. C. Oral. D. Rectal.
B. Axillary.
93
From where is human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) secreted in early pregnancy? A. Embryo B. Corpus luteum C. Ovary D. Pituitary gland
A. Embryo
94
What does the blastocyst secrete? A. HCG B. Estrogen C. ADH D. Progesterone
A. HCG
95
The patient presents with symptoms of unilateral weakness and/or numbness, facial droop, and speech deficits ranging from mild dysarthria and mild aphasia to global aphasia. Which of the following best describes this patient's symptoms? A. Brain stem B. Middle cerebral artery damage D. Posterior cerebral artery
B. Middle cerebral artery damage The symptoms you described—**unilateral weakness, facial droop, and speech deficits**—are **highly characteristic of a stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery (MCA)** [A](https://medshun.com/article/how-does-a-middle-cerebral-artery-stroke-affect-a-patient?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiVmF5UUhuRkVZejlMRFo1eHRFRnhMIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiZlZtWHdDb01yREhuR2pmNlN4NlZqIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbWVkc2h1bi5jb21cL2FydGljbGVcL2hvdy1kb2VzLWEtbWlkZGxlLWNlcmVicmFsLWFydGVyeS1zdHJva2UtYWZmZWN0LWEtcGF0aWVudCJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [B](https://www.myamericannurse.com/identify-the-vessel-recognize-the-stroke/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiVmF5UUhuRkVZejlMRFo1eHRFRnhMIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiZlZtWHdDb01yREhuR2pmNlN4NlZqIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm15YW1lcmljYW5udXJzZS5jb21cL2lkZW50aWZ5LXRoZS12ZXNzZWwtcmVjb2duaXplLXRoZS1zdHJva2VcLyJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). The **MCA is the most commonly affected artery in strokes** and supplies blood to the **frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes**, which are responsible for motor function, sensation, and language processing [A](https://medshun.com/article/how-does-a-middle-cerebral-artery-stroke-affect-a-patient?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJmVm1Yd0NvTXJESG5HamY2U3g2VmoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiVmF5UUhuRkVZejlMRFo1eHRFRnhMIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbWVkc2h1bi5jb21cL2FydGljbGVcL2hvdy1kb2VzLWEtbWlkZGxlLWNlcmVicmFsLWFydGVyeS1zdHJva2UtYWZmZWN0LWEtcGF0aWVudCIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [B](https://www.myamericannurse.com/identify-the-vessel-recognize-the-stroke/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiVmF5UUhuRkVZejlMRFo1eHRFRnhMIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm15YW1lcmljYW5udXJzZS5jb21cL2lkZW50aWZ5LXRoZS12ZXNzZWwtcmVjb2duaXplLXRoZS1zdHJva2VcLyIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6ImZWbVh3Q29NckRIbkdqZjZTeDZWaiJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Damage to the **brain stem** (option A) would typically cause **bilateral** symptoms, including **cranial nerve involvement, altered consciousness, and respiratory issues**. A **posterior cerebral artery (PCA) stroke** (option D) usually leads to **visual disturbances**, such as **homonymous hemianopia**, rather than the motor and speech deficits seen here [B](https://www.myamericannurse.com/identify-the-vessel-recognize-the-stroke/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiVmF5UUhuRkVZejlMRFo1eHRFRnhMIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm15YW1lcmljYW5udXJzZS5jb21cL2lkZW50aWZ5LXRoZS12ZXNzZWwtcmVjb2duaXplLXRoZS1zdHJva2VcLyIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6ImZWbVh3Q29NckRIbkdqZjZTeDZWaiJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). So, the **best answer is B: Middle cerebral artery damage**. Would you like more details on MCA stroke management?
96
What is the diet for a patient with Pyelonephritis? A. Increase fluid intake B. Increase dietary fiber C. Low protein in dinner
A. Increase fluid intake
97
A patient is coming with a radiograph and complaining of chest pain. Which of the following questions should the radiologist ask the patient first before conducting the radiograph for chest X-ray? A. Can you hold your breath well or not? B. Do you have any accessories on or are you wearing any accessories? C. Ask her if she is pregnant D. Can you raise your hand to perform a certain action?
C. Ask her if she is pregnant
98
What are the important concerns for laboratory results in a patient with second-degree burns? A. WBC B. RBC C. PLATELET
A. WBC The most important laboratory concern in a patient with **second-degree burns** is **WBC (White Blood Cell count)** (**A**). Burn injuries can lead to **infection and inflammation**, making WBC monitoring crucial. A **high WBC count** may indicate an **infection**, while a **low WBC count** could suggest **immune suppression**. Other important lab tests for burn patients include: - **Electrolytes** (to assess fluid balance) - **Renal function tests** (BUN, creatinine) to monitor kidney health - **Hemoglobin & RBC count** (to check for anemia due to blood loss) - **Platelet count** (to assess clotting ability) Would you like more details on burn management? 😊 [A](https://wikidoc.org/index.php/Burn_laboratory_findings?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiRzVKRTNGcU03a29iZGQ4a0pLU25pIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd2lraWRvYy5vcmdcL2luZGV4LnBocFwvQnVybl9sYWJvcmF0b3J5X2ZpbmRpbmdzIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiSnhLSExIZkYya2JGQ0wyYWNCMVNlIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [B](https://www.ronvil.com/understanding-burn-patient-labs-key-diagnostic-tests-and-their-importance/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiRzVKRTNGcU03a29iZGQ4a0pLU25pIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LnJvbnZpbC5jb21cL3VuZGVyc3RhbmRpbmctYnVybi1wYXRpZW50LWxhYnMta2V5LWRpYWdub3N0aWMtdGVzdHMtYW5kLXRoZWlyLWltcG9ydGFuY2VcLyIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6Ikp4S0hMSGZGMmtiRkNMMmFjQjFTZSJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1)
99
A parent comments that her infant has had several ear infections in the past few months. Why are infants more susceptible to otitis media? A. Infants are in a supine or prone position most of the time. B. Sucking on a nipple creates middle ear pressure. C. They have increased susceptibility to upper respiratory tract infections. D. The eustachian tube is short, straight, and wide
D. The eustachian tube is short, straight, and wide
100
What is Risk factors of otitis media? A. Breast feeding B. Vertical position of feeding C. Feeding formula D. Short wide ear
C. Feeding formula
101
What is the sign of Cushing Syndrome? A. Hypertension C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypermagnesemia
A. Hypertension Note: Option B,C and D are signs of Addison's disease
102
A patient with Cushing's syndrome has been using corticosteroids for a long time. What are the effects of using corticosteroids for long time? A. Hypertension B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypermagnesemia D. Hypotension
The correct answer is **A. Hypertension** [A](https://www.mayoclinic.org/steroids/art-20045692?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoieHA5WlJXRWRuYnVDVDZGQTVOSng0IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm1heW9jbGluaWMub3JnXC9zdGVyb2lkc1wvYXJ0LTIwMDQ1NjkyIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiWXJEQllYaXAzeGhRTTJKMUQzb2lyIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Long-term use of corticosteroids can lead to several side effects, including hypertension (high blood pressure) [A](https://www.mayoclinic.org/steroids/art-20045692?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJZckRCWVhpcDN4aFFNMkoxRDNvaXIiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoieHA5WlJXRWRuYnVDVDZGQTVOSng0IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm1heW9jbGluaWMub3JnXC9zdGVyb2lkc1wvYXJ0LTIwMDQ1NjkyIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Other potential side effects include weight gain, osteoporosis, eye problems, and an increased risk of infections [B](https://www.goodrx.com/classes/corticosteroids/long-term-effects-corticosteroids?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cuZ29vZHJ4LmNvbVwvY2xhc3Nlc1wvY29ydGljb3N0ZXJvaWRzXC9sb25nLXRlcm0tZWZmZWN0cy1jb3J0aWNvc3Rlcm9pZHMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJZckRCWVhpcDN4aFFNMkoxRDNvaXIiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoieHA5WlJXRWRuYnVDVDZGQTVOSng0In0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Does that help clarify things for you?
103
The patient plans to undergo coronary heart surgery. The post- anesthesia nurse noted a decrease in urine output from the urinary catheter, from 50 ml to 30 ml per hour. What is the likely reason for this decrease? A. Stimulate Vagus nerve B. Decreased cardiac output C. The Effects of anesthesia
B. Decreased cardiac output
104
A patient is schedule for operation from out patient clinic one day ago came to surgical ward and admitted. Who is responsible to informed patient about surgery? A. Nurse B. Head Nurse C. Surgeon D. Anesthesia
The correct answer is **C. Surgeon**. The surgeon is primarily responsible for informing the patient about the surgery, including explaining the procedure, potential risks, benefits, and obtaining informed consent. While other healthcare professionals, such as nurses and anesthesiologists, play important roles in the patient's care, the surgeon is the one who provides detailed surgical information. Does that answer your question?
105
The patient who came to the emergency room presents with a two- day history of vomiting and abdominal pain that is referred to the right shoulder after eating fried food. Where should the patient be feeling the pain? A. Upper right abdomen B. Upper left abdomen C. Lower right abdomen D. Lower left abdomen
The correct answer is **A. Upper right abdomen**. The symptoms described are indicative of gallbladder issues, such as gallstones or cholecystitis, which commonly cause pain in the upper right abdomen that can radiate to the right shoulder, especially after eating fatty foods like fried food. Does that help clarify things for you?
106
A 32-year old woman presents with 4-day history of sudden right upper quadrant abdominal pain that is referred to the right shoulder tip. Pain was initially colicky, and then became constant. Positive history of fever, nausea and vomiting. On examination, she's acutely ill looking, anicteric, febrile, positive murphy's sign, right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness with muscle guarding and rebound tenderness present. CBC done showed WBC: 13 x 109/L; Serum amylase: 170U/L. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute pancreatitis B. Acute appendicitis C. Acute cholecystitis D. Right basal pneumonia
The most likely diagnosis is **C. Acute cholecystitis**. Acute cholecystitis is characterized by inflammation of the gallbladder, often due to gallstones blocking the bile ducts [A](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/15265-gallbladder-swelling--inflammation-cholecystitis?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9teS5jbGV2ZWxhbmRjbGluaWMub3JnXC9oZWFsdGhcL2Rpc2Vhc2VzXC8xNTI2NS1nYWxsYmxhZGRlci1zd2VsbGluZy0taW5mbGFtbWF0aW9uLWNob2xlY3lzdGl0aXMiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJZckRCWVhpcDN4aFFNMkoxRDNvaXIiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoidHBNWEEzZnljWFkyTGU2ZUJHUFV5In0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). The symptoms described, such as sudden right upper quadrant abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder, fever, nausea, vomiting, and a positive Murphy's sign, are classic indicators of this condition [B](https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/cholecystitis/symptoms-causes/syc-20364867?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoidHBNWEEzZnljWFkyTGU2ZUJHUFV5IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm1heW9jbGluaWMub3JnXC9kaXNlYXNlcy1jb25kaXRpb25zXC9jaG9sZWN5c3RpdGlzXC9zeW1wdG9tcy1jYXVzZXNcL3N5Yy0yMDM2NDg2NyIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6IllyREJZWGlwM3hoUU0ySjFEM29pciJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [A](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/15265-gallbladder-swelling--inflammation-cholecystitis?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoidHBNWEEzZnljWFkyTGU2ZUJHUFV5IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9kaXNlYXNlc1wvMTUyNjUtZ2FsbGJsYWRkZXItc3dlbGxpbmctLWluZmxhbW1hdGlvbi1jaG9sZWN5c3RpdGlzIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiWXJEQllYaXAzeGhRTTJKMUQzb2lyIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Does that help clarify things for you?
107
A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed medication at a dosage of 10mg/kg/day for one week. The medication is available in a concentration of 125mg/5ml. The patient's body weight is 15 kg. How many ml per day should be given to the patient? A. 2 ml QID B. 3 ml Bid C. 5 ml OD D. 6 ml PRN
To determine the correct dosage in milliliters per day for the patient, let's break it down step by step: 1. **Calculate the total dosage needed per day:** 10 \text{mg/kg/day} \times 15 \text{kg} = 150 \text{mg/day} 2. **Determine how much of the medication concentration contains 150 mg:** \text{Medication concentration: } 125 \text{mg/5 ml} Using the ratio: \frac{150 \text{mg}}{125 \text{mg}} \times 5 \text{ml} = 6 \text{ml} Therefore, the patient should receive **6 ml per day**. This matches with option **D. 6 ml PRN**, although "PRN" means "as needed," which is not the usual dosing frequency for regular medication. Typically, a specific schedule would be prescribed. Does this calculation help clarify things for you?
108
A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed medication at a dosage of 10mg/kg/day. The medication is available in a concentration of 125mg/5ml. The patient's body weight is 12 kg. How many ml per day should be given to the patient? A. 2 ml Bid B. 3 ml Bid C. 6 ml PRN
A. 2 ml Bid Let's calculate the correct dosage in milliliters per day for the patient: 1. **Calculate the total dosage needed per day:** 10 \text{mg/kg/day} \times 12 \text{kg} = 120 \text{mg/day} 2. **Determine how much of the medication concentration contains 120 mg:** \text{Medication concentration: } 125 \text{mg/5 ml} Using the ratio: \frac{120 \text{mg}}{125 \text{mg}} \times 5 \text{ml} = 4.8 \text{ml} Therefore, the patient should receive **4.8 ml per day**. However, none of the provided options (A, B, or C) precisely matches this calculated dosage. The closest option would be **C. 6 ml PRN**, but "PRN" means "as needed," which is not the usual dosing frequency for regular medication. It's best to consult with the prescribing doctor or pharmacist for the exact dosage instructions based on this calculation. Does this help clarify things for you?
109
A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed medication at a dosage of 10mg/kg/day. The medication is available in a concentration of 125mg/5ml. The patient's body weight is 15 kg. How many ml per day should be given to the patient? A. 2 ml QID B. 2 ml BID C. 1.5 ml TID D. 6 ml PRN
D. 6 ml PRN Let's calculate the correct dosage in milliliters per day for the patient: 1. **Calculate the total dosage needed per day:** 10 \text{mg/kg/day} \times 15 \text{kg} = 150 \text{mg/day} 2. **Determine how much of the medication concentration contains 150 mg:** \text{Medication concentration: } 125 \text{mg/5 ml} Using the ratio: \frac{150 \text{mg}}{125 \text{mg}} \times 5 \text{ml} = 6 \text{ml} Therefore, the patient should receive **6 ml per day**. The closest option is **D. 6 ml PRN**, although "PRN" means "as needed," which is not the usual dosing frequency for a prescribed medication. Typically, a specific schedule would be prescribed, such as dividing the 6 ml into multiple doses throughout the day. It's best to consult with the prescribing doctor or pharmacist for the exact dosage instructions based on this calculation. Does this help clarify things for you?
110
A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed medication at a dosage of 12mg/kg/day. The medication is available in a concentration of 125mg/5ml. The patient's body weight is 25kg. How many ml per day should be given to the patient? A. 4 ml TID B. 3 ml BID C. 2 ml QID
A. 4 ml TID Let's break down the calculations: 1. **Determine the total dosage per day:** The prescribed dosage is 12 mg/kg/day. \text{Total dosage per day} = 12 \, \text{mg/kg/day} \times 25 \, \text{kg} = 300 \, \text{mg/day} 2. **Determine the volume of medication needed:** The concentration of the medication is 125 mg/5 ml. \text{Volume needed} = \frac{300 \, \text{mg/day}}{125 \, \text{mg/5 ml}} = \frac{300 \, \text{mg/day}}{25 \, \text{mg/ml}} = 12 \, \text{ml/day} 3. **Determine the dosing schedule:** - A. **4 ml TID (three times a day):** 4 \, \text{ml} \times 3 = 12 \, \text{ml/day} - B. **3 ml BID (twice a day):** 3 \, \text{ml} \times 2 = 6 \, \text{ml/day} - C. **2 ml QID (four times a day):** 2 \, \text{ml} \times 4 = 8 \, \text{ml/day} Given the calculations, **A. 4 ml TID** is the correct answer, as it matches the required dosage of 12 ml/day.
111
A patient 4 years old needs to receive a doctor-prescribed medication at a dosage of 150 mg for one week. The medication is available in a concentration of 125mg/5ml. How many ml per day should be given to the patient? A. 3 ml BID B. 3 ml QID C. 6 ml PRN
A. 3 ml BID. Got it! Let's recalculate based on 150 mg/day for a week. 1. **Daily dosage:** 150 mg/day 2. **Determine the volume of medication needed:** The concentration of the medication is 125 mg/5 ml. \text{Volume needed per day} = \frac{150 \, \text{mg/day}}{125 \, \text{mg/5 ml}} = \frac{150 \, \text{mg/day}}{25 \, \text{mg/ml}} = 6 \, \text{ml/day} 3. **Determine the dosing schedule:** - A. **3 ml BID (twice a day):** 3 \, \text{ml} \times 2 = 6 \, \text{ml/day} - B. **3 ml QID (four times a day):** 3 \, \text{ml} \times 4 = 12 \, \text{ml/day} - C. **6 ml PRN (as needed):** 6 \, \text{ml} \times 1 = 6 \, \text{ml/day} Given the calculations, both **A. 3 ml BID** and **C. 6 ml PRN** match the required dosage of 6 ml/day. However, since PRN (as needed) might not ensure consistent daily dosing, **A. 3 ml BID** seems to be a more structured option for the daily dosage. Does that help? 🩺💊
112
Signs of pancytopenia ? A. RBCs and platelet deficiency
A. RBCs and platelet deficiency Pancytopenia is a condition where there are low levels of all three types of blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets [A](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/25105-pancytopenia?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJnaEtneWltNmNaVEpIZG9uS3BGQVIiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9teS5jbGV2ZWxhbmRjbGluaWMub3JnXC9oZWFsdGhcL2Rpc2Vhc2VzXC8yNTEwNS1wYW5jeXRvcGVuaWEiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWlZHdHJMb2NRRDk1NXBmRmtINnNjIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). This can lead to a variety of symptoms, including: 1. **Anemia (low red blood cells):** - Fatigue - Shortness of breath - Dizziness - Headache - Pale or clammy skin [A](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/25105-pancytopenia?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJnaEtneWltNmNaVEpIZG9uS3BGQVIiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWlZHdHJMb2NRRDk1NXBmRmtINnNjIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9kaXNlYXNlc1wvMjUxMDUtcGFuY3l0b3BlbmlhIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) 2. **Leukopenia (low white blood cells):** - Increased risk of infections - Fever and chills - Sore throat - Mouth sores - Swollen lymph nodes [A](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/25105-pancytopenia?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWlZHdHJMb2NRRDk1NXBmRmtINnNjIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9kaXNlYXNlc1wvMjUxMDUtcGFuY3l0b3BlbmlhIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiZ2hLZ3lpbTZjWlRKSGRvbktwRkFSIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) 3. **Thrombocytopenia (low platelets):** - Easy bruising - Excessive bleeding from cuts - Bleeding gums or nosebleeds - Blood in urine or stool - Heavy menstrual flow [A](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/25105-pancytopenia?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWlZHdHJMb2NRRDk1NXBmRmtINnNjIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9kaXNlYXNlc1wvMjUxMDUtcGFuY3l0b3BlbmlhIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiZ2hLZ3lpbTZjWlRKSGRvbktwRkFSIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) In severe cases, pancytopenia can be life-threatening and may require immediate medical attention [B](https://www.healthline.com/health/pancytopenia?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJnaEtneWltNmNaVEpIZG9uS3BGQVIiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWlZHdHJMb2NRRDk1NXBmRmtINnNjIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmhlYWx0aGxpbmUuY29tXC9oZWFsdGhcL3BhbmN5dG9wZW5pYSIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). If you or someone you know is experiencing these symptoms, it's important to seek medical care right away [B](https://www.healthline.com/health/pancytopenia?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWlZHdHJMb2NRRDk1NXBmRmtINnNjIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiZ2hLZ3lpbTZjWlRKSGRvbktwRkFSIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmhlYWx0aGxpbmUuY29tXC9oZWFsdGhcL3BhbmN5dG9wZW5pYSJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Is there anything specific you'd like to know more about regarding pancytopenia?
113
In a disaster plan, what priority concerns should you have about the patient? A. Hemorrhage patients B. Elderly and infants C. Head injury patients
A. Hemorrhage patients
114
Pregnant women are having hyperemesis. Which one of the following actions should be taken immediately by the nurse? A. Check daily weight B. Check urine output and input C. Support her psychologically
B. Check urine output and input
115
Patient has intracranial pressure. What will you tell the patient to avoid? A. Coughing B. Turning
A. Coughing
116
What is signs indication of left side heart failure? A. Breathing Sound (Crackles, Wheezes) B. Swelling C. Edema D. Jugular vein distension
A. Breathing Sound NOTE: B,C and C signs of right heart failure The correct answer is **A. Breathing Sound (Crackles, Wheezes)** [A](https://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/health/conditions-and-diseases/heart-failure-symptoms?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cuaG9wa2luc21lZGljaW5lLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9jb25kaXRpb25zLWFuZC1kaXNlYXNlc1wvaGVhcnQtZmFpbHVyZS1zeW1wdG9tcyIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJoaldKblFyeFlGaU5FQTh0YUNvYWoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJOM1dlM2UzUEJxcmdjN2huUWFvTWcifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Left-sided heart failure often leads to fluid buildup in the lungs, causing symptoms like **crackles and wheezes** when breathing [B](https://www.verywellhealth.com/left-sided-heart-failure-overview-and-more-5189453?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiaGpXSm5RcnhZRmlORUE4dGFDb2FqIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiTjNXZTNlM1BCcXJnYzdoblFhb01nIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LnZlcnl3ZWxsaGVhbHRoLmNvbVwvbGVmdC1zaWRlZC1oZWFydC1mYWlsdXJlLW92ZXJ2aWV3LWFuZC1tb3JlLTUxODk0NTMifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [A](https://www.hopkinsmedicine.org/health/conditions-and-diseases/heart-failure-symptoms?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJOM1dlM2UzUEJxcmdjN2huUWFvTWciLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cuaG9wa2luc21lZGljaW5lLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9jb25kaXRpb25zLWFuZC1kaXNlYXNlc1wvaGVhcnQtZmFpbHVyZS1zeW1wdG9tcyIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJoaldKblFyeFlGaU5FQTh0YUNvYWoifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Other signs can include shortness of breath, especially when lying down or during physical activity, and a persistent cough that may produce mucus [B](https://www.verywellhealth.com/left-sided-heart-failure-overview-and-more-5189453?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJOM1dlM2UzUEJxcmdjN2huUWFvTWciLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiaGpXSm5RcnhZRmlORUE4dGFDb2FqIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LnZlcnl3ZWxsaGVhbHRoLmNvbVwvbGVmdC1zaWRlZC1oZWFydC1mYWlsdXJlLW92ZXJ2aWV3LWFuZC1tb3JlLTUxODk0NTMifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Does that help clarify things for you?
117
What are the most common causes of fetal death or mortality? A. Asthma B. Accident C. Malnutrition disease D. Cardiac disease
D. Cardiac disease
118
The patient came in ER with prolonged vomiting related gastric sleeve. What can be expected in his arterial blood gas (ABG) results? A. Elevated oxygen levels B. Decreased PH C. Elevated HCO3
C. Elevated HCO3
119
A patient with diabetes has a morning glucose of 50. The patient is sweaty, cold, and clammy. Which of the following nursing interventions is the MOST important? A. Recheck the glucose level B. Give the patient 1⁄2 cup (4 oz) of fruit juice C. Call the doctor D. Keep the patient nothing by mouth.
B. Give the patient 1⁄2 cup (4 oz) of fruit juice In this scenario, where a patient with diabetes has a morning glucose of 50 mg/dL and is sweaty, cold, and clammy, they’re showing classic signs of hypoglycemia—low blood sugar. The most important nursing intervention is to act fast to raise their glucose level before it drops further and leads to worse symptoms, like confusion or unconsciousness. The best choice here is B. Give the patient 1⁄2 cup (4 oz) of fruit juice. This delivers quick-acting sugar—about 15 grams of carbs—to boost their blood sugar rapidly. It’s a standard first step in treating hypoglycemia when the patient is awake and able to swallow. After that, you’d monitor them and maybe follow up with a snack if needed, but the priority is getting that glucose up now. Rechecking the glucose (A) could confirm the number, but it delays treatment, and the symptoms already scream low sugar. Calling the doctor (C) might be a follow-up step if the patient doesn’t improve, but it’s not the immediate fix. Keeping them nothing by mouth (D) is the opposite of what’s needed—starving them of glucose could make things worse. So, juice first, stabilize, then reassess.
120
Right hemiparesis (stroke) affected which side of the body? A. Left side weakness B. Right side weakness
A. Left side weakness
121
Death rate of disease in proportion to those who are at high risk to this disease? A. Specific Mortality B. Case Fatality C. Specific Morbidity
B. Case Fatality The correct answer is **B. Case Fatality**. **Case fatality rate (CFR)** refers to the proportion of people who die from a certain disease among those who have been diagnosed with the disease during a certain period of time. It essentially measures the severity of the disease. **Specific mortality** is the death rate of a certain disease in a specific population. **Specific morbidity** measures the rate of incidence or prevalence of a disease in a specific population. Would you like to dive deeper into any of these concepts?
122
A Community nurse make Antenatal education for group of pregnant women, what’s the goal of this program? (NCLEX) A. Psychological adaptation to parenthood B. Reducing risks and problems C. Modes of delivery during childbirth D. Birth control options
B. Reducing risks and problems ✓
123
Term neonate meconium aspiration which of the following initial action by the nurse? A. Give oxygen B. Suction mouth and nose
B. Suction mouth and nose
124
The surgeon aspirated both tonsils. What is the diagnosis? A. Bilateral tonsils abscess B. Laryngitis C. Tonsillectomy
A. Bilateral tonsils abscess The correct diagnosis is **A. Bilateral tonsils abscess**. Aspiration of the tonsils is typically performed to diagnose and treat abscesses, specifically peritonsillar abscesses [A](https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp/issues/2002/0101/p93.html?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJvaXBjdDdCTDVwakp0MURndmp0RG4iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cuYWFmcC5vcmdcL3B1YnNcL2FmcFwvaXNzdWVzXC8yMDAyXC8wMTAxXC9wOTMuaHRtbCIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19tZXNzYWdlSWQiOiJCTXBrS2h6cWFFanZNMmZqNEZDN1oiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [B](https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/194863-workup?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiQk1wa0toenFhRWp2TTJmajRGQzdaIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvZW1lZGljaW5lLm1lZHNjYXBlLmNvbVwvYXJ0aWNsZVwvMTk0ODYzLXdvcmt1cCIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6Im9pcGN0N0JMNXBqSnQxRGd2anREbiJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [C](https://drsanu.com/articles/peritonsillar-abscess-quinsy-clinical-presentation-and-treatment/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9kcnNhbnUuY29tXC9hcnRpY2xlc1wvcGVyaXRvbnNpbGxhci1hYnNjZXNzLXF1aW5zeS1jbGluaWNhbC1wcmVzZW50YXRpb24tYW5kLXRyZWF0bWVudFwvIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6IkJNcGtLaHpxYUVqdk0yZmo0RkM3WiIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6Im9pcGN0N0JMNXBqSnQxRGd2anREbiIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Laryngitis refers to inflammation of the larynx, and tonsillectomy is the surgical removal of the tonsils, neither of which involve aspiration as a diagnostic procedure. If you have any more questions or need further clarification, feel free to ask!
125
What is Food rich in fiber? A. Boiled egg with green salad B. Caeser salade, beef, boiled shrimp C. Meat, pasta
A. Boiled egg with green salad
126
What is the most common side effects of metoclopramide? A. Abdominal pain B. Flatulence C. Headache D. Constipation
C. Headache The most common side effect of metoclopramide is **C. Headache** [A](https://www.healthline.com/health/drugs/metoclopramide-oral-tablet?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJvaXBjdDdCTDVwakp0MURndmp0RG4iLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiTFE1R0N1MlZ5Nzlld0I3OGhUOGFhIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmhlYWx0aGxpbmUuY29tXC9oZWFsdGhcL2RydWdzXC9tZXRvY2xvcHJhbWlkZS1vcmFsLXRhYmxldCJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Other common side effects include drowsiness, dizziness, and restlessness [B](https://www.nhs.uk/medicines/metoclopramide/side-effects-of-metoclopramide/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJvaXBjdDdCTDVwakp0MURndmp0RG4iLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiTFE1R0N1MlZ5Nzlld0I3OGhUOGFhIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm5ocy51a1wvbWVkaWNpbmVzXC9tZXRvY2xvcHJhbWlkZVwvc2lkZS1lZmZlY3RzLW9mLW1ldG9jbG9wcmFtaWRlXC8ifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). If you have any more questions or need further information, feel free to ask!
127
What Anthropometric measurements are included? A. Weight and Wrist B. BMI, Wrist and Arm C. BMI, Wrist and Skinfold thickness
C. BMI, Wrist and Skinfold thickness The correct answer is **C. BMI, Wrist and Skinfold thickness**. Anthropometric measurements commonly include Body Mass Index (BMI), wrist circumference, and skinfold thickness among other metrics. These measurements help assess the nutritional status, body composition, and overall health of an individual. If you have more questions or need further information, feel free to ask!
128
Clients with gestational diabetes are usually managed by which of the following therapies? A. Oral hypoglycemic drugs and insulin B. Oral hypoglycemic drugs C. NPH insulin (long-acting) D. Diet
D. Diet
129
A 26-year old multigravida is 14 weeks’ pregnant and is scheduled for an alpha-fetoprotein test. She asks the nurse, “What does the alpha fetoprotein test indicate? The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that this test can detect? A. Kidney defects B. Urinary tract defects C. Neural tube defects D. Cardiac defects
C. Neural tube defects The correct answer is **C. Neural tube defects**. The alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test is used during pregnancy to screen for neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly [A](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diagnostics/24301-alpha-fetoprotein-test?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJvaXBjdDdCTDVwakp0MURndmp0RG4iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9teS5jbGV2ZWxhbmRjbGluaWMub3JnXC9oZWFsdGhcL2RpYWdub3N0aWNzXC8yNDMwMS1hbHBoYS1mZXRvcHJvdGVpbi10ZXN0IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6ImI4RmlWSHA3U2tVVDdSclgxY1VybyJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). It can also help detect other conditions, but neural tube defects are one of the primary concerns [A](https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diagnostics/24301-alpha-fetoprotein-test?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiYjhGaVZIcDdTa1VUN1JyWDFjVXJvIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvbXkuY2xldmVsYW5kY2xpbmljLm9yZ1wvaGVhbHRoXC9kaWFnbm9zdGljc1wvMjQzMDEtYWxwaGEtZmV0b3Byb3RlaW4tdGVzdCIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6Im9pcGN0N0JMNXBqSnQxRGd2anREbiJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). If you have any more questions or need further information, feel free to ask!
130
Gastric suction lead to PH change: A. Decrease PH in the serum B. Increase the H in the serum C. Acidemia D. Alkalemia
D. Alkalemia Gastric suction, also known as nasogastric (NG) suction, is a procedure where the contents of the stomach are removed through a tube. This can lead to a significant loss of stomach acids, which are rich in hydrochloric acid (HCl). As a result, the body experiences a reduction in the level of hydrogen ions (H+), leading to a rise in the blood pH. So, the correct answer is: D. Alkalemia If you have any more questions or need further clarification, feel free to ask!
131
What is the Initial treatment for hyperthyroidism? A. Radioactive iodine B. Methimazole C. Thyroidectom
B. Methimazole The initial treatment for hyperthyroidism typically depends on the underlying cause, the severity of the condition, and the patient's overall health. Based on current medical guidelines, the initial treatment options include: A. **Radioactive iodine**: This is a common treatment in the United States and involves taking a small dose of radioactive iodine to destroy overactive thyroid cells [A](https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp/issues/2016/0301/p363.html?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiIzcExVMXNXRTNzWDhQdGVKcVo5OXoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiaDdVZmpLTU0xdVhLZFhDMTRmamQ0IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmFhZnAub3JnXC9wdWJzXC9hZnBcL2lzc3Vlc1wvMjAxNlwvMDMwMVwvcDM2My5odG1sIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). B. **Methimazole**: This is an antithyroid medication that helps reduce the production of thyroid hormones [A](https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp/issues/2016/0301/p363.html?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiIzcExVMXNXRTNzWDhQdGVKcVo5OXoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiaDdVZmpLTU0xdVhLZFhDMTRmamQ0IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmFhZnAub3JnXC9wdWJzXC9hZnBcL2lzc3Vlc1wvMjAxNlwvMDMwMVwvcDM2My5odG1sIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). C. **Thyroidectomy**: This is a surgical procedure to remove part or all of the thyroid gland and is usually considered when other treatments are not suitable [A](https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp/issues/2016/0301/p363.html?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiIzcExVMXNXRTNzWDhQdGVKcVo5OXoiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiaDdVZmpLTU0xdVhLZFhDMTRmamQ0IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LmFhZnAub3JnXC9wdWJzXC9hZnBcL2lzc3Vlc1wvMjAxNlwvMDMwMVwvcDM2My5odG1sIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). So, the correct answer is: B. Methimazole If you have any more questions or need further clarification, feel free to ask!
132
A patient had a blood pressure of 180/90. After the nurse administered an antihypertensive drug, it increased to 195/100. What is the reason? A. Allergic reaction B. Paradoxical hypertension
B. Paradoxical hypertension The increase in blood pressure after administering an antihypertensive drug could be due to **paradoxical hypertension**. This phenomenon occurs when the medication intended to lower blood pressure actually causes it to rise in certain patients [A](https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2010/08/100819112222.htm?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cuc2NpZW5jZWRhaWx5LmNvbVwvcmVsZWFzZXNcLzIwMTBcLzA4XC8xMDA4MTkxMTIyMjIuaHRtIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiM3BMVTFzV0Uzc1g4UHRlSnFaOTl6IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6IjhlTjJuRUpacG43cXVUa1lkTnBmNCJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). This can happen due to various factors, including the patient's unique response to the medication or underlying conditions that affect how the drug works in their body. So, the correct answer is: B. Paradoxical hypertension If you have any more questions or need further clarification, feel free to ask!
133
A patient postoperatively on the chest tube. What type of secretion should be in the chest tube after three hours? A. Blood B. Serous drainage C. Serious Song drainage D. Mucous secretion
B. Serous drainage For a patient with a chest tube postoperatively, let’s assume it’s placed after thoracic surgery (like a lobectomy or bypass) to drain air, fluid, or blood from the pleural space. The question asks about the type of secretion expected in the chest tube three hours after surgery. Here’s the breakdown: • A. Blood: Right after surgery, some blood is normal due to surgical trauma. Fresh blood (bright red) might show up in the first hour or two, especially if there’s active bleeding. By three hours, though, it should taper off unless there’s a complication like a hemorrhage. Studies suggest normal postoperative drainage can include 100-200 mL of bloody fluid in the first few hours, but it typically shifts away from pure blood quickly. • B. Serous drainage: This is a clear-to-light-yellow, watery fluid—think plasma-like. After the initial bloody drainage, the output often transitions to serosanguinous (blood-tinged serous) or purely serous fluid within a few hours as bleeding slows and the body starts healing. By three hours, this is a common finding in a stable patient. • C. Serious Song drainage: This seems like a typo—probably meant “serosanguinous” (a mix of serous and blood). If so, it’s plausible at three hours, as drainage often starts bloody and becomes pinkish or straw-colored as it mixes with serous fluid. I’ll assume it’s a mistake and evaluate it as serosanguinous. • D. Mucous secretion: Mucus isn’t typical in a chest tube. It’s more associated with airways (like in a tracheostomy), not the pleural space, which is where chest tubes drain. Pleural fluid isn’t mucousy unless there’s an odd infection or condition, which isn’t implied here. What’s Expected at Three Hours? In the first few hours post-op, chest tube output often starts as blood or serosanguinous drainage due to surgical site bleeding. By three hours, if all’s well, it should shift toward serous drainage (or serosanguinous if the typo holds). Pure blood persisting past a couple of hours could signal a problem—like a vessel leak—needing urgent attention (e.g., >200 mL/hour output). Textbooks like Alexander’s Care of the Patient in Surgery note that drainage typically lightens up within hours, with serous or serosanguinous being standard by this point in a stable patient. Answer Assuming “Serious Song” is a typo for “serosanguinous,” I’d lean toward B. Serous drainage as the most precise for a typical, uncomplicated case at three hours—clear or light fluid after the initial bloody phase. If the intent was serosanguinous, that’d fit too, but B aligns best with the options as written. If you meant a specific surgery or context, let me know—I can refine it!
134
What is the normal lung sound over the sternum? A. Bronchial B. Vesicular C. Bronchovesicular
A. Bronchial
135
To decrease edema in a baby with craniotomy, what medication would the nurse administer to the client? A. Diuretic B. Prednisolone C. Ceftriaxone
A. Diuretic
136
What is the drug to minimize intracranial pressure? A. Warfarin B. Morphine C. Potassium D. Bisacodyl
D. Bisacodyl To minimize intracranial pressure (ICP), none of the listed options—A. Warfarin, B. Morphine, C. Potassium, or D. Bisacodyl—are ideal or standard, but let’s break it down to find the best fit based on typical medical practice and the question’s intent. • A. Warfarin: This is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. It’s used for conditions like atrial fibrillation or deep vein thrombosis, but it has no direct effect on ICP. If bleeding (e.g., a hematoma) is causing elevated ICP, warfarin could worsen it by increasing hemorrhage risk. Not the answer. • B. Morphine: An opioid analgesic, morphine relieves pain but doesn’t directly lower ICP. In fact, it can raise ICP indirectly by causing respiratory depression, which increases CO2 levels and dilates cerebral blood vessels. In head trauma or neurosurgery, it’s often avoided unless pain management outweighs this risk. Not a standard choice here. • C. Potassium: This is an electrolyte, not a drug in the usual sense (though potassium supplements exist). It regulates nerve and muscle function, but it doesn’t target ICP. In some ICP cases (e.g., cerebral edema), potassium levels matter indirectly due to fluid shifts, but it’s not administered to lower ICP. Poor fit. • D. Bisacodyl: A stimulant laxative for constipation, bisacodyl works on the gut, not the brain. It has no effect on ICP unless you stretch logic—say, preventing straining that might briefly spike ICP. That’s too indirect to count here. What’s Missing? Standard drugs to minimize ICP include: • Mannitol: An osmotic diuretic that pulls fluid out of brain tissue into the bloodstream, reducing swelling and pressure. It’s a go-to in emergencies like traumatic brain injury. • Hypertonic saline: Another osmotic agent that lowers ICP by drawing water out of edematous brain tissue. • Furosemide: A loop diuretic sometimes used adjunctively to reduce fluid overload, indirectly helping ICP. • Sedatives (e.g., propofol): These control agitation or seizures that could raise ICP, though they’re not primary. None of these are listed. Among the given options, none directly minimize ICP, and some (like morphine) could worsen it. If forced to pick, B. Morphine might be a trick answer if the context is pain-related ICP spikes (e.g., calming a patient), but it’s not standard—guidelines like those from the Brain Trauma Foundation prioritize osmotherapy over opioids. Answer Without a clear match, I suspect a typo or mislisted options. As written, none fit perfectly, but B. Morphine is the least irrelevant if misinterpreted as a sedative effect. For accuracy, the real answer should be something like mannitol. If you’ve got more context (e.g., a specific case), let me know—I’ll zero in!
137
A newborn was admitted to pediatric Ward with pyloric stenosis, suspected with pyloric stenosis. What is the best diagnostic test? A. X ray B. Ct abdomen C. Enema with barium
A. X ray For a newborn admitted with suspected pyloric stenosis, the best diagnostic test isn’t explicitly listed among the options provided—A. X-ray, B. CT abdomen, C. Enema with barium—but let’s work with what’s given and clarify the standard approach. Pyloric stenosis is a condition where the pylorus (the muscle between the stomach and small intestine) thickens, obstructing food passage. It typically shows up in infants around 3-6 weeks old with projectile vomiting, weight loss, and a palpable “olive” in the abdomen. The gold-standard diagnostic test is ultrasound, which visualizes the thickened pyloric muscle (length >14-16 mm, thickness >3-4 mm) with high sensitivity (90-99%) and specificity (97-100%), per guidelines like those from the American Academy of Pediatrics. It’s non-invasive, radiation-free, and ideal for newborns. Now, the options: • A. X-ray: A plain abdominal X-ray isn’t the best for confirming pyloric stenosis. It might show indirect signs—like an air-fluid level in a distended stomach or the “caterpillar sign” from peristalsis—but it’s not specific or diagnostic. It’s more a screening tool to rule out other issues (e.g., perforation). Sensitivity is low compared to ultrasound. • B. CT abdomen: A CT scan could visualize the pylorus, but it’s overkill—exposing a newborn to significant radiation and requiring sedation in some cases. It’s not standard practice for this diagnosis, reserved more for complex abdominal issues. Not the best choice. • C. Enema with barium: This likely means a barium upper GI series, not an enema (which targets the lower GI). In a barium swallow/upper GI study, contrast shows the “string sign” (narrowed pylorus) or “shoulder sign” (bulging stomach). It was used historically but has largely been replaced by ultrasound due to radiation exposure and lower specificity (it can miss early cases). Still, it’s the closest to a confirmatory test among these options. What’s the Catch? Ultrasound isn’t listed, which suggests a possible error in the question. In real-world pediatrics, X-ray might be done first to exclude emergencies (e.g., volvulus), but confirmation comes from ultrasound. If forced to pick from these, C. Enema with barium (assuming an upper GI series) is the most specific for pyloric stenosis, showing the obstruction directly, though it’s outdated compared to ultrasound. Answer C. Enema with barium (interpreted as a barium upper GI study) is the best of the given options, though ultrasound is the true standard. If this is a test question, they might expect the historical approach. Want me to dig deeper into any part?
138
Which of the following drugs will not be affected by grapefruit? A. Aspirin B. Atorvastatin C. Verapamil D. Plavix
A. Aspirin Grapefruit juice famously interacts with certain drugs by inhibiting the enzyme CYP3A4 in the liver and gut, which metabolizes many medications. This can increase drug levels in the blood, sometimes dangerously. Let’s evaluate the options—A. Aspirin, B. Atorvastatin, C. Verapamil, D. Plavix—based on their metabolism and known grapefruit interactions. • A. Aspirin: Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a pain reliever and antiplatelet drug. It’s metabolized primarily by hydrolysis in the liver and gut, then conjugated with glycine or glucuronide—not via CYP3A4. Studies, like those from the FDA’s drug interaction data, show no significant grapefruit effect on aspirin. Its levels and effects (e.g., pain relief, platelet inhibition) stay consistent regardless of grapefruit consumption. • B. Atorvastatin: This statin lowers cholesterol and is heavily metabolized by CYP3A4. Grapefruit juice inhibits this enzyme, boosting atorvastatin’s blood levels—by up to 80% per some pharmacokinetic studies (e.g., Clinical Pharmacology & Therapeutics, 2002). This can increase side effects like muscle pain or rhabdomyolysis risk. Definitely affected. • C. Verapamil: A calcium channel blocker for hypertension and arrhythmias, verapamil is another CYP3A4 substrate. Grapefruit juice can double its bioavailability, per research (e.g., British Journal of Clinical Pharmacology, 1993), amplifying effects like low blood pressure or heart rate changes. Clearly affected. • D. Plavix (clopidogrel): This antiplatelet drug prevents clots and is metabolized by multiple CYP enzymes, notably CYP2C19, with some CYP3A4 involvement. Grapefruit’s effect on clopidogrel is debated—some older data suggested minor CYP3A4 inhibition might reduce its activation (it’s a prodrug), but larger reviews (e.g., Canadian Medical Association Journal, 2011) and FDA labels find no clinically significant interaction. Still, it’s not as clear-cut as aspirin. The Answer A. Aspirin stands out as the drug not affected by grapefruit. Its metabolism bypasses CYP3A4, and there’s no evidence of altered efficacy or safety with grapefruit juice. Atorvastatin and verapamil are classic examples of affected drugs, while clopidogrel’s interaction is negligible but not as definitively “unaffected” as aspirin’s. So, A. Aspirin. If you’re curious about a specific angle (e.g., dosing or patient context), let me know!
139
The community nurse visits a patient with epilepsy and arranges for hospitalization to prevent harm to the patient. What type of ethical issue is this? A. Malfeasance B. Negligence C. Misfeasance D. Beneficence
D. Beneficence
140
A patient came to the ER after a motor accident. The patient has severe bleeding with urine output of 30 ml/hr, blood pressure of 90/60, and a heart rate of 112. The doctor asks the nurse to assess good tissue perfusion. Which of the following signs detects that? A. Heart rate B. Respiration rate C. Urine output D. Blood pressure
C. Urine output To assess good tissue perfusion in this patient—severe bleeding post-motor accident, urine output 30 mL/hr, BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 112 bpm—the doctor wants a sign that reflects adequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues. Let’s evaluate the options: A. Heart rate, B. Respiration rate, C. Urine output, D. Blood pressure. • A. Heart rate (112 bpm): A high heart rate like 112 suggests the body’s compensating for low blood volume (hypovolemia from bleeding), pumping faster to maintain circulation. It’s a response to poor perfusion, not a direct sign of good perfusion. Normal HR (60-100 bpm) might hint at stability, but it’s too indirect here—tachycardia flags distress instead. • B. Respiration rate: Not given, but even if elevated (e.g., from hypoxia or stress), it’s a secondary response to perfusion issues, not a primary indicator. Fast breathing might mean the body’s trying to oxygenate blood, but it doesn’t confirm tissue-level delivery. Too vague without data. • C. Urine output (30 mL/hr): This is a strong indicator of tissue perfusion, specifically kidney perfusion. Normal output is 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr (e.g., 35-70 mL/hr for a 70-kg adult). At 30 mL/hr, it’s low—oliguria—suggesting reduced renal blood flow due to hypovolemia or shock. Good perfusion would show normal or higher output (e.g., >40 mL/hr in this context), making this a sensitive marker. It’s measurable and tied to organ function. • D. Blood pressure (90/60 mmHg): BP reflects systemic pressure driving perfusion, but 90/60 is borderline hypotensive (normal is ~120/80). It’s low here due to blood loss, and while it’s a piece of the puzzle, it’s less specific to tissue-level perfusion than urine output. Organs can still be underperfused at “okay” BP if compensatory mechanisms (like vasoconstriction) mask the issue. Best Sign? C. Urine output is the standout. It directly reflects kidney perfusion, a sentinel organ sensitive to blood flow changes. In shock or bleeding, kidneys cut back urine production early (as here, 30 mL/hr), while good perfusion would restore it toward normal. Guidelines like those from the American College of Surgeons (ATLS) use urine output to gauge resuscitation success—aiming for >0.5 mL/kg/hr. Heart rate and BP are clues, but they’re less precise; respiration rate is too ancillary without data. Answer: C. Urine output. If you’ve got a follow-up (e.g., next steps for this patient), I’m here!
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A 5-year-old has been diagnosed with Wilms tumor. The doctor discussed the condition and available treatment options with the parents and provided them with an appointment to make a decision. What is the description of this action? A. Inspiring B. Empower C. Enabling D. Encouraging
B. Empower The scenario involves a doctor discussing a 5-year-old’s Wilms tumor (a kidney cancer) with the parents, outlining the condition and treatment options, and giving them an appointment to decide. The question asks for the best description of this action from A. Inspiring, B. Empower, C. Enabling, D. Encouraging. • A. Inspiring: This suggests sparking motivation or awe, like a pep talk. While the doctor’s clarity might indirectly uplift, the focus here is on informing and decision-making, not emotional inspiration. It’s too vague for this clinical context. • B. Empower: This means giving someone the tools, authority, or confidence to act. By explaining the condition (e.g., Wilms tumor’s stages, prognosis) and options (surgery, chemo, radiation), then scheduling a follow-up for the parents to choose, the doctor equips them to take ownership of the decision. It’s about fostering autonomy, which fits well. • C. Enabling: This implies making something possible, often with a practical bent—like providing resources or removing barriers. The doctor’s action enables a decision by setting the appointment, but it leans more toward logistics than the broader sense of giving control, which the explanation and options provide. • D. Encouraging: This is about boosting morale or urging action, like saying, “You’ve got this!” It’s supportive, but the scenario emphasizes information and choice over emotional cheerleading. It’s less precise here. Best Fit B. Empower nails it. In pediatric oncology (e.g., per Pediatric Nursing principles), empowering parents means educating them thoroughly and involving them in care decisions—like choosing between nephrectomy or chemo for Wilms tumor—while respecting their role. The appointment reinforces this by giving them time to process and decide, not just enabling logistics (C) or inspiring feelings (A). Encouraging (D) is part of it but too narrow. Answer: B. Empower
142
A nurse is teaching a 13- years- old patient how to give an insulin injection. What is the description of the nurse's action? A. Inspiring B. Empower C. Enabling D. Encouraging
B. Empower The scenario involves a nurse teaching a 13-year-old patient how to self-administer an insulin injection, likely for diabetes management. The question asks for the best description of this action from A. Inspiring, B. Empower, C. Enabling, D. Encouraging. • A. Inspiring: This suggests sparking motivation or admiration, like a motivational speech. While teaching insulin injection might indirectly inspire confidence, the primary focus is on skill-building, not emotional uplift. It’s not the core action here. • B. Empower: This means giving someone the knowledge, skills, or authority to take control. Teaching a teen to inject insulin equips them with a critical self-care skill, fostering independence in managing their condition. It’s about transferring power to the patient, which aligns well with adolescent care goals. • C. Enabling: This implies making something possible, often practically—like providing tools or opportunity. The nurse’s teaching enables the patient to perform injections by showing the how-to (e.g., site rotation, dosing), but it’s narrower than empowering, focusing on capability rather than broader autonomy. • D. Encouraging: This is about boosting morale or urging effort, like saying, “You can do it!” It’s part of teaching (e.g., praising progress), but the action here is the instruction itself—imparting a skill—not just emotional support. Best Fit B. Empower fits best. In pediatric nursing, especially for chronic conditions like diabetes (per Pediatric Diabetes guidelines), teaching self-injection empowers teens to manage their health, promoting independence as they transition to adulthood. Enabling (C) is close but focuses more on the mechanics, while empowering captures the bigger picture of autonomy. Inspiring (A) and encouraging (D) are secondary to the skill transfer. Answer: B. Empower
143
What is the complication of thalassemia? A. Hepatomegaly B. Bleeding C. Heart Failure
A. Hepatomegaly Thalassemia, a genetic blood disorder affecting hemoglobin production, can lead to several complications depending on its severity (e.g., thalassemia major vs. minor). Let’s evaluate the options based on what’s common and significant. A. Hepatomegaly: This means an enlarged liver, and it’s a well-documented complication in thalassemia, especially in transfusion-dependent cases like beta-thalassemia major. Repeated blood transfusions (to correct severe anemia) cause iron overload, which builds up in the liver, leading to hepatomegaly, fibrosis, or even cirrhosis over time. It’s not immediate but a frequent issue in poorly managed or chronic cases. B. Bleeding: Bleeding isn’t a hallmark complication of thalassemia itself. Severe anemia might strain the body, and in rare cases, liver damage from iron overload could affect clotting factors, increasing bleeding risk. However, this is indirect and less common compared to other effects. Thrombocytopenia (low platelets) can occur if the spleen enlarges (splenomegaly) and traps platelets, but bleeding isn’t a primary or standout issue. C. Heart Failure: This is a major and life-threatening complication, particularly in thalassemia major. Iron overload from transfusions also deposits in the heart, causing cardiomyopathy—stiff or weakened heart muscle. Over time, this leads to heart failure, often presenting as shortness of breath, fatigue, or fluid buildup. It’s a leading cause of death in unmanaged thalassemia, making it a critical concern. All three can occur, but C. Heart Failure is arguably the most significant complication in severe thalassemia due to its impact on mortality. Hepatomegaly (A) is common and chronic, while bleeding (B) is less directly tied to the disease’s core pathology. In clinical contexts, like Cooley’s anemia (thalassemia major), heart failure from iron overload stands out as a primary worry, especially if chelation therapy (to remove excess iron) isn’t optimized. So, Heart Failure takes the lead here.
144
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a common occurrence for pregnant women, and there are home remedies that have been proven to relieve nausea and vomiting. Which one of the following is one of them? A. Cucumber B. Ginger C. Coffee D. Cinnamon
B. Ginger Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, far beyond typical morning sickness, often requiring medical management. However, the question focuses on home remedies proven to relieve nausea and vomiting, which applies to both milder cases and as adjuncts in hyperemesis. Let’s assess the options. A. Cucumber: Cucumbers are hydrating and mild on the stomach, which might help some women tolerate food better. There’s no strong evidence, though, linking cucumbers specifically to nausea relief in pregnancy. It’s more anecdotal than proven. B. Ginger: Ginger has a long history and solid research backing it for nausea relief, including in pregnancy. Studies, like those reviewed by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, show ginger (e.g., tea, candies, or capsules) reduces nausea and vomiting, even in severe cases like hyperemesis gravidarum. It’s thought to work by calming the stomach and affecting serotonin receptors. It’s safe in moderate amounts and widely recommended. C. Coffee: Coffee is a stimulant and acidic, which can worsen nausea or irritate the stomach for many pregnant women. There’s no evidence it helps, and it’s more likely to aggravate symptoms. Caffeine’s also limited in pregnancy due to other risks. D. Cinnamon: Cinnamon might aid digestion in some contexts, but there’s little to no research supporting it for pregnancy-related nausea. It’s not a standard remedy, and in excess, it could even upset the stomach. The clear winner is B. Ginger. It’s one of the few home remedies with consistent evidence—randomized trials show it cuts nausea severity—and it’s a go-to suggestion from midwives to doctors for pregnant women, including those with hyperemesis, as long as they can keep it down.
145
What is the diet for a patient after cholecystectomy? A. Grapes and gelatin B. Cola and macaroni C. Cheese cake and yogurt
A. Grapes and gelatin After a cholecystectomy (gallbladder removal), the diet needs to adjust because the gallbladder’s gone—no more storing bile to release for fat digestion. Bile now drips continuously from the liver into the gut, so the focus is on easing digestion, avoiding fat overload, and preventing discomfort like diarrhea or bloating. Let’s break down the options. Generally, post-op patients start with clear liquids (broth, water, juice) for the first day or so, then progress to a low-fat, bland diet as tolerated. Long-term, most can eat normally but are advised to limit fatty, greasy, or heavy foods, especially early on while the body adapts—think weeks to a month post-surgery. A. Grapes and gelatin: Grapes are a simple fruit, low in fat, and easy to digest, providing some fiber and hydration. Gelatin (like Jell-O) is a clear, bland food often used in early post-op diets because it’s gentle on the stomach and fat-free. This combo aligns well with the initial post-cholecystectomy phase—light, low-fat, and non-irritating. B. Cola and macaroni: Cola is carbonated and sugary, which might cause bloating or gas, a problem when digestion’s already adjusting. Macaroni (plain pasta) is low-fat and bland, which is fine, but paired with cola, it’s not ideal—carbonation could upset the stomach, and it lacks nutritional balance. It’s not harmful but not tailored to post-surgery needs. C. Cheesecake and yogurt: Cheesecake is high in fat (cream cheese, butter) and sugar, a terrible choice after gallbladder removal—fatty foods can overwhelm the bile trickle, causing diarrhea or pain. Yogurt could work if it’s plain, low-fat, and unsweetened, offering probiotics to settle digestion, but paired with cheesecake, this option flops due to the fat content. The best fit is A. Grapes and gelatin. It’s low-fat, easy to digest, and matches the early post-op diet progression—starting light and simple. Over time, patients might add lean proteins, veggies, and whole grains, but right after surgery, this duo beats the others for keeping things smooth and comfortable.
146
A researcher want to conduct a research for measles vaccine at 1 year of age then will remeasure again at age of 6 years in the relation to healthy child. What is the type of research? A. Longitudinal/correlation. B. Longitudinal/ Cross sectional C. Cross sectional/correlation.
B. Longitudinal/ Cross sectional Let’s dissect the research design here. The researcher plans to study the measles vaccine by measuring outcomes at age 1, then again at age 6, in relation to a “healthy child.” The key is understanding the study’s structure and intent based on these time points and comparisons. • Longitudinal: This type tracks the same subjects over time, observing changes or trends. Here, the researcher measures vaccine effects at age 1 and follows up with the same kids at age 6. That’s a classic longitudinal setup—same group, multiple time points. • Cross-sectional: This compares different groups at one point in time (e.g., vaccinated vs. unvaccinated kids at age 1). The question doesn’t suggest comparing separate cohorts at different ages simultaneously, so this doesn’t fit. • Correlation: This looks for relationships between variables (e.g., vaccine dose and health outcomes) without manipulating anything. The phrase “in relation to healthy child” hints at exploring how vaccine status correlates with health, possibly comparing vaccinated kids’ health metrics to a baseline “healthy” standard over time. It’s not experimental (no randomization or control group specified), so correlation could apply. Now, the options: • A. Longitudinal/correlation: This fits best. It’s longitudinal because it follows the same kids from age 1 to 6, and correlational because it’s likely examining how the vaccine relates to health outcomes (e.g., immunity levels, illness rates) over time, not testing a cause-effect intervention. • B. Longitudinal/Cross sectional: This would mean mixing a follow-over-time study with a snapshot comparison of different groups at one time. The question doesn’t describe studying separate age groups at once (e.g., 1-year-olds vs. 6-year-olds in 2025), so this hybrid doesn’t match. • C. Cross sectional/correlation: This would involve one-time data from different groups (e.g., vaccinated vs. unvaccinated at age 1) to find relationships. The remeasurement at age 6 rules out a single-time-point study, so this is off. The answer is A. Longitudinal/correlation. It’s a study tracking the same kids over years (longitudinal) to see how their vaccine status at age 1 correlates with health by age 6, likely without manipulating variables—just observing outcomes.
147
A 21-year-old female experiences irregular menstruation. Initially, her periods are unpredictable and painless. The irregularity is characterized by anovulatory cycles. What does 'anovulatory' mean? A. 1Ovum from ovary B. 2 Ovum produced from ovary C. 0 Ovum from ovary D. Period delay 2 days from expected /1 ovum produced two day later of ovulation
C. 0 Ovum from ovary The term “anovulatory” refers to a menstrual cycle where ovulation—the release of an egg (ovum) from the ovary—doesn’t happen. Normally, in a regular cycle, hormonal changes trigger an ovary to release an ovum around the middle of the cycle (day 14 in a 28-day cycle, roughly). If ovulation fails, the cycle is anovulatory, often leading to irregular or unpredictable periods, as seen in this 21-year-old female. Let’s break down the options. • A. 1 Ovum from ovary: This describes a normal ovulatory cycle where one egg is released. “Anovulatory” means no ovulation, so this doesn’t fit. • B. 2 Ovum produced from ovary: This suggests two eggs released, which can happen (e.g., in twins), but it’s still ovulation. Anovulatory means no eggs, so this is wrong. • C. 0 Ovum from ovary: This matches the definition—no egg is released during the cycle. Without ovulation, the body doesn’t form a corpus luteum, progesterone stays low, and the uterine lining may shed irregularly, causing unpredictable, often painless periods like in the scenario. • D. Period delay 2 days from expected / 1 ovum produced two days later of ovulation: This is convoluted. It implies a delayed period with late ovulation, which is still an ovulatory cycle (egg released, just off-schedule). Anovulatory means no ovulation at all, not a timing shift. The correct answer is C. 0 Ovum from ovary. “Anovulatory” literally means “no ovulation,” so no egg is released, explaining the irregular, painless menstruation due to hormonal imbalance—common in conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or stress-related cycle disruptions.
148
Which of the following is not considered as an obstetrical emergency? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Placenta previa C. Placenta anterior D. Eclampsia
C. Placenta anterior
149
What are the two glands inside to the urethral responsible for moisturizing? A. Seminal B. Bartholin C. Cowper's glands
C. Cowper's glands Cooper's gland, also known as the bulbourethral gland, is part of the male reproductive system. These small, pea-shaped glands are located on either side of the urethra, just below the prostate. They play a key role in producing a clear, slippery fluid that helps lubricate the urethra and neutralize any acidic residue from urine, making it more hospitable for sperm during ejaculation. It's fascinating how even the smallest parts of the body have such specific and important functions, isn't it?
150
A 12-year-old boy came to the clinic with his mother. He has a warm body, weight loss, and trouble sleeping. What does the nurse suspect? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Hypoparathyroidism
A. Hyperthyroidism Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland becomes overactive and produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones, which can speed up various bodily functions. The thyroid gland, located at the front of your neck, plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, heart rate, and energy levels. Some common symptoms of hyperthyroidism include: - Rapid heartbeat or palpitations - Weight loss despite an increased appetite - Nervousness, irritability, or anxiety - Tremors in the hands or fingers - Heat intolerance or excessive sweating - Increased bowel movements - Fatigue or muscle weakness - Enlarged thyroid gland (goiter) One of the primary causes is **Graves' disease**, an autoimmune condition. Other causes can include thyroid nodules or excessive iodine intake. Treatment options vary based on the cause and severity and may include medications, radioactive iodine therapy, or surgery. If you want to dive deeper into its mechanisms or treatments, let me know!
151
What prevents the recurrence of Rheumatic fever? A. Antibiotic B. Antibacterial C. Anti-viral D. Corticosteroids
The correct answer is **A. Antibiotic**. The prevention of recurrent Rheumatic fever involves the use of long-term antibiotic prophylaxis, such as penicillin. This approach helps protect against group A Streptococcus infections, which can trigger a recurrence of Rheumatic fever. Let me know if you'd like to delve deeper into the topic!
152
The child with dehydration and projectile vomiting He diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis what’s the best for feeding? A. NGT B. Rehydrate, and continue breast-feeding C. Rehydrate, and NGT feeding
C. Rehydrate, and NGT feeding
153
154- Why should hypospadias be repaired before three years old? A. The child's movement is limited. B. Decrease risk infection. C. This is because the child is cooperative. D. Before the penis/urethra is fully developed
D. Before the penis/urethra is fully developed The correct answer is **D. Before the penis/urethra is fully developed**. Hypospadias repair is typically performed **before 18 months of age**—ideally between **6 to 12 months**—to ensure proper anatomical and functional outcomes. Surgery at an early age allows for normal development of the **urethra, penile curvature (chordee), and cosmetic appearance**, reducing complications like urinary dysfunction and fertility issues later in life. Here’s why the other choices are less correct: - **A. The child’s movement is limited** → Not a primary factor in surgical timing. Surgery focuses on anatomical correction rather than mobility concerns. - **B. Decrease risk of infection** → Hypospadias itself does not significantly increase the risk of urinary infections, but surgical repair can help reduce long-term complications. - **C. This is because the child is cooperative** → Surgery is done in infancy precisely **to avoid psychological distress and improve healing**, rather than relying on a child’s cooperation. Would you like more details on surgical techniques or post-op care?
154
The child came to the emergency room with a diagnostic of appendicitis, requiring emergency operation. What nursing interventions are needed? A. Giving medication as order and control pain and fever B. Positioning the patient on abdominal splint
A. Giving medication as order and control pain and fever
155
156- What causes a decrease in respiratory rate in children post- operatively, leading to alterations in vital signs? A. Opioid B. Hypothermia C. Hyperthermia
A. Opioid The correct answer is **A. Opioid**. Postoperative respiratory depression in children is often caused by **opioids**, which can **suppress the central respiratory drive** by acting on the brainstem's respiratory centers. This can lead to a **decreased respiratory rate**, hypoventilation, and even oxygen desaturation if not carefully monitored. Here’s why the other choices are less likely: - **B. Hypothermia** → While cold stress can alter metabolism and oxygen consumption, it typically leads to **increased respiratory effort**, not a decreased rate. - **C. Hyperthermia** → Fever raises metabolic demand, increasing respiratory rate rather than decreasing it. Would you like to discuss strategies for managing opioid-induced respiratory depression in pediatric patients?
156
157- What causes a decrease in body temperature in children post- operatively, leading to alterations in vital signs? A. Shock B. Environmental causes C. Infection
B. Environmental causes A decrease in body temperature in children post-operatively, leading to alterations in vital signs, is most commonly associated with environmental causes. During surgery, children are exposed to cold operating rooms, cool intravenous fluids, and anesthesia, which can impair thermoregulation, especially in young patients with less body mass and immature thermoregulatory systems. This can result in hypothermia, affecting vital signs such as heart rate and respiratory rate. • Option A: Shock
Shock typically causes other symptoms like tachycardia, hypotension, or poor perfusion, but it is not primarily associated with a decrease in body temperature. Instead, it may lead to variable temperature changes depending on the type and stage of shock. • Option B: Environmental causes
This is the most likely cause. Factors such as cold operating environments, inadequate warming measures, and anesthesia-related inhibition of thermoregulation contribute to post-operative hypothermia in children, directly impacting vital signs. • Option C: Infection
Infection usually causes an increase in body temperature (fever) rather than a decrease. While infections can occur post-operatively, they are less likely to cause hypothermia in the immediate post-operative period. Answer: B. Environmental causes
157
158- What is the recommended position for a patient with appendicitis before surgery? A. Sim’s B. High fowler C. Semi fowler D. Dorsal recumbent
C. Semi fowler The correct answer is **C. Semi-Fowler**. For a patient with **appendicitis**, the **semi-Fowler position** (head and upper body elevated at about 30–45 degrees) is recommended **before surgery** because it: - Helps reduce pain and abdominal pressure. - Allows better drainage of inflammatory exudate. - Improves breathing by reducing pressure on the diaphragm. ### Why not the other positions? - **A. Sim’s** → Typically used for rectal exams or unconscious patients; not ideal for appendicitis. - **B. High Fowler** → Excessive elevation may strain the abdomen and worsen discomfort. - **D. Dorsal Recumbent** → Lying flat on the back may increase pressure on the inflamed appendix, causing pain. Would you like guidance on **postoperative positioning** as well?
158
159- A newborn having meconium aspiration. What are the appropriate diagnostic evaluation tests? A. Chest-Xray B. Blood gas C. Ultrasound
A. Chest-Xray For a newborn with suspected meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS), the **appropriate diagnostic evaluation** typically includes: - **Chest X-ray (A)** – This is the most commonly used imaging modality to assess MAS. It can reveal areas of hyperinflation, patchy infiltrates, or irregular opacities due to meconium-stained amniotic fluid affecting the lungs. - **Blood Gas Analysis (B)** – Important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status. It helps determine the severity of respiratory distress and guides oxygen therapy or ventilation strategies. - **Ultrasound (C)** – While not commonly used for MAS diagnosis, lung ultrasound can sometimes help evaluate lung aeration and detect complications, such as pneumothorax. In clinical practice, **chest X-ray and blood gas analysis** are the primary tests used to confirm MAS and assess respiratory compromise. Ultrasound is not a first-line diagnostic tool but may be used in select cases. Would you like more details on the interpretation of these tests?
159
160- Which assessment indicates therapeutic effect of mannitol (Osmitrol)? A. Decreased intracranial pressure B. Decreased potassium C. Increased urine osmolality D. Decreased serum osmolality
A. Decreased intracranial pressure The **correct assessment** indicating the therapeutic effect of mannitol (**Osmitrol**) is: **A. Decreased intracranial pressure** ✅ Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic primarily used to **reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)** in conditions such as cerebral edema or traumatic brain injury. It works by drawing water out of brain tissue into the bloodstream, which is then excreted through the kidneys. Here's how the other options relate: - **B. Decreased potassium** ❌ – Mannitol may cause electrolyte imbalances, but hypokalemia is not its primary therapeutic effect. - **C. Increased urine osmolality** ✅ – Mannitol increases urine output and osmolality, but this is a secondary effect rather than the main therapeutic goal. - **D. Decreased serum osmolality** ❌ – Mannitol actually **increases** serum osmolality by pulling fluid into the vascular space. Would you like more details on how mannitol is monitored in clinical practice?
160
161- The doctor ordered a blood transfusion for the patient. What will be the appropriate action to prevent an allergic reaction? A. Slow rate of blood lower than the ordered rate B. Proper labeling and patient identification C. Administer antihistamine before the blood transfusion D. Administer antipyretic before the transfusion
B. Proper labeling and patient identification
161
162- After a skin graft on the patient's leg, there was red discharge leaking from the dressing. What should be the nurse's first action? A. Remove the dressing to assess B. Apply direct pressure for 10 minutes C. Elevate the leg
B. Apply direct pressure for 10 minutes
162
163- How to check jaundice in dark skin patients? A. Nail beds B. Palm of hand C. Hard palate D. Lip
C. Hard palate The **best area** to check for jaundice in dark-skinned patients is: **C. Hard palate** ✅ Jaundice is caused by **elevated bilirubin**, which gives a yellowish discoloration to tissues. In patients with **darker skin tones**, the yellowing may not be easily visible in the skin, so healthcare providers examine areas where pigmentation is lighter and bilirubin accumulation is more noticeable. Here's why each option matters: - **A. Nail beds** ❌ – Useful for assessing **peripheral circulation**, but not the best location for detecting jaundice. - **B. Palm of the hand** ❌ – Skin on the palms can vary in pigmentation, making jaundice less reliably visible. - **C. Hard palate** ✅ – One of the **most reliable locations**, as the mucous membrane shows yellow discoloration clearly. - **D. Lip** ❌ – Can be checked, but often less distinct compared to the **sclera and hard palate**. Additionally, the **sclera (whites of the eyes)** is one of the **first areas** where jaundice becomes visible across all skin tones. Would you like more information on bilirubin levels and jaundice assessment?
163
164- A 3 days old newborn who is diagnosed with Hirschsprung disease presents with failure to pass meconium within 24-48 hours of life. What is the diagnostic test for Hirschsprung disease? A. Abdominal X-ray B. Ultrasound C. MRI D. Rectal Biopsy
D. Rectal Biopsy
164
165- What is the complication of diaphragmatic hernia? A. Respiratory hypotension B. Decrease cardiac output
B. Decrease cardiac output The correct answer is **B. Decrease cardiac output**. A diaphragmatic hernia can lead to significant complications due to abdominal organs herniating into the thoracic cavity, compressing the lungs and heart. This compression can reduce venous return to the heart, impairing cardiac output. Respiratory distress is a major concern, but "respiratory hypotension" is not a typical term associated with this condition. Instead, respiratory compromise occurs due to lung hypoplasia and impaired ventilation. Would you like to explore more about congenital diaphragmatic hernia and its management?
165
166- The nurse respects different cultures and beliefs. What is this considered? A. Nursing procedure B. Autonomy C. Beneficence
C. Beneficence The correct answer is **C. Beneficence**. Beneficence refers to actions that promote the well-being of patients, including respecting their cultural beliefs and practices. Nurses uphold this principle by ensuring care is compassionate and culturally sensitive, fostering trust and positive health outcomes. While autonomy relates to patients' rights to make their own healthcare decisions, and nursing procedures involve specific protocols, **beneficence** directly relates to ethical practice in respecting diverse values. Would you like more examples of how beneficence applies in healthcare?
166
A nurse reviewing the drug chart of her patient needs to determine which of the following medications she must start first? A. Cefazolin BID B. Paracetamol Q6hr C. Vancomycin TID D. Amlodipine OD
C. Vancomycin TID The priority depends on the patient's condition and the urgency of treatment. Here’s a general approach to deciding: - **Vancomycin TID (C)** is often used for serious bacterial infections, including MRSA. If the patient has a severe infection, this may be the most urgent. - **Cefazolin BID (A)** is another antibiotic, commonly used for surgical prophylaxis or less severe bacterial infections. - **Paracetamol Q6hr (B)** is an analgesic and antipyretic. If the patient is in significant pain or has a high fever, this may take priority. - **Amlodipine OD (D)** is for hypertension. While important for long-term management, it is typically not urgent compared to infection control or pain management. Priority should follow clinical judgment—if a life-threatening infection is present, antibiotics (especially Vancomycin) should be started first. If severe pain or fever is the primary issue, Paracetamol may take precedence. The nurse would also check the patient’s vitals and medical history to guide decisions. Would you like to explore a specific scenario or diagnosis?
167
A nurse researcher interviews parents of children who have diabetes and asks them to describe how they deal with their child's illness. The analysis of the interviews yields common themes and stories describing the parents' coping strategies. This is an example of which type of study? A. Historical B. Qualitative C. Correlational D. Experimental
B. Qualitative
168
What is the health education for patient with appendectomy? A. Resume activity gradually and avoid heavy lifting B. Prevent complications C. Signs to report
B. Prevent complications
169
Which medication can take from local pharmacy? A. NSAIDs B. Contraceptives C. Antibiotics D. Antipsychoti
A. NSAIDs The correct answer is **A. NSAIDs**. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, are generally available over the counter at local pharmacies without a prescription. - **Contraceptives** may be available without a prescription in some locations, but regulations vary by country. - **Antibiotics** require a prescription in most places due to concerns about antibiotic resistance. - **Antipsychotics** are prescription-only medications due to their significant effects on mental health. Would you like more details on medication accessibility in your region?
170
A patient called the Ministry of Health at 937 to report that she lost her medication. She asked whether she can obtain it over the counter. What type of medication is allowed to be taken in that manner? A. Antipsychotic B. NSAIDs C. Contraceptive
B. NSAIDs
171
The infant with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, who has been admitted to the NICU, what intervention should be done first? A. Mechanical ventilation and intubation B. Feeding via NGT (nasogastric tube)
A. Mechanical ventilation and intubation The **first** intervention for an infant with **congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)** in the NICU is **A. Mechanical ventilation and intubation** [A](https://choc.org/wp-content/uploads/careguidelines/NICU_Congenital_Diaphragmatic_Hernia_CDH_Care_Guideline_2024.pdf?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiV25hRkF1RjRzYkV5cGhTYmNRd2g1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvY2hvYy5vcmdcL3dwLWNvbnRlbnRcL3VwbG9hZHNcL2NhcmVndWlkZWxpbmVzXC9OSUNVX0Nvbmdlbml0YWxfRGlhcGhyYWdtYXRpY19IZXJuaWFfQ0RIX0NhcmVfR3VpZGVsaW5lXzIwMjQucGRmIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiV1BCZWlyeldBUkQxcTZzOXlGQ0pRIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [B](https://health.ucdavis.edu/media-resources/pediatrics/documents/pdfs/clinical-guidelines/Resp-CDH-Clinical-Management-Guidelines.pdf?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJXUEJlaXJ6V0FSRDFxNnM5eUZDSlEiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiV25hRkF1RjRzYkV5cGhTYmNRd2g1IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvaGVhbHRoLnVjZGF2aXMuZWR1XC9tZWRpYS1yZXNvdXJjZXNcL3BlZGlhdHJpY3NcL2RvY3VtZW50c1wvcGRmc1wvY2xpbmljYWwtZ3VpZGVsaW5lc1wvUmVzcC1DREgtQ2xpbmljYWwtTWFuYWdlbWVudC1HdWlkZWxpbmVzLnBkZiIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jbGlja1NvdXJjZSI6ImNpdGF0aW9uTGluayJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). ### **Why?** - **Immediate respiratory support** is crucial because CDH causes **lung hypoplasia** and **pulmonary hypertension**, leading to severe breathing difficulties. - **Intubation** ensures proper oxygenation and prevents gastric distension, which could worsen respiratory compromise. - **Nasogastric tube (NGT) placement** is also important but comes **after** securing the airway. It helps decompress the stomach and prevents further lung compression. Would you like to explore the full management approach for CDH in the NICU? It’s a complex but fascinating process!
172
When assessing the genitals of a newborn boy, the nurse notices that one testicle is larger than the other, what is this condition called? A. Cryptorchidism B. Hydrocele
B. Hydrocele
173
A nurse is monitoring a pregnant client with pregnancy induced hypertension who is at risk for Preeclampsia. The nurse checks the client for which specific signs of Preeclampsia? A. Increased respirations B. Negative urinary protein C. Elevated blood pressure and positive urinary protein D. Facial edema
C. Elevated blood pressure and positive urinary protein The correct answer is **C. Elevated blood pressure and positive urinary protein**. ### **Why?** - **Preeclampsia** is characterized by **high blood pressure** and **proteinuria (protein in the urine)**, which indicate kidney damage [A](https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/preeclampsia/symptoms-causes/syc-20355745?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiYXlqY3UxckVuTXE2amg3YjRuaURZIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiV1BCZWlyeldBUkQxcTZzOXlGQ0pRIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm1heW9jbGluaWMub3JnXC9kaXNlYXNlcy1jb25kaXRpb25zXC9wcmVlY2xhbXBzaWFcL3N5bXB0b21zLWNhdXNlc1wvc3ljLTIwMzU1NzQ1In0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [B](https://www.medicinenet.com/what_are_the_first_signs_of_preeclampsia/article.htm?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJXUEJlaXJ6V0FSRDFxNnM5eUZDSlEiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiYXlqY3UxckVuTXE2amg3YjRuaURZIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm1lZGljaW5lbmV0LmNvbVwvd2hhdF9hcmVfdGhlX2ZpcnN0X3NpZ25zX29mX3ByZWVjbGFtcHNpYVwvYXJ0aWNsZS5odG0iLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsifQ%3D%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). - **Facial edema** (Option D) can occur, but it is not a defining diagnostic feature of preeclampsia [C](https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/pre-eclampsia/symptoms/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cubmhzLnVrXC9jb25kaXRpb25zXC9wcmUtZWNsYW1wc2lhXC9zeW1wdG9tc1wvIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6ImF5amN1MXJFbk1xNmpoN2I0bmlEWSIsImV2ZW50SW5mb19jb252ZXJzYXRpb25JZCI6IldQQmVpcnpXQVJEMXE2czl5RkNKUSJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). - **Increased respirations** (Option A) may be present in severe cases but is not a primary sign. - **Negative urinary protein** (Option B) would suggest the absence of preeclampsia. Would you like to explore the complications or management strategies for preeclampsia? It’s a crucial topic in maternal health!
174
A child has third-degree burns of the hands, face, and chest. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority? A. Risk for infection related to epidermal disruption B. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema C. Disturbed body image related to physical appearance D. Impaired urinary elimination related to fluid loss
B. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema The priority nursing diagnosis is **B. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema**. ### **Why?** - Burns on the **face and chest** raise concerns about **airway compromise** due to **edema**, inhalation injury, or respiratory distress. - **Airway management** is the **first priority** in burn patients, as swelling can rapidly obstruct breathing. - **Risk for infection** (Option A) is important but comes **after** ensuring airway stability. - **Disturbed body image** (Option C) is a psychosocial concern but is **not life-threatening** in the acute phase. - **Impaired urinary elimination** (Option D) is relevant due to fluid shifts but does not take precedence over airway protection. Would you like to explore emergency interventions for burn patients? It’s a critical aspect of trauma care! You can also check out more nursing care plans for burns [here](https://nurseslabs.com/burn-injury-nursing-care-plans/).
175
Which month does the government provide vaccinations for hepatitis B to children? A. 0,2,4 B. 0,3,6 C. 0,2,3
A. 0,2,4 The correct schedule for **Hepatitis B vaccination** in children is **A. 0, 2, 4 months** [A](https://immunisationhandbook.health.gov.au/contents/vaccine-preventable-diseases/hepatitis-b?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJXUEJlaXJ6V0FSRDFxNnM5eUZDSlEiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9pbW11bmlzYXRpb25oYW5kYm9vay5oZWFsdGguZ292LmF1XC9jb250ZW50c1wvdmFjY2luZS1wcmV2ZW50YWJsZS1kaXNlYXNlc1wvaGVwYXRpdGlzLWIiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiV1hSREpKejhhdHBCajV6ZHhrVlVEIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). ### **Why?** - The **first dose** is given at **birth (0 months)** to provide early protection. - The **second dose** is administered at **2 months**. - The **third dose** follows at **4 months**. - Some schedules also include a **final dose at 6 months** for long-term immunity. Would you like to explore how Hepatitis B affects children and why early vaccination is crucial? It’s an important topic in public health!
176
A woman comes to the ER with brown vaginal bleeding. After reviewing the ultrasound, the doctor decided to perform an emergency Cesarean section (CS). What should be anticipated? A. Preeclampsia B. Total placenta previa C. Partial placenta previa D. Preterm labor
B. Total placenta previa The correct answer is **B. Total placenta previa**. ### **Why?** - **Placenta previa** occurs when the placenta **completely covers the cervix**, leading to **painless vaginal bleeding**, often **brown or bright red**. - **An emergency Cesarean section (CS)** is typically required because vaginal delivery is **not safe** in cases of **total placenta previa**. - **Partial placenta previa** (Option C) may also cause bleeding, but **total placenta previa** is more likely to necessitate an **urgent CS**. - **Preterm labor** (Option D) can occur, but the **primary concern** in this scenario is the **placental abnormality**. - **Preeclampsia** (Option A) is unrelated to **placenta previa** and does not directly cause **brown vaginal bleeding**. Would you like to explore more about placenta previa and its management? It’s a crucial topic in obstetric care! You can also check out more details [here](https://bing.com/search?q=brown+vaginal+bleeding+emergency+cesarean+section).
177
The patient presented with hypertensive stage 1 blood pressure 130/80. What should be the nurse's advice to the patient? A. Change lifestyle /Modify lifestyle B. Administration beta blockers and diuretic
A. Change lifestyle /Modify lifestyle
178
Which of the following mothers is most common susceptible for laceration during labor? A. 1 para mother for 11hours delivery B. 3 para mother for 6 hours delivery C. 2 para mother for 9 hours delivery D. 2 para mother for 6 hours delivery
B. 3 para mother for 6 hours delivery The correct answer is **A. 1 para mother for 11 hours delivery**. ### **Why?** - **Primiparous (first-time) mothers** are at a **higher risk** for **perineal lacerations** because their tissues have not previously stretched during childbirth. - **Prolonged labor** (11 hours) increases the likelihood of **perineal trauma**, as the prolonged pressure and strain on the vaginal tissues can lead to tearing. - **Multiparous mothers** (Options B, C, and D) generally have **more elastic tissues** due to previous deliveries, reducing the risk of severe lacerations. Would you like to explore ways to prevent perineal lacerations during labor? Techniques like **perineal massage** and **warm compresses** can help! You can also check out more details [here](https://www.aafp.org/pubs/afp/issues/2021/0615/p745.html).
179
What is diet of Vagotomy? A. Increase fluid intake and out put to prevent dehydration B. Increase fiber diet C. Reduce protein diet before bed time
A. Increase fluid intake and out put to prevent dehydration After a vagotomy, dietary modifications aim to support digestion and minimize complications. The best option among the choices depends on the patient’s condition, but here’s a breakdown: - **(A) Increase fluid intake and output to prevent dehydration** – This is beneficial, especially if there are concerns about gastric emptying issues. Proper hydration supports digestion and prevents electrolyte imbalances. - **(B) Increase fiber diet** – Not ideal immediately post-vagotomy. High fiber might slow gastric emptying and cause bloating. A gradual increase in fiber may be considered later. - **(C) Reduce protein diet before bedtime** – While excessive protein at night might affect digestion, reducing protein isn’t a standard recommendation for vagotomy recovery. In general, patients are advised to eat **small, frequent meals**, limit foods that may cause dumping syndrome (like high-sugar foods), and ensure a balanced diet that supports digestion. Would you like to dive deeper into post-vagotomy dietary guidelines?
180
A patient presents with a blood pressure reading of 189/90. What would patient at high risk for? A. Stroke B. Hypertension C. DVT F. DM
A. Stroke ✓
181
182- A pregnant woman’s last menstrual period began on April 8, 2005, and ended on April 13. Using Naegele’s rule her estimated date of birth would be: A. July 1, 2006 B. January 15, 2006 C. January 20, 2006 D. November 5, 2005
B. January 15, 2006 NOTE: Naegele’s rule requires subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days and 1 year if appropriate to the first day of a pregnant woman’s last menstrual period. When this rule, is used with April 8, 2005, the estimated date of birth is January 15, 2006. Naegele’s rule helps estimate the **expected date of delivery (EDD)** by adding **one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days** to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). Let's calculate: - **LMP:** April 8, 2005 - **Add one year:** April 8, 2006 - **Subtract three months:** January 8, 2006 - **Add seven days:** **January 15, 2006** Thus, the estimated date of birth would be **(B) January 15, 2006**. Would you like to explore adjustments for irregular cycles or other methods for estimating EDD?
182
183- The old patient is suffering from hearing problems. What is the best way to measure their degree of hearing? A. Asking the family about their hearing level. B. Standing behind them and speaking loudly. C. Writing on a piece of paper and asking them to read it. D. Use verbal communication first and evaluate
D. Use verbal communication first and evaluate
183
184- The health education nurse provides instructions to a group of clients regarding measures that will assist in preventing skin cancer. Which instructions should the nurse provide? A. Sunscreen should be applied every 8 hours B. Use sunscreen when participating in outdoor activities C. Avoid exposure to the sun in the late afternoon D. Avoid exposure to the morning sun
B. Use sunscreen when participating in outdoor activities
184
185- A 66-year-old patient came to the emergency department with angina, and the doctor prescribed heparin. Which of the following is a risk factor for bleeding? A. Age B. Hypertension C. Angina
A. Age The correct answer is **A. Age**. Older patients, especially those over 65, are at a higher risk of bleeding when given anticoagulants like heparin. This is due to age-related changes in hemostasis, altered drug metabolism, and increased likelihood of comorbidities that can contribute to bleeding complications. Hypertension (**B**) can increase the risk of vascular injury but is not a primary risk factor for bleeding associated with heparin use. Angina (**C**) is an indication for anticoagulation but does not directly contribute to bleeding risk. Let me know if you'd like a deeper breakdown!
185
186- In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school-aged child for evaluation? (Nclex) A. Polyphagia B. Dehydration C. Bedwetting D. Weight loss
C. Bedwetting The most likely complaint that would prompt parents to seek evaluation for their school-aged child suspected of having diabetes is **C. Bedwetting**. Frequent urination, including bedwetting in a previously toilet-trained child, is a common early symptom of diabetes in children [A](https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/type-1-diabetes-in-children/symptoms-causes/syc-20355306?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWnVFOUQxNGk2R0w1U0wxWlNkU1NYIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NvbnZlcnNhdGlvbklkIjoiU1E5a0J3MjFQakVVR0xVaVhwdURwIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3Lm1heW9jbGluaWMub3JnXC9kaXNlYXNlcy1jb25kaXRpb25zXC90eXBlLTEtZGlhYmV0ZXMtaW4tY2hpbGRyZW5cL3N5bXB0b21zLWNhdXNlc1wvc3ljLTIwMzU1MzA2IiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). This occurs due to excess glucose in the blood, which leads to increased thirst and urination as the body tries to eliminate the excess sugar. Other symptoms include **increased thirst, extreme hunger, unintentional weight loss, fatigue, and irritability** [A](https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/type-1-diabetes-in-children/symptoms-causes/syc-20355306?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJTUTlrQncyMVBqRVVHTFVpWHB1RHAiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC93d3cubWF5b2NsaW5pYy5vcmdcL2Rpc2Vhc2VzLWNvbmRpdGlvbnNcL3R5cGUtMS1kaWFiZXRlcy1pbi1jaGlsZHJlblwvc3ltcHRvbXMtY2F1c2VzXC9zeWMtMjAzNTUzMDYiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiWnVFOUQxNGk2R0w1U0wxWlNkU1NYIn0%3D&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). Would you like more details on diabetes symptoms in children?
186
187- Child with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse is instructing mother. Which of the following signs should be alert? A. Polyphagia B. Vomiting C. Bedwetting D. Thirsty
C. Bedwetting
187
188- The older woman, who hasn't been doing BSE (Breast Self- Examination) for 7 years, came to the clinic. What advice should the nurse give her regarding performing BSE? How frequently should she perform it? A. Monthly B. Annually C. Quarterly D. Biannual
A. Monthly ✓
188
189- The patient has TB, and the nurse wants to educate him about the safe way to dispose of secretions. What can she do to ensure that he has done it correctly?/ What are the instructions during discharge? A. Washing hands before and after a meal B. Dispose of the dirty tissue in a plastic bag C. Instructing to move the head away when coughing
B. Dispose of the dirty tissue in a plastic bag
189
190- A patient presented with an aortic aneurysm and requires an urgent operation. What is the most important investigation to perform? A. PT B. PPT C. Cross match and type blood group D. Ultrasound
C. Cross match and type blood group
190
191- Which one is subjective data? A. Patient say pain 6/10 B. Oxygen 90% C. Temperature 36.7 D. HR 90
A. Patient say pain 6/10
191
192- While changing the tapes on a tracheostomy tube, the client coughs and the tube is dislodged. Which is the initial nursing action? A. Call a respiratory therapist to reinsert the tracheotomy. B. Cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile dressing. C. Call the physician to reinsert the tracheotomy. D. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening
D. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening
192
193- Gracie, the mother of a 3-month-old infant calls the clinic and states that her child has a diaper rash. What should the nurse advise? A. Use baby wipes with each diaper change B. Switch to cloth diapers until the rash is gone C. Offer extra fluids to the infant until the rash improves D. Leave the diaper off while the infant sleeps
D. Leave the diaper off while the infant sleeps
193
194- The patient visited the clinic to seek treatment for infertility. During the nurse's assessment of her medical history, the patient mentioned that her husband works in the X-Ray department of this hospital. What could be the cause of infertility? A. Radiation cause B. Chemical cause
A. Radiation cause
194
195- A mother infected with COVID-19 wants to breastfeed her baby. What instructions should the nurse provide? A. Stop breastfeeding B. Exposed to breastfeeding C. Switch to bottle D. Breastfeeding with precautions
D. Breastfeeding with precautions
195
196- Contains information that is gathered routinely, such as vital signs, the frequency of urination and bowel movements, and food and fluid intake? A. Medical History B. Graphic Sheet C. Recording D. Nursing History
B. Graphic Sheet
196
197- The nurse research study to women eat more salt high risk for hypertension other group low risk. What is the type of study? A. Cohort study B. Randomized control trial C. Case report
A. Cohort study
197
198- Research Study about corona outbreak in period of march 2020 until October 2020. Which types of research? A. Retrospective B. Prospective C. Continue D. Concurrent
A. Retrospective
198
199- A pregnant woman at 38 weeks gestation and in stage 1 active phase. She presented to the emergency department with signs of labor, and her cervix is dilated 8 cm. The nurse needs to transfer her to the operating room (OR), but when she called the OR, they said there are no available beds. What is the expected action for the nurse to take? A. Tell her to go to another hospital. B. Refer to gynecology department C. Ask to take deep breath to prolong labor D. They deliver her in the emergency room
D. They deliver her in the emergency room
199
200- If un registered nurse apply cannula to the patient? A. Avoidance B. Assault C. Malpractice
C. Malpractice
200
201- A patient does not speak the same language as the nurse. How does the nurse rate the pain scale? A. Assess nonverbal B. I ignore the Patience C. Wait for the patient's family
A. Assess nonverbal
201
202- The patient is bedridden and not allowed to walk. How can the nurse measure the weight of a bedridden patient? A. Hoist scale B. Sitting scale C. Don’t do weight measure D. Standing scale
A. Hoist scale
202
203- The physician writes an order for Ibuprofen 3 mg/kg by mouth TID for pain for a child. The child weighs 13 kg. Pharmacy dispenses you with 50 mg/2 ml. How many ml will you administer per dose ? A. 1.12 ml B. 1.56 ml
B. 1.56 ml
203
204- A postpartum woman in her third week after delivery came to the emergency room with heavy bleeding. What could be the cause of the bleeding? A. Infection or retained of product placenta
A. Infection or retained of product placenta
204
206- After experiencing a needle stick injury from a patient in isolation, what should a nurse do? A. Squeezing her finger B. Informing a supervisor C. Withdrawing the needle D. Completing the procedure
B. Informing a supervisor
205
205- Which of the following is the accurate fluid intake for breastfeeding mother in first 6 months? A. 100 ml B. 400 ml C. 600 ml D. 800 ml
D. 800 ml
206
207- A patient with renal calculi is undergoing a percutaneous nephrostomy and asks the nurse to explain the procedure. What should the nurse's answer be? A. Administering a chemical agent to dissolve the stone. B. Using laser waves C. Incision in renal pelvic to remove stone D. Using an incision in the skin with a scope and forceps to remove stones
D. Using an incision in the skin with a scope and forceps to remove stones
207
208- A 33 week pregnant mother is on her routine medications that include iron supplement , folic acid , multivitamins and calcium supplement , despite all medication her hemoglobin has not been increase since last two month, she is experiencing more fatigue and lethargy since past few weeks HB 80 ….. HCT 0.22. Which of the following intervention is the most desired? A. should separate the iron and calcium for two hours B. Start injectable multivitamins as per regimen C. Advise increase intake of organ meat and fortified food D. Advise increased food intake by frequent small meals and snacks
A. should separate the iron and calcium for two hours
208
209- Pregnant women in active labor, how many times the midwife did vaginal examination? A. With each contraction B. As much as pot C. Every 4 hours D. Limited vaginal examination
D. Limited vaginal examination
209
210- The patient reported having pain and taking morphine, but the pain increased, leading the patient to request an increase in the dose. What is the patient experiencing? A. Drug addiction B. Drug tolerance
B. Drug tolerance
210
211- A nurse in the emergency department receives a report that a man has arrived, screaming and yelling that his wife is bleeding in the car. What is the nurse's first action? A. Provide emotional support and reassurance to the husband / Calm the patient B. Triage the wife C. Notify the attending physician D. Gather a team to prepare instruments for examination
B. Triage the wife
211
212- Where is the best place to locate systematic reviews? Systemic reviews, which found located? A. PubMed B. Cochrane library C. MEDLIN
B. Cochrane library
212
213- The Wassermann test should be done before maternity for the early identification of which of the following? A. Hepatitis C B. HIV C. Syphilis D. Toxicology
C. Syphilis
213
214- There is a difference between invasive and non-invasive fetal assessments. What non-invasive assessment does not harm the mother and child? A. Amniocentesis B. Cordocentesis C. Non stress test
C. Non stress test
214
215- A psychiatric patient received an overdose of benzodiazepine. The doctor prescribed an antidote. Which adverse effect of flumazenil should you check before administration? A. Anxiety B. Seizure C. Shivering D. Chest pain
B. Seizure
215
216- A patient came with neck stiffness. He can't straighten his leg. What is this called? A. Kernig’s sign B. Brudzinski sign C. Seizure activity sign
A. Kernig’s sign
216
217- A woman is diagnosed with gonorrhea, and she is worried about her diagnosis. Which of the following is the appropriate description of the disease? A. Partner test should not be present in B. Asymptomatic C. Sexual inactivity
B. Asymptomatic
217
218- A Patient with second degree AV block medication (atropine ,adenosine, diltiazem ) After confirmation safety in patient arrest what second action? A. Check responsiveness B. Shout for help C. Start chest compressions D. Activate EMR
A. Check responsiveness
218
19- 15-years old female needs urgent surgery. The informed consent should taken from which person? A. Patient B. Physician C. Nurse D. Legal guardian
D. Legal guardian
219
220- What is COPD position? A. Semi fowler B. Sitting position ✓ C. 40 degree level position D. 45 degree level position
B. Sitting position
220
221- Child irritable, cry , turning head side to side , which the diagnosis ؟ A. Acute otitis media B. Otitis media with effusion
A. Acute otitis media
221
222- Before giving any patient medication and to avoid medication errors, what should the nurse check? A. Code system B. Drug display C. Bar code
C. Bar code
222
223- 80 years old geriatric patient fell and got injured, what should the nurse do? A. Ignore the patient B. Inform the nurse in the same shift C. Over hand with the next shift nurse D. Document this in patient file
D. Document this in patient file
223
224- What is used in past in normal delivery? A. Active management of third stag B. Use of enema
B. Use of enema
224
225- Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate malnutrition? A. Nail patella B. Dry eyes C. Pale
B. Dry eyes C. Pale
225
226- Research about medical errors? A. Grounded B. phenomenology C. Ethnography D. Case studies
D. Case studies
226
227- German measles incubation period? A. 1 week B. 2 weeks C. 5 days
B. 2 weeks
227
228- A woman first time do mammogram Pap smear testing. Which of the following is the goal of the nursing practice here? A. Health promotion B. Health protection C. Disease prevention
C. Disease prevention
228
229- A 36 weeks pregnant woman went into labor and said that she uses cocaine. Who should the nurse report it to? A. Obstetric doctor B. Hospital police C. Not tell anyone. D. Husband or legal guardian
A. Obstetric doctor
229
230- A female patient came to the ER two weeks after postpartum and presented with hemorrhage. What type of postpartum hemorrhage is the nurse expecting? A. Late postpartum hemorrhage B. Early postpartum hemorrhage C. Atonic D. Traumatic
A. Late postpartum hemorrhage
230
231- A pregnant woman in labor has a cervix dilated to 7cm. What is the frequency of contractions? A. 3-4 minutes B. 2-3 minutes C. 1-2 minutes
A. 3-4 minutes
231
232- When is abortion allowed in Saudi Arabia? A. There is a risk to the mother B There is a risk to the baby
A. There is a risk to the mother
232
233- The nurse has a patient whose condition has changed. The patient had a stroke and an increase in WBC (white blood cell count). They also developed a skin rash. Chest X-rays were taken, and they came back normal. The nurse requested the doctor to assess the patient's condition and order further tests. what is missing from SBAR? A. Situation B. Background C. Assessment D. Recommendation
D. Recommendation
233
234- What is the purpose of the Brodie-Trendelenburg Test ? A. DVT B. Varicose vein C. Valvular disorder D. Thrombophlebitis
B. Varicose vein
234
235- What are the foods that patients with gout should avoid, and what is the food that is considered high in protein? A. Eggs B. Nuts C. Red meat D. Legumes
C. Red meat
235
236- In the elderly home, there is a common problem among the elderly, which is difficulty swallowing and the occurrence of aspiration. What is appropriate action by the nurse? A. Time limited meals B. Keep privacy during meals C. Implement Chin-tuck method for those with dysphagia
C. Implement Chin-tuck method for those with dysphagia
236
237- As parents with three children, which type of food should be maximized for their kids? A. Fat B. Protein C. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
237
238- When a postpartum mother is not showing affection to her newborn, such as smiling, kissing, and not making eye contact, what assessment should be used? A. Newborn initial assessment B. Newborn transitional assessment C. Newborn attachment assessment
C. Newborn attachment assessment
238
239- A nonstress test is performed on a client who is pregnant, and the results of the test indicate nonreactive findings. The health care provider (HCP) prescribes a contraction stress test. The test is performed, and the nurse notes that the HCP has documented the results as negative. How should the nurse interpret this finding? A. A normal test result ✓ B. An abnormal test result C. A high risk for fetal demise D. The need for a cesarean delivery
D. The need for a cesarean delivery
239
240-Lanugo hair found on? A. Back B. holder C. forehead
A. Back
240
241- The child presented with a low-grade fever ,is sneezing and appears restless, What instructions would you give to the parents? A. Penicillin for 3 days B. Antivirus 10 days C. Antipyretic D. Cough depressant
C. Antipyretic
241
242- A patient has a low- grade fever and is shivering. What is appropriate action? A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Antibiotic
B. Antipyretic
242
243- A newborn presented with mild fever cough, poor feeding, sneezing, crying and appears restless. What advice did the nurse give to the mother? A. Amoxicillin for 3 days B. Antiviral for a week C. Give antipyretic for mild fever and discomfort D. Cough depressant
C. Give antipyretic for mild fever and discomfort
243
244- Pediatric patient with low temperature what should the mother do? A. Give an antipyretic B. Administer an antibiotic course of 3 days C. Administer an antibiotic course of 5 days
A. Give an antipyretic
244
245- A 2-months old infant was brought to the health center for immunization, during assessment the infant temperature registered at 38.1C. Which is the best course of action that you will take? A. Go on with the infant immunization B. Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment D. Advise the infant mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well
A. Go on with the infant immunization
245
246- A patient with diabetes has high blood sugar. The nurse informed the doctor over the phone that he was busy in an operation, and then the doctor asked the nurse to administer orders for NPH insulin over the phone. What is the reason for the nurse to administer the medication? A. Emergency situation B. Physician is busy C. Trust between nurse and doctor D. Phone order , the same witness
A. Emergency situation
246
247- What are the most common causes of maternal mortality? A. Puerperal sepsis B. Hemorrhage C. Pre-eclampsia D. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hemorrhage
247
248- A patients mania ,delusion and hallucinations what is the most likely nursing diagnosis? A. Impaired thought processes B. Risk of direct violence C. Disturbances of sensory perception
A. Impaired thought processes
248
249- A patient will go to rectal surgery, doctor ask the nurse to bath him for the surgery which kind of bath the nurse will do? A. Bed bath B. Sitz bath C. Partial bath D. With Cleansed
B. Sitz bath
249
250- Which of the following is not alif threating cause of chest pain? A. Pulmonary embolism B. M l (myocardial infarction) C. Acute coronary syndrome D. Esophageal rupture
D. Esophageal rupture
250
251- Patient came in ER when the nurse checked the temperature found febrile 40 . Which of the following refill should be? A. ICU B. CCU C. Medical D. Communicable disease pavilion
D. Communicable disease pavilion
251
252- What is 4th degree perineal tear? A. Perineal and external anal sphincter B. Perineal anal sphincter mucosa
A. Perineal and external anal sphincter
252
253- The doctor is conducting an assessment while the patient is uncomfortable and asks, What should the nurse do? A. Cover the unassessed area B. Stop the assessment and write a report C. Ignore the patient D. Complete the assessment
A. Cover the unassessed area
253
254- What is the recommended diet for gout disease? A. High fiber B. Potassium modified C. Low calcium D. Low-purine diet
D. Low-purine diet
254
255- The vegetarian people that not eat red meat. Which of deficiency is high risk? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin C C. Folic Acid D. Riboflavin
D. Riboflavin
255
256- A child came into the ER presenting with diarrhea and vomiting. Which of the following can be considered signs of improvement in an infant? A. Decreased fontanelle B. Tears when the infant cries 257- Before administering NG
B. Tears when the infant cries
256
257- Before administering NGT feeding, what should the nurse do? A. Aspirate 30 cc to check for residual feeding from the last time B. Check the consistency of the food C. Ensure the NGT is correctly placed
C. Ensure the NGT is correctly placed
257
1. A 12- year- old boy was brought to the Emergency respiratory arrest due to drowning. Cardiac resuscitation what is the major complication that might happen if treated after drowning quickly? A. Sepsis B. Alkalosis C. Acidosis D. Hypothermia
C. Acidosis
258
2. An ICU nurse reviews the chart of a 47-year-old man patient mechanical ventilator for a long time. Arterial blood gas result see lab results). Test Result Normal Values ABG HCO3 24 22-28mmd/L ABG PCO3 10.66 4.7-6.0KPa PH 7.16 7.36-7.45 ABG PO2 6.13 10.6-14.2 KPa SA O2 81 95-100 % What condition the patient is experiencing presently? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
259
3. Gastric suction can cause : A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory alkalosis.
C. Metabolic alkalosis
260
4. ABG reading was low PH ,HIGH PCO2 , NORMAL Hco3 what the interpretation ? A. Compensated respiratory acidosis B. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
261
5. Patient with ABG PH 7.33 و HCO3 30 , PCO2 50 A. Compensate respiratory B. Compensate metabolic C. Uncompensated respiratory D. Uncompensated metabolic
C. Uncompensated respiratory
262
6. The nurse assesses a client with an ileostomy for possible development of which of the following acid-base imbalances? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
263
7. The nurse is assigned to care for the a patient with Cushing syndrome on adrenal corticoid hormones syndrome on adrenal corticoid hormones Ph 7.2 Which of the following condition should nurse expect to patient A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
264
8. A nurse reviewed a chart of a 42 year-old man whose ABG analysis report is shown PH 7.20 PCO2 35 HCO3 20. Which of the following I the most likely interpretation of the findings in the report? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
265
9. A 20 year old woman, a case of panic attacks, comes to the emergency department. An arterial blood gas analysis is done PH 7.53 7.35-7.45 HCO3 22 22-26 PCO2 27 35-45 what is most likely? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
266
10. A client was admitted in the Emergency Room due to mild metabolic acidosis associated with dehydration and potassium the doctor administered Hartmann’s (lactated Ringer’s) intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement. Which of the following elements of the lactated Ringer’s solution highest value? A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Magnesium
B. Sodium
267
11. Ringer Lactate consider as which type of IV solution? A. Hypotonic B. Hypertonic C. Isotonic D. Hyper alimentation
C. Isotonic
268
12. physician orders an intravenous fluid of D5NS at 100cc/hr. This is an example of which of the solution? A. hyper alimentation B. hypertonic C. hypotonic D. isotonic
269
13. 13-year-old patient is admitted for diarrhoea and vomiting. He looks pale and lethargic. A nurse is preparing to give IV hypotonic solution. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg Heart rate 76 /min Respiratory rate 18 /min Temperature 36.1°C Which IV solution is most appropriate? A. 0.9% saline B. Lactated ringers C. 10% dextrose in water D. 0.45% sodium chloride
D. 0.45% sodium chloride
270
16. CPR Technique IS : A. 30:2 120 B. 15:2 100
A. 30:2 120
271
17. You are performing CPR on an infant when a second rescuer appears. What is the next step in management? A. Immediately transport the patient B. Wait until exhausted, then switch C. Have the second rescuer help with CPR, to minimize fatigue D. Have the second rescuer begin ventilations; ratio 30:2
C. Have the second rescuer help with CPR, to minimize fatigue
272
18. What should be your first concern at the scene where a person has been seriously burned? A. Checking the scene for safety. B. Checking the victims breathing and pulse. C. Calling your local emergency phone number. D. Cooling the burned area.
A. Checking the scene for safety.
273
19. While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a 5-year-old child, the nurse palpates for a pulse. Which of the following sites is best for checking the pulse during CPR in a 5-year-old child? A. Femoral artery B. Carotid artery. C. Radial artery D. Brachial artery
B. Carotid artery.
274
20. After activating the emergency call system, what should be the next immediate action? A. Initiate ventricular pacing B. Administer a bolus of lidocaine as prescribed C. Defibrillate the patient D. Open the patient's airway
C. Defibrillate the patient
275
21. A nursing instructor teaches a group of students about basic life support. The instructor asks a student to identify the most appropriate location to assess the pulse of an infant under 1 year of age. Which of the following if stated by the student, would indicate that the student understands the appropriate procedure: A. Carotid B. Popliteal C. Radial D. Brachial
D. Brachial
276
22. A nurse is transferring a patient with chest tube the X-ray department for chest X-ray. Which location should the nurse place chest tube A. Directly on the stretcher in an upright B. On the side of stretcher next to patient C. Hanged on IV pole that is attached to the D. Attached to the stretcher and hanged
D. Attached to the stretcher and hanged
277
23. 69 year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit following cardiac surgery. Two hours after admission, the nurse performs a routine assessment and notes the patient's chest tube drainage is 200 milliliters and a dark red color. He has had 60 milliliters output from the indwelling urinary catheter Blood pressure 138/68 mmhg Heart rate 76/min Respiratory rate 16/min Body temperature 37.0C oral Oxygen saturation 94% 6L/min nasal cannula Which finding should be reported to the doctor? A. Dark red chest tube drainage B. Urinary output C. Oxygen saturation D. Chest tube output volume
C. Oxygen saturation
278
24. 40 year-old male patient has a chest tube and properly fixed following cardiac surgery. The chest tube is patent and functioning. When the nurse removes the dressing the tube falls out of the chest. Which is the most appropriate initial intervention the nurse should take? A. Reinsert the chest tube and notify the surgeon B. Apply an occlusive dressing to the insertion site C. Place the open end of the tube in 20 cm of water D. Administer O2 at 10L/min via non-rebreather mask
B. Apply an occlusive dressing to the insertion site
279
25. While attempting to get of the bed a patient accidentally disconnects the chest tube from the pleura evac drainage system which of the following actions should the nurse take first A. Insert the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile solution B. Raise the end chest tube above the level of insertion of the chest tube C. Clamp the chest tube near pleura evac drainage system D. Apply pressure dressing to chest tube insertion site
A. Insert the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile solution
280
26. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had a chest tube attached to a water seal drainage system. To ensure that the system is functioning effectively the nurse should: A. Observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber B. Flush the chest tubes with 30-60 ml of NSS every 4-6 hours C. Maintain the client in an extreme lateral position D. Strip the chest tubes in the direction of the client
A. Observe for intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
281
27. A client chest tube is connected to a chest tube drainage system with a water seal . The nurse noted that the water seal c is fluctuating with each breath that client takes . The fluctuation mwans that A. There is an obstruction in the chest tube B. The client is developing emphysema C. The chest tube system is functioning properly D. There is leak in the chest tube system
C. The chest tube system is functioning properly
282
28. 20-Your patient has a chest tube. Your assessing the water seal chamber and you note ).11 that the water moves up as the patient inhales and then moves down when the patient ?exhales. What may be causing this to happen A. This is normal and expected B. The chest tube has a leak C. The left chest tube is occluded D. The water seal suction should be increased 2-5 mmHg
A. This is normal and expected
283
29. 21-You are assisting a MD with the removal of a chest tube. What activity may the MD have ?the patient perform while the chest tube is being removed A. Valsalva maneuver. B. Leopold Maneuver C. Chest Physiotherapy D. Huff Cough Technique
A. Valsalva maneuver.
284
30. A 67 year-old man is admitted to the Post-anesthesia Recovery unit following chest surgery. The patient has a right chest tube that is attached to low suction. Three hours after admission to the unit, the nurse observes the drainage output from the chest tube is 300 milliliters. What is the most appropriate initial intervention? A. Notify the doctor B. Reduce IV infusion rate C. Strip tube with roller device D. Re-position in left lateral decubitus
A. Notify the doctor
285
31. The nurse is caring for a client who has had a chest tube inserted and connected to water seal drainage. The nurse determines the drainage system is functioning correctly when which of the following is observed: A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber C. Suction tubing attached to a wall unit D. Vesicular breath sounds throughout the lung fields
B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber
286
32. Which of the following is an example of epidemic point source? A. Tuberculosis B. Public health agency C. Contaminated water source D. Communicable disease pavilion
C. Contaminated water source
287
33. A 32 years old man develops chronic productive cough. He has not been feeling hungry and has lost three kilograms body weight in the past three weeks. On examination of his lung fields, there was diminished breath sound and widespread crackles. An early morning sputum culture was sent to the lab. A. Droplet B. Contact C. Airborne Rationale TB chest XRAY
C. Airborne
288
34. 8 year-old man is diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) and negative pressure room. Which of the following should wear a facemask? A. Patient's health care providers B. All people who enter the patient's room C. Person has close contact with the patient D. Family members who are at risk for infection
B. All people who enter the patient's room
289
35. A nurse working in medical unit is preparing to with droplet precaution measures in place. The following personal protective equipment; eyewear. What is the correct sequence foe putting the equipment on? A. Face Mask, Gown, Eyewear, and Gloves B. Gown, Face Mask, Eyewear, and Gloves C. Eyewear, Cloves, Face Mask, and Gown D. Gloves, Gown, Face Mask, and Eyewear
B. Gown, Face Mask, Eyewear, and Gloves
290
36. A nurse working in medical unit is going out (removing) with droplet precaution measures in place. The following personal protective equipment; eyewear. What is the correct sequence foe putting the equipment off? A. Face Mask, Gown, Eyewear, and Gloves B. Gown, Face Mask, Eyewear, and Gloves C. Eyewear, Cloves, Face Mask, and Gown D. Gloves, Eyewear , Gown, , and Face Mask
D. Gloves, Eyewear , Gown, , and Face Mask
291
37. Mr X attended in outpatient clinic with symptoms of shortness of breath, diarrhea and severe respiratory distress Which of the following is the best diagnosis of Mrs. A case? A. Corona virus B. Swine Flue C. Zika virus D. Hepatitis
A. Corona virus
292
38. A nurse receives a telephone call from the admission office of the hospital and is told that a patient with streptococcal meningitis will be admitted to the Medical Unit. The nurse is planning to apply infection control measures for the patient. Which type of isolation precaution the nurse must observe? A. Droplet precautions B. Contact precautions C. Airborne precautions D. Standard precautions
A. Droplet precautions
293
39. A 35 year old patient was admitted to a medical ward with confirmed agnosies f meningococcal infection. Which of the following infection control preventions the nurse should implement? A. Droplet precaution B. Contact precaution C. Airborne precaution D. Standard precaution
A. Droplet precaution
294
40. A 16 month old child is hospital in the intensive care unit with multi resistant sepsis. On the 3rd day. She had explosive diarrhea. A stool sample was sent to the laboratory for C. difficle investigation. Which of the following transmission based precaution is most appropriate? A. Combination airborne and droplet B. Contact C. Droplet D. Airborne
B. Contact
295
41. Which of the following is the most effective infection control precaution to prevent nosocomial infection? A. Hand washing before and after patient contact B. Wearing gloves and mask for direct patient care C. Isolation precaution D. Broad spectrum antibiotic
A. Hand washing before and after patient contact
296
42. Mantoux test done for a patient result was 6.5cm it consider? A. Latent B. Suspected C. Active
B. Suspected
297
43. When planning discharge teaching for a patient hospitalized for treatment of the 3rd burns over 30% of the body, a nurse knows it is most important to include instructions regarding the loss of large amounts of serum occurring with burns and the resulting loss of immune function. Which of the following instructions should be include? A. Wash hands frequently each day B. Wear supplemental oxygen at night C. Wear masks while in public spaces D. Take a multiple vitamin tablet night
A. Wash hands frequently each day
298
44. An infection control nurse notices purulent exudates , redness and tenderness on the surgical wound site for few post –operative patients in a surgical unit , She discussed with the ward nurse and emphasized that wound infection after the surgery can be prevented. Which of the following is the best possible action to minimize the incidence of wound infection ? A. Perform assessment of pain on the wound site B. Wash hand before and after each patient activity C. Encourage adequate intake and early ambulation
B. Wash hand before and after each patient activity
299
45. A patient in surgical was transferred to isolation room after the wound swab confirmed to have methicillin Resistant staphylococcus Atreus MRSA. Which of the following measures should the nurse take to prevent infection in the ward? A. Clean the would three times a day B. Discard all soiled dressing into waste bag C. Instruct the patient to wash hands regularly D. Wear gloves and gown on every entry into the room
D. Wear gloves and gown on every entry into the room
300
46. Medical asepsis requires which of the following hand washing techniques? A. Use hot water to ensure that pathogens are killed B. Use circular motion washing from clean to dirty areas C. Rinse soap off keeping hands and forearms lower than downs D. Hands shall be held higher than elbows and scrub
D. Hands shall be held higher than elbows and scrub
301
47. A 45-year-old patient admitted with pulmonary tuberculosis. The unit nurse placed the patient in an isolation room with negative air pressure and prepared all the personal protective equipment at the entrance of the room. What type of precaution measure has the nurse activated? A. Contact B. Droplet C. Airborne D. Standard
C. Airborne
302
48. To reduce the risk of transmitting methicillin-resistant staphylococcus auras (MRSA) from an infectious wound, which of the following precautions should be implemented? A. Airborne B. Contact C. Droplet D. Reverse isolation
B. Contact
303
49. A 45 year old patient is admitted with pulmonary tuberculosis. The unit nurse placed the patient in isolation room with negative air pressure and prepared all PPE at the entrance of the room. Which of the following PPE is the most important for the nurse when caring for this patient? A. Hair cover B. Sterile gloves C. N95 respirator D. Protective goggle
C. N95 respirator
304
50. 8 month-old child diagnosed with bronchiolitis due to respiratory ncytial virus (RSV) is admitted to the pediatric hospital. The nurse should initiate which of the following isolation precaution? A. Contact B. Airborne C. Standard D. Droplet
A. Contact
305
51. A 5-year-old child is seen in the primary care clinic with mild fever, headache, and malaise for about 2 days and today he has a rash filled with fluids. which of the following is the best suggested diagnosis? A. Chicken pox B. German measles C. Measles D. Scarlet fever
A. Chicken pox
306
52. A eight year-old boy present to the pediatric clinic with his mother who complains that the child has developed a skin rash. There is a clear drainage from the nose and he appears tired. The rash first appeared on the face and then spread over the trunk and is now beginning to appear over the hands. Some lesions show open ulcerations and other have crusted over. There are scratch marks over the skin. Which finding would indicate the child is ready to return to school A. Normal body temperature B. Dry and scabbed lesions C. Nares of free of drainage D. Absence of rash over trunk
B. Dry and scabbed lesions
307
53. A patient with measles (rubella) is on airborne precautions. Which of the following precaution techniques would be essential to implement for non-immune persons entering the room? A. Gloves B. Gowns C. Masks D. Face shields
C. Masks
308
54. A home health nurse has entered a home to complete an admission assessment on a patient who has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) urinary tract infection. The patient will receive intravenous anti-infective via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) for 3 weeks. Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST? A. Shake the patient’s hand B. Place the nursing supply began a clean, dry surface. C. Obtain the patient’s written consent for home health care D. Perform hand hygiene per the agency protocol
D. Perform hand hygiene per the agency protocol
309
55. You have just admitted a patient with bacterial meningitis to the medical-surgical unit. The patient complains of a severe headache with photophobia and has a temperature of 102.60 F orally. Which type of isolation should be suitable for the patient? A. Air borne B. Contact C. Droplet
C. Droplet
310
56. In order to reduce the risk of disease transmission from a patient with diphtheria, which of the following standard precautions would the nurse implement? A. Airborne B. Contact C. Droplet D. Ventilatory
C. Droplet
311
57. Patient with a colostomy complains of itching of the peris tornal skin. On assessment, the skin is covered in a red rash with white patches visible. What is the most likely cause of this condition? A. Not changing the pouch regularly B. Candidiasis C. Consuming acid-producing foods D. Dehydration
B. Candidiasis
312
58. A 33-year-old woman has come to the outpatient clinic for treatment of a vaginal infection. Physical assessment reveals yellowish excessive, thin offensive and frothy discharge. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Candidiasis B. Trichomoniasis C. Bacterial vaginosis D. Chlamydia
B. Trichomoniasis
313
59. The nurse is assessing a 65-year-old patient, who reports the fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and a productive cough with thick sputum The nurse should immediately initiate isolation precautions for which of the following? A. Influenza B. Pertussis C. Bacterial pneumonia D. Pulmonary tuberculosis
D. Pulmonary tuberculosis
314
60. Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for TB? A. Chest x-ray B. Mantoux test C. Sputum culture D. Tuberculin test
C. Sputum culture
315
61. A patient presented with high fever, headache, vomiting and neck stiffness for the past 3 days, which of the following is the first diagnostic intervention for this patient: A. Urine and stool analysis B. lumber puncture with CSF aspiration C. Complete blood count D. Chest and abdomen x-ray
B. lumber puncture with CSF aspiration
316
62. When a patient is admitted with acute influenza, what type of isolation is MOST appropriate? A. Reverse isolation B. Contact isolation C. strict isolation D. Respiratory isolation
D. Respiratory isolation
317
63. What precautions are necessary when caring for a patient with Hepatitis A? A. Gowning before entering the room B. Wearing gloves for direct care C. Wearing a mask at all times D. Placing the patient in a private room
B. Wearing gloves for direct care
318
64. The nurse is assigned to care for the a patient with Ebola virus disease. Which of the following is the most common mode of transmission for Ebola virus? A. Vector B. Airborne C. Direct contact D. Common vehicle
C. Direct contact
319
65. A nurse is caring a patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and she has to wear N95 mask when she enters to the parent room. Based on the cycle of infection, which of the following is the reason to use the mask? A. Break the transmission chain at the portal of entry. B. Break the transmission chain at the portal exit C. Kill the agent exits in the patients room. D. Eliminate the reservoir of the bacteria
A. Break the transmission chain at the portal of entry. B. Break the transmission
320
66. After receiving the initial treatment of TB , a 27 years old woman in the chest disease ward was given discharge instruction on dietary management , medication, regimen, hygiene care and follow up visits. What is the instructions need to be emphasized the most? A. Increase protein diet to promote healing B. More rest and relaxation to restore therapy C. Maintain daily exercise schedule to improve health D. Dispose sputum as guided to avoid spread of disease
D. Dispose sputum as guided to avoid spread of disease
321
67. A patient is admitted to the emergency room with an unknown infection disorder. Which of the following is the most important measure a nurse implement to reduce the risks of transmitting these microorganisms other? A. Hand hygiene B. Wearing gloves C. Wearing a mask D. Wearing a gown
A. Hand hygiene
322
68. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient with small that needs to be placed on airborne precaution. Which of the following item should be used before entering the patient room? A. Gloves and gown B. Gloves and goggles C. Gloves and mask D. Gloves , gown N 95
D. Gloves , gown N 95
323
69. Which of the following is the primary level of prevention? A. Detect and treat existing disease B. Prevent illness or injury occurring C. Reduce the extent and severity of health problem D. Minimize disability and restore to prevent function
B. Prevent illness or injury occurring
324
70. A Nurse is surgical unit prepares for a wound dressing. While she is preparing. She sneeze over the dressing trolley without wearing a facemask. Which of the following is the most appropriate action should the nurse take? A. set up a new sterile field B. put on a mask and continue working C. continue working the most sterile field D. Replace the equipment she thinks is contaminated
A. set up a new sterile field
325
71. Which of the following is the most effective infection control precaution to prevent nosocomial infection? A. Hand washing before and after patient contact B. Wearing gloves and mask for direct patient care C. Isolation precaution D. Broad spectrum antibiotic
A. Hand washing before and after patient contact
326
72. A 16 month old child is hospital in the intensive care unit with multi resistant sepsis. On the 3rd day. She had explosive diarrhea. A stool sample was sent to the laboratory for C. difficle investigation. Which of the following transmission based precaution is most appropriate? A. Combination airborne and droplet B. Contact C. Droplet D. Airborne
B. Contact
327
73. When planning discharge teaching for a patient hospitalized for treatment of the 3rd burns over 30% of the body, a nurse knows it is most important to include instructions regarding the loss of large amounts of serum occurring with burns and the resulting loss of immune function. Which of the following instructions should be include? A. Wash hands frequently each day B. Wear supplemental oxygen at night C. Wear masks while in public spaces D. Take a multiple vitamin tablet night
A. Wash hands frequently each day
328
74. A 20 year old woman is hospitalized with a strong and uncontrollable cough and has difficulty breathing while coughing. A doctor writes an order for the patient to be transported from the medical surgical department to the radiology department for an xray examination. The nurse prepares to transfer the patient and considers standard precautions and additional transmission precautions. Who of the following would be required to wear a mask? A. Radiology staff B. Nurse and patient C. Patient D. Nurse
B. Nurse and patient
329
75. A patient returned to the Surgical Unit from the thyroidectomy. The nurse observed that the arousable. Blood pressure 90/60 mmHg Heart rate 108 /min What immediate action should the nurse take? A. Recheck pulse and blood pressure B. Administer intravenous fluids as ordered C. Place client in modified Trendelenburg's D. Assess the back of neck surgical dressing for bleeding
D. Assess the back of neck surgical dressing for bleeding
330
76. Complication of thyroidectomy A. Distension B. Bleeding C. Vocal cord injury
B. Bleeding
331
77. progressive enlargement of a multi-nodular go tracheal compression including pain at the site of the ear and jaw, difficulty swallowing, change of pf breath by compressing the oesophagus. There is in otherwise the patient is at risk. What is the preferred treatment? A. Iodine treatment B. Thyroid hormone treatment C. Radioactive iodine treatment D. Surgical resection of abnormal thyroid
D. Surgical resection of abnormal thyroid
332
78. A Post thyroidectomy patient transferred to ward and developed tetany the nurse suspected that patient has ? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
333
79. A nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek’s sign indicate A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypokalemia D. Hypermagnesemia
A. Hypocalcemia
334
82. Patient is being admitted to the Recovery Room following a thyroidectomy. The back of the neck wound is covered with dressing. During the first 15 minutes, the patient started working and having diarrhea . A general assessment is performed with special attention given for the high risk for haemorrhage . Where would bleeding most likely occur? A. Stool B. Vomitus C. Dressing D. Back of neck
D. Back of neck
335
83. A 29 year-old man is in the Surgical Ward on his first post-operative thyroidectomy. He appears drowsy but the he is able to respiration by nodding head. He is developing mild restlessness. What is the initial recommended goal of care? A. Monitor vital signs of thyroid storm B. Assess for bilateral vocal fold mobility C. Monitor for swelling on the neck D. Monitor for vocal cord paralysis
A. Monitor vital signs of thyroid storm
336
84. A nuclear plant experienced a leakage, and all involved workers were brought to the Emergency Department for treatment . the medical team prescribed potassium iodide for the workers to block radioactive iodine to be absorbed by an organ in the body. Which of the following organs is the most sensitive to radioactive iodine? A. Brain B. Lungs C. Kidney D. Thyroid
D. Thyroid
337
85. The nurse care for a 60 year old woman who history hypertension, hypothyroidism and elevated cholesterol levels. She takes tablets daily for each of the health problem. The doctor orders a routine dual- x-ray absorptiometry test that shows decrease bone density. Which medication most likely contributed the test result? A. Statins B. Anti-hypertensive C. Synthetic thyroid hormones D. Cholesterol absorption inhibitors
C. Synthetic thyroid hormones
338
86. A 36 years old man ha undergone a subtotal thyroidectomy ago. he Is suspected to develop tetany after the surgery. Which of the following symptoms best indicates tetanus? A. Tingling in the fingers B. Pain in hands and feet C. Tension on the suture lines D. Bleeding on the back of the dressing
A. Tingling in the fingers
339
87. The nurse is assessing 50 year old woman whose thyroid enlarged. A blood sample was collected and an analysis confirm diagnosis. TSH 0.12 normal 0.4-6.5 Free 210 normal 50-140. Thyroxin T4 normal 4.5-11.2 A. Thyroidectomy B. Incision and drainage C. polythyroidectomy D. adrenalectomy
A. Thyroidectomy
340
88. 3-year-old child with an elevated body temperature is administered oral aspirin. The nurse records the body temperature of the child two hours an The American Academy of pediatrics suggests that removal of the tonsils under certain conditions. Which of the following meets these conditions? A. times viral tonsillitis per year B. Infrequent snoring and nasal quality C. Three times bacterial tonsillitis per year D. Tonsillitis accompanied by adenoid inflammation
D. Tonsillitis accompanied by adenoid inflammation
341
89. 5year-old child is postoperative after tonsillectomy. The nurse should ask the parents to give the child which of food after discharge from the hospital? A. Meat and rice B. Hot dog and potato chips C. Mashed potatoes and soup D. Cucumbers and tomato salad
C. Mashed potatoes and soup
342
90. The nurse is receiving a child postoperative tonsillectomy. Which of the following nursing assessment is suitable for the postop care? A. Encourage the child to cough spontaneously B. Observe for subtle signs of haemorrhage C. Place the child in the prone position D. Suction the mouth to clear the airway Because of violent behaviour
B. Observe for subtle signs of haemorrhage
343
91. The nurse is receiving a child postoperative tonsillectomy. Which of the following nursing action is suitable for the postoperative care? A. Encourage the child to cough spontaneously B. Observe for subtle signs of hemorrhage C. Place the child in the prone position D. Suction the mouth to clear the airway Because of violence
C. Place the child in the prone position
344
92. After tonsillectomy, a child begins to vomit bright red blood .the Initial nursing action is to? A. Notify the physician B. Turn the child to the side C. Maintain an NPO status D. Administer the prescribed antiemetic
B. Turn the child to the side
345
93. A client presents with Hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, muscle cramps, and positive Trousseau's sign. What diagnosis does this support? A. Diabetes insipidus B. Conn's syndrome C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Acromegaly
C. Hypoparathyroidism
346
94. The nurse cares for a client who has undergone a tonsillectomy. The nurse is most concerned about which post operative finding? A. Lack of appetite B. Throat pain C. Frequent swallowing D. Nausea
C. Frequent swallowing
347
95. 18-year-old man college student was rushed fainted at the school. He complained of severe quadrant. Upon palpation, he jerks even with sample was obtained. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient? A. Appendicitis B. Liver Cirrhosis C. Kidney stones D. Duodenal ulcer
A. Appendicitis
348
96. - year-old child was admitted with suspected appendicitis. A nurse was evaluating the child’s condition and the mother stated that the child did have his bowel movement for the past two days and requested for natives. What is the risk of giving laxative to patient with appendicitis? A. Pain B. Fever C. Rupture D. Diarrhea
C. Rupture
349
97. A woman patient is admitted for abdominal pain. She complain generalized plan nausea vomiting and constipation rebound tenderness and abdominal rigidity the past hour her localized on right side BP 130/68 HR 92 RR 18 TEM 38.6 What should the nurse suspect A. Intestinal obstruction B. Influenza C. Appendicitis D. Pyloric stenosis
C. Appendicitis
350
98. A man is to be discharged from the General appendectomy. The precautionary measures, plans are discussed with him. What is the most important desired outcome after discharge A. Remain free of post-surgical complications B. Report fever, redness or drainage from the wound site C. Use pain management techniques appropriate D. Resume gradual activities and avoid weight
A. Remain free of post-surgical complications
351
99. A 17 year-old arrived to the Emergency Room complaining abdominal pain on right lower quadrant. Pain was rated as 9 numeric scale with positive rebound tenderness over the pain Blood pressure Heart rate Respiratory rate Température 120/70 mmHg 95 /min 20 /min 39.2 Which of the following interventions has the highest priority? A. Keep NPO B. Secure an IV access C. Prepare for ultrasound D. Prepare for abdominal surgery
A. Keep NPO
352
100. The nurse would increase the comfort of the patient with appendicitis by: A. Having the patient lie prone B. Flexing the patient's right knee C. Sitting the patient upright in a chair D. Turning the patient onto his or her left side
B. Flexing the patient's right knee
353
101. A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with pain. On assessment, you noticed that when you pa101. A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with pain. On assessment, you noticed that when you palpate the right lower quadrant of the child’s abdomen, the child feels pain in the rig quadrant. Which of the following is the name of this sign? A. Rebound tenderness B. McBurney sign C. Roving’s sign D. Obdurate signlpate the right lower quadrant of the child’s abdomen, the child feels pain in the rig quadrant. Which of the following is the name of this sign? A. Rebound tenderness B. McBurney sign C. Roving’s sign D. Obdurate sign
A. Rebound tenderness
354
102. A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with pain. On assessment, you noticed that when you palpate the left lower quadrant of the child’s abdomen, the child feels pain in the rig quadrant. Which of the following is the name of this sign? A. Rebound tenderness B. McBurney sign C. Roving’s sign D. Obdurate sign
C. Roving’s sign
355
103. Treatment of nephritic syndrome is corticosteroids
356
104. Isoniazid for TB side effect numbness , hepatitis symptoms , stomach upset ,rashes
357
105. A 66 year old woman with a history of unstable angina and hypertension present to the emergency department with a dull chess pain that she describes as similar to heartburn. The pain radiates down the left arm. She had taken sublingual nitro-glycerine tablets with any relief any electrocardiograph is perform and shows elevated S T segments. Which medication is most likely to given to dissolve the thrombus? A. Heparin B. Warfarin C. Streptokinase D. Aspirin
C. Streptokinase
358
106. A 62 year man with a history of intracerebral bleeding three months ago, was referred primary health care following acute starch symptoms. Brain CT scan is normal and the patient is receiving oxygen by nasal cannula at 4LPM BP 185/105 HR 82 RR 18 TEM 36.6 SO2 93% Which of the following medication would be ordered first? A. RtPA B. Aspirin C. Dopamine D. Nicardipine
B. Aspirin Rational :Probable acute ischemic stroke; consider fibrinolytic therapy. If the CT scan shows no sign of hemorrhage, it is probable that the patient experienced an ischemic stroke and is a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy. Check for fibrinolytic exclusions such as significant head trauma or stroke in the previous 3 months, history of intracranial hemorrhage, elevated blood pressure, active internal bleeding, or a blood glucose concentration less than 50 milligrams per deciliter. Then repeat the neurologic exam.Consult neurologist or neurosurgeon. If the CT scan indicates hemorrhage, consult neurologists and neurosurgeons, and begin the stroke or hemorrhage pathway. Administer aspirin. If the patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy, administer aspirin and begin the stroke or hemorrhage pathway
359
107. A nurse checks the medication chart of a patient, which has the following order, nitroglycerin Tab sublingual. Which of the following medication administration routes should the nurse use? A. In the nose B. In the eyelid C. Under the skin D. Under the tongue
D. Under the tongue
360
108. A 28 year man admitted to orthopedic ward complaining of throbbing pain in casted leg. Which of the following nursing intervention should be taken first? A. Remove the cast B. Notify a doctor C. Assess pedal pulse D. Administer PRN medication
C. Assess pedal pulse
361
109. A 62 year old woman presents to the clinic with a primary compliant of fatigue. An assess shows a smooth and reddened tongue with a loss of papillae and pallid mucous membranes. She complaints of a sense of constant fullness of the stomach, with a decreased appetite and two three loose bowel movement per day. A neurological assessment shows numbness in the feet and lower legs. The patient type of test would the most likely? A. Schilling B. Erythropoietin C. Folic acid levels D. Vitamin B12 levels
D. Vitamin B12 levels
362
110. A mother of a patient who is on antipsychotic drug asked a doctor about some more detail about the drug. The doctor told the mother that her son is taking an atypical antipsychotic drug. Which of the following is an examples of this type of drug? A. Thioridazine B. Clozapine C. Chlorpromazine D. Haloperidol
B. Clozapine
363
111. A nurse is preparing scheduled medications due at 6 pm. If a doctor orders paracetamol tab 1g QID, and it was supplied from the pharmacy in 250 mg tablets. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing actions? A. Ask the pharmacy to provide 1g tablets B. Call the doctor to recheck the dosage C. Give the patient four 250 mg tablets D. Hold the medication and document in nursing notes
C. Give the patient four 250 mg tablets
364
112. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation has an order for 25 milligrams of drug (X), the available supply/dose is 0.25 milligrams. Which of the following doses in correct? A. Dispense two tablets to the patient B. Administer one tablet twice daily C. Dispense one half tablet to the patient D. Return tablets to the pharmacy and re-order
D. Return tablets to the pharmacy and re-order
365
113. A patient with a history of atrial fibrillation has an order for 0.25 milligrams of drug (X), the available supply/dose is 0.125 milligrams. Which of the following doses in correct? A. Dispense two tablets to the patient B. Administer one tablet twice daily C. Dispense one half tablet to the patient D. Return tablets to the pharmacy and re-order
A. Dispense two tablets to the patient
366
114. 13-year-old patient is admitted for diarrhea and vomiting. He looks pale and lethargic. A nurse is preparing to give IV hypotonic solution. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg Heart rate 76 /min Respiratory rate 18 /min Temperature 36.1°C Which IV solution is most appropriate? A. 0.9% saline B. Lactated ringers C. 10% dextrose in water D. 0.45% sodium chloride
D. 0.45% sodium chloride
367
115. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of patient in the medion expected to review the medical records of these patient. What patient is at risk for excess fluid volume? A. Patient with ileostomy B. Patient taking a loop diuretic C. Patient with chronic renal failure D. Patient hooked to gastrointestinal
C. Patient with chronic renal failure
368
116. physician orders an intravenous fluid of D5NS at 100cc/hr. This is an example of which of the solution? A. hyper alimentation B. hypertonic C. hypotonic D. isotonic
B. hypertonic
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117. When a patient was first diagnosed with schizophrenia, one of his family members asked the nurse about the possible causes. The nurse said that one reason is that he may have had an excess secretion of a neurotransmitter. Which of the following neurotransmitters? A. serotonin B. dopamine C. glutamate
B. dopamine
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118. The nurse administered a dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed to a patient who is in the post anesthesia care unit (PACU). The patient appears to be resting comfortably, the respiratory rate is 8 and the O2saturation is 21 oxygen via cannula is 86%. The nurse should IMMEDIATELY administer: A. Flumazenil(Romazicon) B. Medazolum(versed) C. Naloxone (Narcan) D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
C. Naloxone (Narcan)
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119. Digoxin not given to pàtient who has which of the following ? A. tachycardià B. hypertension C. tachypnea D. bradycardia
D. bradycardia
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120. Atropine is indicated for increase A. Heart rate B. Respiratory rate
A. Heart rate
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121. Morphine side effect ? A. tachycardià B. hypertension C. tachypnea D. bradypnea
D. bradypnea
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122. patient with ongoing magnesium sulfate the nurse should be alert to ? A. temperature B. respiratory rate C. heart rate
B. respiratory rate
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123. Soldier was brought to triage area after being exposed to chemical weapons. Signs and symptoms of nerve gas exposure were noticed. A nurse prepares for medical management. Which medication should the nurse prepare for the patient? A. Atropine B. Adrenaline C. Sodium nitrate D. Sodium thiosulphate
A. Atropine
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124. Nitroglycine administration route : A. Intramuscular B. Sublingual C. Subcutaneous D. Oral
B. Sublingual
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125. A nurse checks the medication chart of a part, which has the following order; Nitroglycerin tab Buccal at stat. Which of the following medication administration routes should the nurse use? A. In the ear B. Intravenous C. Under the skin D. Between cheek and gum
D. Between cheek and gum
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126. A nurse is caring for a patient who had Coronary Artery bypass Graft Surgery (CABG) four hours ago. The nurse notices that the patient has increased confusion and is restless. The patient reports nausea, weakness and paresthesia in the extremities (see lab results) Normal Values Result Test 134-146 mmol/L 145 Sodium 3.5-5.2 mmol/L 6.8 Potassium 2.15-2.62 mmol/L 2.50 Calcium Which of the following is the best medication? A. Naloxone (Narcan) B. Hydralazine (Apresoline) C. Potassium chloride (KCI) D. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate
D. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate
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127. Which of the following statement by the nurse about the clomid as an ovulation inducing drug? A. Given for the first 15 days in each cycle B. Maximum dose is 50 mg daily for a month C. It increases the risk of birth defects D. It increase the risk of multiple pregnancies
D. It increase the risk of multiple pregnancies
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128. Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) is prescribed for a 32-year-old infertility treatment. The nurse should understand that this medication is used for following actions? A. induce ovulation B. Decrease prolactin level C. Reduce endometriosis D. Stimulate the release of Follicle-Stimulating Hormone
A. induce ovulation
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129. A nurse is caring for a client with bipolar disorder, who is receiving Lithium carbonate. Before Administration of the next dose, the client complains of nausea and vomiting and the nurse finds that the client’s lithium blood level 1.5mEq/lL. Which of the following actions is considered Apriority? A. call the client’s physician immediately B. withhold the next dose. C. Administer IV fluids D. Repeat the blood lithium level testing
B. withhold the next dose.
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130. A patient was on a regular dose of lithium carbonate. The nurse noticed he has hand tremor, polyuria, diarrhea and vomiting. What immediate action should be taken by the nurse? A. Diuretics B. Withholding lithium C. Calling the psychiatrist D. Monitoring serum lithium level
B. Withholding lithium
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131. A patient was on a course of lithium carbonate drug. During the nurse found that he complained from nystagmus visual hallucination, and oliguria Which of the following drug related complications best symptoms? A. Overdose B. Mild toxicity C. Severe toxicity D. Moderate toxicity
C. Severe toxicity
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132. 49-year-old women presented to the Emergency Department complaint of severe chest pain. The ECG showed that the patient myocardial infarction. The doctor ordered the nurse to give the 800 mg of aspirin. What is the primary indication of aspirin in this case? A. Breaks down the thrombus B. Decreases the formation of platelet plugs C. Inhibits the conversion of prothrombine to D. Interferes with vitamin k to maintain
B. Decreases the formation of platelet plugs
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133. which of the following condition is a Contraindication for a woman oral Contraceptives? A. Dysmenorrhea B. Menorrhagia C. Thrombophlebitis D. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Thrombophlebitis
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134. A patient was on a course of lithium carbonate drug. During the nurse found that he complained from nystagmus visual hallucination, and oliguria Which of the following drug related complications best symptoms? A. Overdose B. Mild toxicity C. Severe toxicity D. Moderate toxicity
C. Severe toxicity
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135. A 45-year-old distressed and restless patient in the Psychiatric Ward was unable to sleep during the nights for the last two days. He was ordered sleep medication which was to be administered at 10 pm. At the time medicine administration, the patient was found asleep in bed Which of the following action should the nurse take regarding the dictation? A. Discard medicine and cancel the order B. Leave it at the bed side for the patient C. Wake him up and administer D. Hold, record and report
D. Hold, record and report
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136. 13- nurse is given health education to the parent how to reduce febrile avulsion in the child at home. Which of the following medication in the safest intervention? A. Analgesic B. Antipyretic C. Antibiotic D. Antiemetic
B. Antipyretic
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137. Doctor order to give Ofloxacin Otic route the nurse understand that medication will be given : A. Nasal B. Eye C. Ear D. Sublingual.
C. Ear
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138. A home care patient with chronic Obstructive reports an upset stomach. The patient is taking and triamcinolone acetonide (azmacort). Which of the following counselling should be given A. Theo-dur on an empty stomach B. Theo-dur and azmacort at the same time C. Theo-dur and azmacort 12 hours apart D. Theo-dur with milk or crackers
D. Theo-dur with milk or crackers
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139. Which of the following vitamins is necessary for wound healing process? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
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140. Which of the following vitamin supplements can decrease the incidence of Neural tube defects such as anencephaly and spina bifida new-borns ? A. Vitamin A B. Riboflavin C. Folic Acid D. Vitamin K
C. Folic Acid
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141. A 78-year-old woman who lives in a long-term care facility has been ving repeated episodes of urinary tract infections. She is prescribed then amine mandelate one gram to be taken by mouth four times per before meals and at bedtime. The nurse advises the patient that she need to remove milk from the diet while taking the medication. What is the primary purpose for this dietary advice? A. To prevent mal absorption of medication B. Decrease risk of gastrointestinal upset C. Reduces effectiveness of medication D. To make the urine acidic
D. To make the urine acidic
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142. A nurse received the serum digoxin level result for the patient the day and notes that the result is 2.6 ng/mL (see lab result) Test result normal value Digoxin (men) 2.6 0.8-2ng/mL Which of following nursing actions is the most important? A. Notify the physician B. Check previous vital signs of patient C. Record normal value on nursing note D. Administer scheduled dose of medication
A. Notify the physician
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143. A patient is being admitted in medical unit and has orders for fluid restriction of 1400ml / 24 hours. He is receiving IV medications in 50ml solutions QID. How much fluid should the caring nurse allocate for cra intake in 24 hours? A. 400 ml B. 800 ml C. 1000 ml D. 1200 ml
D. 1200 ml
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145. A nurse is preparing a medication order of 100 mg IV stat. The available hydrocortisone is 200mg per 5 ml distilled water for injection. Which of the following is the correct administered? A. 4.5 ML B. 3.5 ML C. 2.5 ML D. 1.5 ML
C. 2.5 ML
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146. A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous infusion of 2000 ml of Ringer's lactate over 12 hours. The administration set has a chamber that delivers 15 drops per ml. How many drops per minute should be administered? A. 14 B. 24 C. 42 D. 56
C. 42
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147. Doctor order to give medication x 300mg and available is 900mg/6ml how many ml the nurse will give A. 1.2 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6
B. 2
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148. A 56-year-old man was admitted with complaint working for three days. The nurse is preparing to administer infusion of saline 1000 ml over six hours. What is the hourly infusion rate that the nurse needs to infusion therapy in mL/hour? A. 155 B. 167 C. 190 D. 217
B. 167
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149. Doctor Order: Heparin 10000 units OD S/C Standard Solution 40000 units/ml How many ml would you administer? A. 0,25.ml
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150. A Physician has ordered clindamycin phosphate 300 mg to be administered intravenously the available stock was labelled . clindamycin phosphate 900mg mg in 6 ml what is the correct dose to be administered by the nurse ? A. 2 ml B. 4 ml C. 6 ml D. 8 ml
A. 2 ml
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151. A nurse check the medication chart of a patient, which has the following order; Paracetamol 500mg P.O. QID. How many times a day should the nurse administer the medication? A. Once B. Twice C. Three times D. Four times
D. Four times
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154. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient in medical ward who has a physician order of 1500ml of normal saline 0.9% to be administered over 12 hour period. Which of the following is the infusion rate? A. 75 ml/hr B. 100ml/hr C. 125ml/hr D. 150ml/hr
C. 125ml/hr
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155. Doctor order to give 75ml per hour over 12hours of normal saline how many ml total should be given? A. 450ml B. 600ml C. 900 ml D. 1000 ml
C. 900 ml
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156. A 37year old female prevented to the Emergency room with complain of symptomatic bradycardia appropriate nursing intervention include establish intervention access what is the possible drug to be given in the IV solution ? A. Digoxin B. Atropine C. Anticoagulant D. Calcium channel blocker
B. Atropine The appropriate drug for symptomatic bradycardia in this scenario is B. Atropine. Atropine is the first-line medication used in the emergency management of symptomatic bradycardia to increase heart rate by blocking vagal activity. A. Digoxin is incorrect as it can slow heart rate and is not used for bradycardia. C. Anticoagulant is irrelevant for bradycardia treatment. D. Calcium channel blocker can worsen bradycardia by slowing heart rate further.
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157. A 25 year old woman present to the emergency room with decrease reflexes, hypoventilation, hypotension, and fuced pupils, a family member who is accompanying the patient has bottle of diazepam which the label states was recently the family member also indicates that the patient has a depression. What intervention should the nurse expect to administer? A. Naloxone B. Active charcoal C. Tap water enema D. Magnesium sulfate to reduce the risk seizure
B. Active charcoal The patient’s symptoms—decreased reflexes, hypoventilation, hypotension, and fixed pupils—along with a history of depression and a recently filled bottle of diazepam, suggest a benzodiazepine overdose. The most appropriate intervention is A. Naloxone is incorrect as it is used for opioid overdose, not benzodiazepine overdose. The correct intervention would be flumazenil, a benzodiazepine antagonist, but it is not listed among the options. Among the given choices, none are ideal, but let’s evaluate: A. Naloxone: Incorrect, as it reverses opioid overdose, not benzodiazepine overdose. B. Activated charcoal: May be considered if the ingestion was recent (within 1-2 hours), but it is not the primary intervention for benzodiazepine overdose and is less effective for severe cases requiring immediate reversal. C. Tap water enema: Not relevant for managing benzodiazepine overdose. D. Magnesium sulfate: Used for seizures in conditions like eclampsia, not for benzodiazepine overdose or seizure prevention in this context. Given the options, B. Activated charcoal is the most plausible if the ingestion was very recent, though flumazenil would be the expected primary intervention in a real-world setting. However, since flumazenil is not listed, B. Activated charcoal is the best choice among those provided.
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158. Nurse gives health education to patient In outpatient department regarding a medication . she told him "avoid working outdoors in a hot weather, excessive sweating ad during l water daily Which of the following is most likely medication? A. Diazepam B. Haloperidol C. Lithium carbonate D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
C. Lithium carbonate The health education provided by the nurse—avoiding hot weather, excessive sweating, and ensuring adequate water intake—suggests a medication that affects thermoregulation or fluid balance. Among the options, C. Lithium carbonate is the most likely medication. Lithium carbonate is commonly associated with these precautions because it can cause dehydration and increase the risk of lithium toxicity in hot weather or with excessive sweating. Patients are advised to maintain hydration and avoid conditions that lead to fluid loss. A. Diazepam: A benzodiazepine, not typically associated with thermoregulation or dehydration risks. B. Haloperidol: An antipsychotic, not directly linked to these specific precautions. D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor: While MAOIs have dietary and drug interaction precautions, they are not specifically tied to avoiding hot weather or dehydration. Thus, the most likely medication is C. Lithium carbonate.
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159. During CPR of an admitted patient following the cardiac arrest. Two Dc shocks and one dose of epinephrine was given. A third dose was delivered followed by anti arrhythmic medication . what medication is the most likely to be given next? A. Adenosine B. Lidocaine 2 mg C. Epinephrine 1 mg D. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Epinephrine 1 mg
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160. A nurse is giving discharge planning instructions to the parents of a one year old child acute otitis media which of the following discharge instruction takes priority? A. Administrate antibiotics as prescribed B. Administer influenza vaccination C. Breast feeding as long as possible D. Continue using of pacifier
A. Administrate antibiotics as prescribed
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161. A 4 years old girl, was playing outside, she came to her mom crying and holding her right upper arm, she went to the hospital with swelling over the upper arm, pain and itching, the appropriate management is: A. Maintain patent airway B. Administer s/c Epinephrine C. Prepare for intubation
B. Administer s/c Epinephrine
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162. An older adult client with renal failure comes to the emergency department with a report of nausea and vomiting. The client's heart rate is 45 beats/min. The nurse is most concerned about which medication that the client takes A. Nitroglycerin B. Digoxin C. Doxorubicin D. Furosemide
B. Digoxin
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163. The nurse is caring for a 60-year-old in the Medical-Surgical Unit. On entering the room the nurse finds the patient alert, oriented and. The skin color appears healthy and pink. The nurse observes electrocardiogram and notices absent P-waves. Which initial action is the most important? A. Defibrillate B. Cardio version C. Pacemaker preparation D. Intravenous amiodarone
D. Intravenous amiodarone
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164. During health education for a patient on Monooamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) the nurse instruct him to avoid certain foods that can interact with the MAOI. Food containing with of the following contents should be avoided? A. Alcohol B. Caffeine C. Tyra mine D. Folic acid
C. Tyra mine
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165. After teaching a 54 year old patient with angina on how to take nitroglycerin sublingual PRN. Which of the following statements reflect the patient understanding? A. I have to take this medication once i need it only B. It is ok to take one tablet daily to prevent the heart attack C. I can take two tablets together at once if the attack is D. This medication will regulate my heart beats and I will be
A
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166. A 45 year old client who diagnosed with brain was schedule for craniotomy. It is important to preventing the developing of cerebral edema after surgery. What medication would the nurse expect to prescribed the client? A. Steroids B. Diuretics C. Ant convulsions D. Antihypertensive
A
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167. A 71 year-old woman who resides in a long-term nursing home fell while walking down stairs. The attending nurse arrives to find the patient sitting motionless on the stairs. She is alert and oriented but wishes to rest. While she rests, the nurse reviews the chart and notes that her medication regimen includes metformin, loratadine, warfarin and diclofenac. Which medication is most likely to increase the patient's risk of injury? A. Metformin B. Loratadine C. Warfarin D. Diclofenac
B
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168. ECG showed S-T elevation to confirm diagnosis of MI the nurse expect to do? A. Troponin level B. Cardiac catheterization C. ECO
A
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258- What are the side effects of furosemide IM injection? A. Weak pulse muscle cramps ✓ B. Hypertension C. Hyperkalemia
A
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259- In the resuscitation room, if you suspect a neonate has a diaphragmatic hernia, what should you do? A. Avoid mask and bag ventilation ✓ B. Administer nitric oxide C. Immediate surgery repair after resuscitation D. Start iv fluid
A
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260- A nurse checked the medication. Which medication does not require a refill or a new prescription? A. Diazepam B. Digoxin C. Ibuprofen ✓ D. Tetracycline
C
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261- 2 months baby with cleft lip came to out patient to follow up the nurse should assess which ? A. Sucking B. Growth
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262- Patient 75 years old had a history of peptic ulcer ..has pain in joint . What is the expected drug should be give by the nurse? A. Aspirin B. Ibuprofen C. Naproxen D. Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) ✓
D
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263- The nurse is caring for a critically ill patient on mechanical ventilation. The physician identifies the need for a bronchoscopy, which requires informed consent. What should do? A. Wait for the patient to awaken from MV (Mechanical Ventilation) B. Obtain consent from the medical staff (physician) ✓ C. Ask the patient to nod his head to indicate agreement D. Perform the procedure immediately
B
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264- The mother has a child diagnosed with leukemia and wants the nurse to not inform the child about the diagnosis. What should the nurse do? A. Okay, I will not tell the child B. No, I will tell the child C. Let's talk with the mother about these feelings ✓ D. Tell me why you don't want your son to know 265- The patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GC
C
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265- The patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15/15. How can the risk of falling be prevented? A. Keep a table near the bed B. Set a bed alarm ✓ C. Keep non-slip bath rugs available
B
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266- A registered nurse reviews a plan of care developed by a nursing student for a client with depression and notes a nursing diagnosis of impaired nutrition: less than body requirements. The registered nurse asks the student to revise the plan if which incorrect intervention is documented? A. Offer small, high-calorie, high protein snacks frequently throughout the day and evening B. Offer high protein, high-calorie fluids frequently throughout the day and evening C. remain with the client during meals D. complete the food menu for the client during the depressed period
D
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267- The day following surgery, the nurse notes bloody drainage on the dressing. How will the nurse describe this drainage when documenting? A. Serosanguineous B. Sanguineous ✓ C. Serous D. Purulent
B
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268- Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect that a patient’s IV has infiltrated? A. In the past hour, only 50 mL of fluid has infused B. The insertion site is red, hot, and swollen C. The temp has risen to 38.3C. D. The site is pale, cool, swollen, and painful
D
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269-What is the transmission method of H1N1? A. Blood B. Body fluid C. Saliva
C
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270- What is the usual setting of Tidal Volume (VT)? A. 4-6 ml./kg B. 6-8 ml./kg ✓
B
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271- What is the expected normal finding in an umbilical cord assessment immediately after delivery? A. Moist and pink ✓ B. Dry and dark red NOTE: If it specifies in the question a week or two after delivery we would choose D
A
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272- What are the most significant pregnancy-related complications that lead to death in developing countries? A. Eclampsia B. Bleeding ✓ C. Infection D. Obstructed labor
B
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273- A nurse receive pt one day post operative she expected to give antibiotic But she didn't find any antibiotic for the pt written in medication record .After reviewing dr. order she found antibiotic in order . And the another nurse not give it . And the pt missed 3 doses . What is the appropriate measure the nurse do to prevent harmful from the nurse malpractice ? A. Ask dr. to make another prescription B. Complain incident report ✓ C. Write the rational in pt record
B
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274- The head nurse encourages nurses to reflect on themselves, their strengths, and their weaknesses. What should be considered? A. Self awareness B. Self understanding C. Self-concept
C
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275- A female patient came to the ER complaining of high fever. She had hyperthyroidism for the past 10 years. She is now presenting with a thyroid storm. What should the nurse observe? A. Bulging eyes B. Increase sensitivity to heat
B
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276- Which of the following medications should the nurse give first? A. Vancomycin 200 mg TID B. Cefazolin 250 IV BID C. Furosemide 40 gm STAT ✓ D. Paracetamol 500 PRN
C
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277- What are the symptoms of cystocele ? A. Burning urination B. Backache C. Urinary incontinence
C
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278- When psychiatric patients use MAOI inhibitors and consume tyramine in food, what side effects can occur? A. Hypertensive crisis ✓ B. Neurological problem
A
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279- After the operation, which of the following should the patient receive in full: fluids? A. Filtered apple Juice ✓ B. Tomato juice C. Tea with milk
A
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280- A patient came to the ER presenting with agitation. Which drug should the nurse use for patient? A. Lorazepam B. Clozapine C. Haloperidol D. Zolpidem
A The best choice for managing **agitation in the ER** is **Lorazepam (A)** or **Haloperidol (C)**, depending on the underlying cause of the agitation [A](https://www.palliativedrugs.org/download/170525_Guidelines_for_the_Management_of_Agitation_Delirium_Jan_2017.pdf?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrZXVuampIejFVSjZMM2hzenRNcnIiLCJldmVudEluZm9fbWVzc2FnZUlkIjoiUWhNb1ROVkc3RWtjV0RXUThLUUxtIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrU291cmNlIjoiY2l0YXRpb25MaW5rIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX2NsaWNrRGVzdGluYXRpb24iOiJodHRwczpcL1wvd3d3LnBhbGxpYXRpdmVkcnVncy5vcmdcL2Rvd25sb2FkXC8xNzA1MjVfR3VpZGVsaW5lc19mb3JfdGhlX01hbmFnZW1lbnRfb2ZfQWdpdGF0aW9uX0RlbGlyaXVtX0phbl8yMDE3LnBkZiJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1) [B](https://emergencymedicinecases.com/emergency-management-agitated-patient/?copilot_analytics_metadata=eyJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tTb3VyY2UiOiJjaXRhdGlvbkxpbmsiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY29udmVyc2F0aW9uSWQiOiJrZXVuampIejFVSjZMM2hzenRNcnIiLCJldmVudEluZm9fY2xpY2tEZXN0aW5hdGlvbiI6Imh0dHBzOlwvXC9lbWVyZ2VuY3ltZWRpY2luZWNhc2VzLmNvbVwvZW1lcmdlbmN5LW1hbmFnZW1lbnQtYWdpdGF0ZWQtcGF0aWVudFwvIiwiZXZlbnRJbmZvX21lc3NhZ2VJZCI6IlFoTW9UTlZHN0VrY1dEV1E4S1FMbSJ9&citationMarker=9F742443-6C92-4C44-BF58-8F5A7C53B6F1). - **Lorazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** commonly used for **acute agitation**, especially if the cause is anxiety or withdrawal-related. - **Haloperidol** is an **antipsychotic** often used for **severe agitation**, particularly in cases of **delirium or psychosis**. **Clozapine (B)** is mainly used for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** and is **not** a first-line choice for acute agitation. **Zolpidem (D)** is a **sedative-hypnotic** used for **insomnia**, not agitation. Would you like more details on how these medications work? 😊
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281- The manager organized an education session to introduce new skills and provide orientation for newly joining nurses. What approach or method did the manager use? A. Directing B. Supervising C. Staff development
C
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282- Baby with cystocele, what is the most important assessment? B. Urine gravity B. Assess for contact cyst
B
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283- A Nurse is caring for 3rd day post partum woman , what should the nurse be alert about mother take ? A. I am interested to return home . B. The baby hair look alike his grandmother hair C. I am tired and I can't sleep all night the baby cry all the night.( wont stop crying) ✓ D. I finally become a mother
C
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284- A premature newborn born at 33 weeks gestation has been admitted to the ICU. How can the nurse prevent infection? A. Use standard precautions ✓ B. Feed the baby immediately 285- What is the cause of
A